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Worksheets

IHT 2024 Semester 2 Part 2

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the storage capacity of a standard single-layer DVD?

a)

737 MB

b)

650 MB

c)

25 GB

d)

4.7 GB

2.

What does CD-RW stand for?

a)

Compact Disc Read-Only Memory

b)

Compact Disc Recordable

c)

Compact Disc Rewritable

d)

Compact Disc Read-Write

3.

How much data can a dual-layer DVD-RW DL approximately hold?

a)

8.5 GB

b)

4.7 GB

c)

25 GB

d)

50 GB

4.

What type of laser is used in Blu-ray technology?

a)

Blue laser

b)

Red laser

c)

Green laser

d)

UV laser

5.

What is the approximate data transfer rate of a 4x CD-ROM drive?

a)

4.5 MBps

b)

600 KBps

c)

150 KBps

d)

1.35 MBps

6.

Which optical disc type can be rewritten and has a crystalline coating that changes phase?

a)

DVD-R

b)

DVD-RW

c)

BD-RE

d)

CD-RW

7.

What is the maximum storage capacity of a double-layer Blu-ray disc?

a)

500 GB

b)

50 GB

c)

8.5 GB

d)

25 GB

8.

What does DVD-RW DL stand for?

a)

Digital Video Disc - Recordable Dual Layer

b)

Digital Video Disc - Rewritable Dual Layer

c)

Digital Versatile Disc - Recordable Dual Layer

d)

Digital Versatile Disc - Rewritable Dual Layer

9.

What is the primary use of CD-ROM?

a)

To record data once

b)

To store and retrieve data

c)

To store high-definition video

d)

To rewrite data

10.

How is data stored on a CD-RW disc?

a)

Digital bumps

b)

Optical marks

c)

Phase shifting media

d)

Magnetic encoding

11.

What is the data transfer rate of SATA1?

a)

6 Gbps

b)

3 Gbps

c)

12 Gbps

d)

1.5 Gbps

12.

Which SATA revision includes hot pluggable support?

a)

SATA3

b)

SATA1

c)

SATA2

d)

eSATA

13.

What is the maximum cable length for eSATA?

a)

1 meter

b)

2 meters

c)

0.5 meters

d)

1.5 meters

14.

Which type of drives mainly benefits from the SATA3 standard?

a)

Magnetic tape drives

b)

Floppy drives

c)

Solid state drives

d)

Optical drives

15.

What does eSATAp combine?

a)

USB and FireWire

b)

eSATA and USB

c)

eSATA and FireWire

d)

SATA and IDE

16.

What is a feature of the eSATA connector?

a)

It is triangular

b)

It is L-shaped

c)

It is rectangular

d)

It is circular

17.

What should you do when installing a SATA2 drive into a system that only supports SATA1?

a)

Replace the motherboard

b)

Configure the drive to operate in SATA1 mode

c)

Install a SATA3 controller card

d)

No action needed

18.

Which device is not typically connected using SATA?

a)

Optical drives

b)

Floppy drives

c)

Solid state drives

d)

Hard disk drives

19.

What is the purpose of Native Command Queuing (NCQ)?

a)

To increase performance

b)

To enhance data security

c)

To increase data transfer speed

d)

To decrease power consumption

20.

Which device features SATA III connections?

a)

Xbox One S

b)

Nintendo Switch

c)

PlayStation 4

d)

PlayStation 5

21.

What does RAID 0 provide?

a)

Data redundancy

b)

Increased performance

c)

Decreased performance

d)

Fault tolerance

22.

How many disks are required at minimum for RAID 1?

a)

Four disks

b)

Two disks

c)

One disk

d)

Three disks

23.

What is the overhead for RAID 1 with two disks?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

33%

d)

No overhead

24.

Which RAID level uses striping with distributed parity?

a)

RAID 1

b)

RAID 10

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 0

25.

What is the overhead in a RAID 5 set with 4 disks?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

20%

d)

33%

26.

What happens if two disks in the same mirrored pair of a RAID 10 array fail?

a)

All data is lost

b)

Data is still safe

c)

Data can be partially recovered

d)

System performance increases

27.

What is JBOD an acronym for?

a)

Joint Backup On Disk

b)

Justified Block of Data

c)

Joint Binary Object Disk

d)

Just a Bunch Of Disks

28.

What does JBOD use for data storage?

a)

Parity

b)

Mirroring

c)

Striping

d)

Entire space available on all disks

29.

Which RAID configuration requires a minimum of three disks?

a)

RAID 5

b)

RAID 10

c)

RAID 1

d)

RAID 0

30.

What is the fault tolerance capability of RAID 0?

a)

Tolerates multiple disk failures

b)

Provides fault tolerance only with additional configuration

c)

Tolerates one disk failure

d)

Does not provide fault tolerance

31.

What is a partition in the context of a file system?

a)

A logical division of a storage device

b)

A type of file system

c)

A data storage format

d)

A network file system

32.

Which partition style is mentioned as an option during the initialization of a storage device?

a)

Master Boot Record (MBR)

b)

Binary Partition Table

c)

Sequential Data System

d)

Dynamic Storage Array

33.

