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AICE CS Review Paper 1

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the base number of digits that a binary system uses to represent numbers?

a)

10

b)

2

c)

16

d)

8

2.

What is the maximum positive number that can be represented in an 8-bit binary system?

a)

128

b)

255

c)

256

d)

512

3.

Which character encoding standard provides the greatest range of characters, using 2 or 4 bytes per character?

a)

ASCII

b)

Extended ASCII

c)

Unicode

d)

Binary Coded Decimal

4.

What does the hexadecimal number '1E' equal in denary (decimal)?

a)

30

b)

28

c)

16

d)

20

5.

What is the purpose of using Two's Complement in binary numbers?

a)

To add binary numbers

b)

To subtract binary numbers

c)

To represent negative numbers

d)

To convert binary to hexadecimal

6.

What does pixel density measure in computer graphics?

a)

The number of pixels per square inch

b)

The number of pixels per centimeter

c)

The brightness of the image

d)

The color depth of the image

7.

What is the result of increasing the sampling rate in sound digitization?

a)

Decreases the accuracy of the digitized sound wave

b)

Increases the file size

c)

Reduces the file size

d)

Makes the sound wave continuous

8.

Which type of compression allows the original data to be perfectly reconstructed from the compressed file?

a)

Lossy compression

b)

Lossless compression

c)

Vector compression

d)

Bitmap compression

9.

What is the primary advantage of using lossless compression over uncompressed files?

a)

Increases the quality of the file

b)

Reduces the time needed to search for data

c)

Enhances the color depth of images

d)

Decreases the sampling rate of sounds

10.

How is a bitmap image's first row represented in Run-length Encoding (RLE)?

a)

As a sequence of pixel colors

b)

As a sequence of alternating black and white pixels

c)

As a sequence of pixel counts and values

d)

As a sequence of pixel brightness levels

11.

What type of network topology is depicted in the diagram provided?

a)

Star

b)

Ring

c)

Bus

d)

Mesh

12.

Which network model allows for decentralized data operations where each node operates both as a client and a server?

a)

Client-server

b)

Peer-to-peer

c)

Centralized

d)

Distributed

13.

What is the primary advantage of using a client-server model over a peer-to-peer network?

a)

Lower data transfer rate

b)

Higher congestion

c)

Centralized resource management

d)

Lesser initial setup cost

14.

In a client-server network, what role does a proxy server play?

a)

Manages print jobs from client computers

b)

Sends, receives, and stores emails

c)

Manages database management systems

d)

Accesses software and user's data files stored on the server

15.

Which type of client relies solely on the server for processing and has no local storage?

a)

Thin Client

b)

Thick Client

c)

Hybrid Client

d)

Independent Client

16.

What is a primary benefit of using copper cables in network setups?

a)

Requires expensive optical transmitters and receivers

b)

Less expensive and easier to install

c)

Affected by electromagnetism

d)

Doesn't perform well with small charges

17.

Which type of network topology is described as having a central server (Switch) that all other computers connect to, allowing simultaneous and bi-directional sending of packets?

a)

Star

b)

Mesh

c)

Hybrid

d)

Bus

18.

What is a major drawback of fiber-optic cables?

a)

Lightweight and easy to install

b)

Improved security

c)

Needs expensive optical transmitters and receivers

d)

Less expensive

19.

Which network topology is characterized by each device being directly interconnected to each other?

a)

Star

b)

Mesh

c)

Hybrid

d)

Bus

20.

What is a significant disadvantage of using radio waves for communication?

a)

Can travel over large distances

b)

Used for TV signals and mobile phone communications

c)

Low frequency so transmits less data at one time

d)

Larger bandwidth

21.

How does Ethernet prevent data collision?

a)

By using fiber-optic cables

b)

Through CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access Collision Detection) method

c)

By allowing only one device to transmit at a time

d)

By using a dedicated server

22.

What is the bit rate defined as in the context of streaming media?

a)

The quality of the video

b)

The number of bits transmitted per second

c)

The speed of the internet connection

d)

The type of media being streamed

23.

Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing?

a)

Increased data privacy

b)

Higher storage capacity and infrastructure power

c)

Limited access to resources

d)

Dependency on a single server

24.

What is the primary function of a router in a network?

a)

To store data

b)

To provide a unique MAC address to each device

c)

To connect networks and manage data traffic between them

d)

To increase the speed of the internet connection

25.

What is the main difference between public cloud and private cloud?

a)

Public cloud is cheaper than private cloud

b)

Public cloud is owned by one organization, while private cloud is shared

c)

Public cloud services are accessible via a browser by multiple parties, while private cloud is dedicated to one organization

d)

Private cloud offers less security than public cloud

26.

Which device provides each end-system in a wired LAN with a unique MAC address?

a)

Router

b)

Network Interface Card (NIC)

c)

Wireless Network Interface Card (WNIC)

d)

Bridge

27.

What is the primary function of a repeater in network communication?

a)

Connects two cables

b)

Encrypts data

c)

Assigns IP addresses

d)

Filters spam

28.

Which device allows a device to connect to the Internet using a telephone line?

a)

Router

b)

Modem

c)

Switch

d)

Repeater

29.

What does PSTN stand for?

a)

Public Switched Telephone Network

b)

Private Secure Transfer Node

c)

Public Sector Transmission Network

d)

Personal Standard Telecommunication Network

30.

What is the primary difference between IPv4 and IPv6 addresses in terms of bits?

a)

IPv4 has 32 bits, IPv6 has 128 bits

b)

IPv4 has 128 bits, IPv6 has 32 bits

c)

IPv4 has 64 bits, IPv6 has 256 bits

d)

IPv4 has 256 bits, IPv6 has 64 bits

31.

Which of the following is a characteristic of subnet masks?

a)

They allow public IP addresses to be routed within the subnet

b)

They encrypt data packets

c)

They increase the speed of the network

d)

They provide wireless connectivity

32.

What is the purpose of NAT (Network Address Translation)?

a)

To allow private IP addresses to access internet directly

b)

To prevent private IP addresses from accessing the internet directly

c)

To assign dynamic IP addresses

d)

To filter harmful data from entering a network

33.

Which type of IP address is generally used when a device needs to maintain the same IP address for a long period, such as when hosting a website?

a)

Dynamic IP address

b)

Static IP address

c)

Public IP address

d)

Private IP address

34.

What is the primary purpose of secondary storage in computers?

a)

To store the computer's operating system exclusively

b)

To process data quickly and efficiently

c)

To store data that is not frequently accessed but is still necessary

d)

To increase the RAM capacity of the computer

35.

Which component in a computer system is responsible for executing instructions and processing data?

a)

Hard disk

b)

RAM

c)

CPU

d)

Secondary storage

36.

What is a key difference between resistive and capacitive touchscreens?

a)

Resistive touchscreens require a stylus, while capacitive do not

b)

Capacitive touchscreens can detect multiple touches, while resistive cannot

c)

Resistive touchscreens are more durable than capacitive

d)

Capacitive touchscreens use electrical current, while resistive use mechanical pressure

37.

How does a laser printer create an image on paper?

a)

By pressing ink directly onto paper

b)

By using a laser to change the color of the paper

c)

By transferring toner to paper using a laser and electrical charge

d)

By burning the image onto the paper with a high-intensity light

38.

What is the function of the floating gate in a solid state flash memory?

a)

It controls the flow of electrons for reading data

b)

It stores electrons and represents either 1 or 0

c)

It enhances the speed of data transfer

d)

It acts as a temporary storage before data is written to the disk

39.

What type of memory loses its content when the power is turned off?

a)

Non-volatile memory

b)

Volatile memory

c)

Static RAM

d)

EEPROM

40.

Which type of ROM can be erased by UV light exposure and then reprogrammed?

a)

PROM

b)

EEPROM

c)

EPROM

d)

Dynamic RAM

41.

What is the function of an actuator in a control system?

a)

To transfer signals

b)

To measure properties

c)

To switch on/off heavy appliances

d)

To store data

42.

What is the output of an AND gate if both inputs are high (1)?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

Depends on the system

d)

None of the above

43.

Which type of RAM is more complex and hence more expensive due to its design?

a)

Static RAM

b)

Dynamic RAM

c)

EPROM

d)

EEPROM

44.

What is the function of a NOT gate in digital circuits?

a)

It outputs 1 when all inputs are 0.

b)

It outputs 0 when all inputs are 1.

c)

It outputs 1 when any input is 1.

d)

It outputs 0 when any input is 0.

45.

Which register holds the address of the next instruction to be fetched?

a)

Program Counter (PC)

b)

Memory Data Register (MDR)

c)

Memory Address Register (MAR)

d)

Accumulator (ACC)

46.

What is the primary role of the Control Unit (CU) in a CPU?

a)

Executes arithmetic and logical operations

b)

Stores data temporarily

c)

Decodes fetched instructions and synchronizes operations

d)

Holds values that are processed by arithmetic and logical operations

47.

Which model is described as using a single processor that follows a linear sequence of fetch-decode-execute operations?

a)

Harvard architecture

b)

Von Neumann architecture

c)

ARM architecture

d)

Quantum computing model

48.

What is the purpose of the Immediate Access Store (IAS) in a CPU?

a)

It is a memory unit that can be directly accessed by the processor.

b)

It is a register that stores the current instruction.

c)

It is a bus that transfers data between components.

d)

It is a register that holds the results of arithmetic and logical operations.

49.