What does formatting a partition typically involve?

a)

Expanding the storage capacity

b)

Connecting to a network

c)

Deleting the partition

d)

Assigning a drive letter

34.

What is the maximum file size supported by NTFS?

a)

16 terabytes

b)

4 gigabytes

c)

256 gigabytes

d)

2 terabytes

35.

Which file system is typically used for large flash drives due to its support for larger files?

a)

exFAT

b)

CDFS

c)

Ext4

d)

FAT32

36.

What is the primary benefit of creating separate partitions for different operating systems?

a)

Reduces the need for formatting

b)

Increases the storage capacity

c)

Allows a multiple boot system setup

d)

Enhances network connectivity

37.

What is a directory in a file system?

a)

A formatting method

b)

A partition style

c)

A type of file

d)

A container that holds files or other directories

38.

Which of the following is NOT a file system mentioned in the text?

a)

Ext4

b)

NFS

c)

CDFS

d)

Binary Large Object System

39.

What is the purpose of the 'Safely Remove Hardware' feature when using NTFS on removable devices?

a)

To scan for viruses

b)

To partition the device

c)

To prevent file corruption

d)

To increase data transfer speeds

40.

What happens during a Full format of a hard drive?

a)

The disk is scanned for bad sectors and files are removed

b)

The storage capacity is increased

c)

The drive is partitioned into multiple volumes

d)

The data transfer rate is enhanced

41.

What is the maximum number of primary partitions a basic disk can have?

a)

24

b)

3

c)

128

d)

4

42.

Which partition type uses a globally unique identifier (GUID)?

a)

GPT

b)

EBR

c)

APT

d)

MBR

43.

How many volumes can dynamic disks support?

a)

128

b)

24

c)

4

d)

256

44.

What is required before you can format and store data on a logical drive in an extended partition?

a)

A logical drive

b)

A dynamic disk

c)

An active partition

d)

A primary partition

45.

Which tool is used to access Disk Management on Windows systems?

a)

Disk Cleanup

b)

Computer Management

c)

Control Panel

d)

Device Manager

46.

What type of disk is required to install the operating system on a computer with a traditional BIOS?

a)

Dynamic disk

b)

Extended disk

c)

GPT disk

d)

MBR disk

47.

What does the protective MBR do in a GPT disk?

a)

Protects data

b)

Makes the disk bootable

c)

Prevents data overwriting by old tools

d)

Enhances performance

48.

Which Windows versions can boot from a GPT disk?

a)

Windows XP and newer

b)

Windows 7 32-bit and newer

c)

Windows 7 64-bit and newer

d)

All versions

49.

What must be done to convert a basic disk to a dynamic disk?

a)

Install a new operating system

b)

None of the above

c)

Reboot the system

d)

Delete all volumes

50.

What is stored in the partition table of a basic disk?

a)

Data files

b)

Backup files

c)

Operating system files

d)

Partition information

51.

What must be the format of a volume to create a mount point?

a)

FAT32

b)

exFAT

c)

NTFS

d)

HFS

52.

What is a requirement for the folder on the source volume when creating a mount point?

a)

It must be encrypted

b)

It must contain data

c)

It must be empty

d)

It must be shared

53.

What type of disk space does a spanned volume use?

a)

Disk space on a different disk

b)

Contiguous disk space

c)

Disk space on the same disk

d)

Non-contiguous disk space

54.

What is necessary to extend a volume onto another disk?

a)

Convert the disk to a dynamic disk

b)

Delete existing partitions

c)

Format the disk with NTFS

d)

Defragment the disk

55.

Which type of volume can only be extended using contiguous free space on the same disk?

a)

System volume

b)

External volume

c)

Network volume

d)

Non-system volume

56.

What is the primary function of Storage Spaces in Windows?

a)

To pool space from multiple disk drives to create logical drives

b)

To increase the processing speed of the computer

c)

To enhance the graphical performance of the system

d)

To secure data by implementing advanced encryption

57.

Which Windows versions support the Storage Spaces feature?

a)

Windows 8.x and 10

b)

Windows XP and Vista

c)

Windows 7 and 8

d)

Windows 95 and 2000

58.

What happens when a storage space runs out of disk space?

a)

It sends a notification to the user

b)

It compresses existing files

c)

It automatically deletes old files

d)

It will immediately unmount

59.

What is required to use the 'Two-way mirror' resiliency option in Storage Spaces?

a)

No additional devices

b)

A single storage device

c)

Four storage devices

d)

At least two storage devices

60.

What does thin provisioning in Storage Spaces allow?

a)

To physically expand the storage devices

b)

To decrease the physical size of the disks

c)

To reduce the electricity consumption of storage devices

d)

To allocate larger storage spaces than the disk space available

61.

Which option describes a benefit of using a 'Three-way mirror' in Storage Spaces?

a)

Reduces the cost of storage management

b)

Decreases the need for physical space

c)

Increases the write speed to the storage devices

d)

Provides redundancy if two storage devices fail

62.