What is the primary function of the address bus in a computer system?

a)

To transmit data between the CPU and peripheral devices

b)

To carry the location of main memory locations for input/output operations

c)

To increase the clock speed of the CPU

d)

To store commonly used instructions in the cache memory

50.

What happens when the clock speed of a CPU is increased?

a)

The number of instructions executed in a given time decreases

b)

The CPU overheats due to not being able to remove heat fast enough

c)

The size of the cache memory automatically increases

d)

The CPU performs fewer instructions

51.

What is the role of cache memory in a CPU?

a)

It decreases the CPU's execution time for instructions

b)

It stores peripheral device management instructions

c)

It increases the number of cores in a CPU

d)

It stores commonly used instructions to speed up processing

52.

How do multicore CPUs enhance computer performance?

a)

By reducing the physical size of the CPU

b)

By executing multiple instructions simultaneously through different cores

c)

By increasing the cache memory size

d)

By transmitting video and audio data through HDMI

53.

What is the function of an Interrupt Service Routine (ISR) in handling interrupts?

a)

It decreases the CPU's clock speed

b)

It controls the processor differently during the occurrence of an interrupt

c)

It connects peripheral devices through ports

d)

It executes the main program without interruptions

54.

What does the assembler do with mnemonics and labels during the first pass of assembling machine code?

a)

Converts them into binary values

b)

Creates a symbol table and assigns specific addresses

c)

Reports any errors found

d)

Translates source code into machine code in one sweep

55.

What is the purpose of the LDI operation in assembly language?

a)

Store the contents of ACC into an address

b)

Load contents of an address into ACC indirectly

c)

Add contents of a register to ACC

d)

Jump to an address if a condition is true

56.

Which operation is used to add 1 to the contents of the ACC register?

a)

ADD

b)

STO

c)

INC

d)

CMP

57.

What type of addressing uses the contents of the Index Register to form the address to be used as an offset?

a)

Direct addressing

b)

Indirect addressing

c)

Indexed addressing

d)

Relative addressing

58.

How does a right shift (LSR #n) affect the bits in a binary number?

a)

Multiplies the number by shifting bits to the left

b)

Divides the number by shifting bits to the right

c)

Adds zeros to the left of the binary number

d)

Subtracts by shifting bits to the left

59.

What is the purpose of an arithmetic shift in computer operations?

a)

To compare values in the accumulator

b)

To carry out multiplication and division of signed integers

c)

To clear bits in a register

d)

To shift bits for encryption purposes

60.

Which operation is used with a 1 in bit masking to set an individual bit position?

a)

A) AND operation

b)

B) OR operation

c)

C) XOR operation

d)

D) NOT operation

61.

What is a key function of an operating system?

a)

To provide internet connectivity

b)

To control communication between user and hardware

c)

To manage network traffic

d)

To optimize application performance

62.

What is the main purpose of memory management in an operating system?

a)

To ensure data encryption

b)

To manage user permissions

c)

To ensure two programs do not use the same memory space

d)

To increase processing speed

63.

Which of the following is a security management task performed by an operating system?

a)

Allocating time slots for programs

b)

Ensuring data privacy

c)

Enhancing graphical user interface

d)

Managing external device connections

64.

What is the primary function of utility software in a computer system?

a)

To manage computer hardware and peripherals

b)

To enhance the computer's performance by managing files and disk space

c)

To provide synchronization between devices

d)

To translate high-level language into machine code

65.

Which of the following is a benefit of using program libraries?

a)

Reduces the size of the main .EXE file

b)

Increases the need for disk defragmentation

c)

Slows down the computer's overall performance

d)

Requires more frequent virus checks

66.

What is the main advantage of using a compiler over an interpreter?

a)

No .exe file is created

b)

Execution is very slow

c)

The program does not need to be compiled again, resulting in faster execution

d)

Allows real-time error correction

67.

What is the purpose of disk defragmentation software?

a)

To remove viruses from the computer

b)

To compress file sizes on the disk

c)

To reorganize disk contents for better performance

d)

To synchronize devices

68.

Which software is used to translate assembly language statements into machine code?

a)

Compiler

b)

Interpreter

c)

Assembler

d)

Utility Software

69.

What is the primary function of an Integrated Development Environment (IDE) in programming?

a)

To store data in relational databases

b)

To provide tools for coding, debugging, and testing software

c)

To manage user access rights in a database

d)

To optimize high-level queries in a database

70.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of a File Based System?

a)

Data stored in discrete files

b)

Enforces control on organization/structure of files

c)

Sorting must be done manually or with a program

d)

Security is not sophisticated

71.

What does a Query Processor do in a Database Management System (DBMS)?

a)

Executes programs line-by-line to debug them

b)

Handles high-level queries by parsing, validating, and optimizing them

c)

Stores data in discrete files on a computer

d)

Manually changes each file when data is updated

72.