How can you initialize a new hard drive disk on a Windows system?

a)

By physically installing a new disk

b)

Through the Control Panel

c)

Using the Task Manager

d)

From Disk Management

63.

What is the consequence of selecting the 'Simple' resiliency option in Storage Spaces?

a)

All data is lost if one of the drives fails

b)

Data is automatically backed up to the cloud

c)

Data transfer speeds are increased

d)

The storage space is encrypted

64.

What does the 'Parity' resiliency option in Storage Spaces use to reconstruct data?

a)

Parity information

b)

Mirror copies of the data

c)

Cloud backups

d)

Additional RAM

65.

What should you do to assign a new drive letter to a connected drive in Windows?

a)

Format the drive

b)

Change the drive letter from Disk Management

c)

Reboot the computer

d)

Disconnect and reconnect the drive

66.

What does SSD stand for in the context of computer storage?

a)

Solid-State Drive

b)

Static Storage Disk

c)

System Storage Device

d)

Secure Storage Drive

67.

Why should you not defragment an SSD?

a)

It enhances the read/write speed

b)

It increases the storage capacity

c)

It reduces electricity usage

d)

It causes unnecessary write/erase operations

68.

What does TRIM functionality do for an SSD?

a)

Increases the data transfer rate

b)

Compresses data to save space

c)

Communicates with the SSD to wipe clean unneeded data blocks

d)

Encrypts stored data

69.

What is the purpose of disabling defragmentation on an SSD?

a)

To increase data fragmentation

b)

To enhance color accuracy on display

c)

To improve the graphical interface

d)

To prevent unnecessary wear and tear

70.

What does MTBF stand for?

a)

Minimum Time Before Failure

b)

Maximum Time Before Failure

c)

Median Time Before Failure

d)

Mean Time Before Failure

71.

Which type of applications tend to use SSDs intensively?

a)

Video editing applications

b)

Web browsing applications

c)

Text editing applications

d)

Simple gaming applications

72.

How can you verify if TRIM is enabled on Windows?

a)

Checking the Control Panel

b)

Using the 'fsutil behavior query DisableDeleteNotify' command

c)

Using the Task Manager

d)

Looking at the SSD's properties

73.

What is a recommended practice for data stored on SSDs used in high-performance applications?

a)

Backing up data on a traditional hard disk drive

b)

Storing all data exclusively on SSDs

c)

Using cloud storage exclusively

d)

Not backing up data regularly

74.

What is the main reason fragmentation is less of an issue on SSDs compared to HDDs?

a)

SSDs use magnetic storage

b)

SSDs have unlimited write cycles

c)

SSDs do not have read-write heads

d)

SSDs are cheaper

75.

How can you manually enable TRIM on an SSD if it is disabled?

a)

By uninstalling and reinstalling the SSD

b)

By restarting the computer

c)

By entering 'fsutil behavior set DisableDeleteNotify 0'

d)

By defragmenting the SSD

76.

What is the main disadvantage of mechanical hard disk drives (HDDs)?

a)

They have finite read/write counts.

b)

They have moving parts that wear out over time.

c)

They require special file system optimizations.

d)

They have unlimited storage capacity.

77.

What should be done to maintain high performance on an SSD?

a)

Keep the SSD almost full to utilize space.

b)

Defragment the SSD frequently.

c)

Increase the disk rotational speed.

d)

Keep the SSD below 90% capacity.

78.

What is a common resolution for slow performance in HDDs?

a)

Update the firmware.

b)

Keep the disk defragmented.

c)

Replace the SATA cable.

d)

Enable TRIM support.

79.

What does the error message 'OS not found' indicate when booting a computer?

a)

There is no operating system on the disk.

b)

The BIOS settings are incorrect.

c)

The SSD is too full.

d)

The disk is not fragmented.

80.

What should you do if the BIOS/UEFI does not recognize a drive?

a)

Increase the disk's rotational speed.

b)

Install new operating system.

c)

Check if the power connector or SATA cable is unplugged.

d)

Defragment the drive.

81.

What is the purpose of RAID in a computer system?

a)

To reduce the power consumption of storage devices.

b)

To provide data redundancy and improve performance.

c)

To increase the storage capacity beyond the limit of a single disk.

d)

To defragment disks automatically.

82.

What could be a possible fix if a RAID array stops working?

a)

Replace the failed disk and restore data from backup.

b)

Reboot the computer.

c)

Clear the dyld cache.

d)

Update the SSD's firmware.

83.

What is indicated by a clicking noise coming from an HDD?

a)

One or more disk heads are failing.

b)

The disk has excessive free space.

c)

The disk is performing optimally.

d)

The read/write speed is too high.

84.

What is a symptom of a failing SSD?

a)

Increased data transfer speeds.

b)

The disk becomes noiseless.

c)

Frequent application crashes.

d)

Data loss or corruption.

85.

What should be checked if an HDD is performing slowly?

a)

The operating system version.

b)

The color of the HDD LED indicator.

c)

The amount of installed RAM.

d)

The speed of the SATA connection.