Which of the following best describes the concept of 'Data Integrity' in a DBMS?

a)

The database allows multiple users to modify data simultaneously

b)

The database automatically backs up data when changes are made

c)

The database prevents users or applications from entering inconsistent data

d)

The database requires manual sorting of data

73.

What is the role of 'Indexing' in a relational database?

a)

To provide a means of executing programs line-by-line

b)

To store data in non-redundant interrelated data tables

c)

To provide fast access when searching on a specific attribute

d)

To display choices of keywords and available identifiers

74.

What does the 1st Normal Form (1NF) require in a relational database design?

a)

No repeating attribute or groups of attributes, and each tuple and attribute intersection must contain only 1 value.

b)

All attributes depend on the primary key.

c)

Removal of all many-to-many relationships.

d)

Each table must contain only one primary key.

75.

According to the 2nd Normal Form (2NF), what additional condition must be met beyond the requirements of 1NF?

a)

No repeating attributes.

b)

Every non-primary key attribute is fully dependent on the primary key.

c)

All attributes must be dependent on each other.

d)

Each table should have only one primary key.

76.

What is a key requirement for a database structure to meet the 3rd Normal Form (3NF)?

a)

No transitive dependencies between attributes.

b)

All attributes must be composite.

c)

Each table should have multiple primary keys.

d)

All non-key elements are partially dependent on the primary key.

77.

Which SQL command is used to create a new table in a database?

a)

CREATE DATABASE

b)

ALTER TABLE

c)

CREATE TABLE

d)

ADD PRIMARY KEY

78.

What is the purpose of the ALTER TABLE command in SQL?

a)

To delete a table.

b)

To modify the structure of an existing table.

c)

To create a new table.

d)

To query data from a table.

79.

What is the primary function of Data Manipulation Language (DML) in SQL?

a)

To define the structure of a database

b)

To query and maintain data

c)

To control access to the database

d)

To establish relationships between tables

80.

Which SQL clause is used to sort the results of a query in ascending order?

a)

GROUP BY

b)

ORDER BY

c)

JOIN

d)

SELECT

81.

What does the SQL operator "IS NULL" check for?

a)

Values that are duplicates

b)

Values that are not equal to a specified value

c)

Values that are zero

d)

Values that are not assigned a value

82.

Which of the following best describes the concept of 'Free Software Foundation'?

a)

Software that is sold legally without any restrictions

b)

Software that gives users freedom to run, copy, distribute, study, change and improve the software

c)

Software that is available for free but only for a specific evaluation period

d)

Software that requires payment before it can be used

83.

What is the main ethical concern addressed by Computer Ethics?

a)

Ensuring that software is distributed for free

b)

Regulating how computing professionals should make decisions regarding professional and social conduct

c)

Guaranteeing that all software is open source

d)

Preventing the use of computers in healthcare

84.

What is the primary purpose of data security in computer systems?

a)

To ensure that the computer system is energy efficient

b)

To protect data against loss and unauthorized access

c)

To increase the processing speed of the computer

d)

To monitor user activities on the computer

85.

Which of the following is NOT a threat to computer and data security?

a)

Encryption

b)

Malware

c)

Spyware

d)

Virus

86.

What is the role of firewalls in computer security?

a)

To detect and remove viruses

b)

To filter information traveling between the computer system and the internet

c)

To increase data storage capacity

d)

To enhance the graphical user interface

87.

How can phishing be mitigated according to the document?

a)

By using strong passwords

b)

By ignoring suspicious emails and using SPAM filters

c)

By encrypting all data transmissions

d)

By regularly updating the operating system

88.

What is the difference between data security and system security as described in the document?

a)

Data security focuses on protecting data on a computer system, while system security focuses on protecting the computer system itself

b)

Data security is about speed optimization, whereas system security is about preventing physical damage

c)

Data security deals with user interface improvements, system security deals with hardware upgrades

d)

There is no difference; both terms are interchangeable

89.

What is the purpose of data validation in computer systems?

a)

To check if the data entered is accurate and reliable

b)

To increase the speed of data processing

c)

To enhance the graphical user interface

d)

To expand the storage capacity

90.

Which method of data verification involves entering the data twice and comparing the two entries?

a)

Visual Verification

b)

Double Entry

c)

Parity Check

d)

Checksum Check

91.

What does a range check in data validation ensure?

a)

Data follows a specific pattern or order

b)

Data has the exact number of characters required

c)

Data is within acceptable minimum and maximum values

d)

Data exists in the database

92.

What is a checksum used for in data transfer?

a)

To verify that data is entered visually correct

b)

To ensure all bytes are added together and any errors are identified

c)

To check the length of data

d)

To ensure data follows a specific format

93.

What happens if a parity check during data transfer finds an odd number of 1s in a byte, but an even number is expected?

a)

The data is accepted without errors

b)

The data is retransmitted

c)

The error is ignored

d)

The system shuts down