Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Gov Final Test 1-2 Review

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If society believes that Human Nature is basically good, then the type of government created would

a)

be very authoritative and create strict laws to regulate individual behavior

b)

prevent innovation and the flow and access of new ideas

c)

not trust the people to make the right decisions when given the correct information

d)

maximize individual choice and participation in government

2.

Political Scientists are concerned with studying

a)

who is involved in a scandal or taking bribes

b)

who governs, for what ends, and by what means

c)

how to properly distribute federal money among state agencies

3.

John Locke believed in each of the following EXCEPT

a)

divine right of kings

b)

natural rights.

c)

limited government.

d)

consent of the governed.

4.

If government believes that protecting the rights of citizens is more important than protecting society as a whole, than that society practices the concept of

a)

organicism

b)

communitarianism

c)

agrarianism

d)

individualism

5.

In all societies, people must give up some _____ in order to preserve _____ in society.

a)

Freedom, Order

b)

Equality, Freedom

c)

Order, Equality

6.

Political Culture can be defined as

a)

the beliefs of voters about politicians personal lives

b)

the behavior of politicians seeking favors and bribes

c)

the norms, values and expectations people have of government

7.

The primary purpose of government is to

a)

provide public goods to citizens

b)

preserve order

c)

ensure the rights of individuals

8.

Unalienable rights" are those rights that

a)

are not important enough to be included in a constitution or bill of rights.

b)

belong to us because they are a natural part of the human condition.

c)

are given to the citizens by government and can be taken away whenever government wishes

d)

are procedural in nature and try to preserve due process in criminal matters.

9.

The purposes of government include ALL of the following EXCEPT

a)

Preserve order

b)

Preserve elite privileges

c)

Provide public goods

d)

Ensure individual rights

10.

Politics can be defined as

a)

seeking advantages in life at the expense of others

b)

assisting others by providing basic subsistence

c)

the process of making decisions

11.

An organization extending to the whole society that can legitimately use force is called

a)

bureaucracy

b)

government

c)

industry

12.

The principal that the standards that govern human behavior are derived from the nature of humans themselves and can be universally applied is called

a)

natural law

b)

neoconservatism

c)

the social contract

d)

representative democracy

13.

The Paradox of Free Government describes the concept that

a)

the conflict between majority rule and minority rights

b)

freedom costs more than we can pay for which is why the deficit is so high

c)

people must sacrifice some freedoms in order to protect others

d)

people are capable of both good and evil which is why there are strict laws to limit behavior

14.

Americans participate in government in many ways, including lobbying, volunteering for campaigns, and protesting, but most do so primarily through

a)

gathering in assemblies, such as town halls.

b)

participation in social media discussions

c)

writing or calling their representatives in Congress about important issues.

d)

voting for representatives.

15.

What theory holds that individuals are rational, decisive actors who know their political interests and attempt to act on them?

a)

Rational-choice theory

b)

Political-choice theory

c)

Mass-choice theory

d)

Public-choice theory

16.

What is the definition of negative liberty?  

a)

Freedom is the "absence" of constraints

b)

Freedom is the "limitation" of constraints

c)

Freedom is the "inclusion" of constraints

d)

No answer text provided.

17.

According to the text, the political term institutions is defined as

a)

the established biases that shortcut human decision making

b)

the organizations, norms, and rules that structure political action

c)

the ideological mindsets of a political environment

d)

the philosophical arguments supporting different political systems

18.

What is the basic principle of the concept known as individualism?

a)

The idea that individuals, with some assistance from private groups in society, are responsible for their own well-being

b)

The idea that individuals, with some assistance from the government, are responsible for their own well-being

c)

The idea that individuals, not society, are responsible for their own well-being

d)

The idea that society has the responsibility to takes care of all its people

19.

According to pluralist theory, who or what influences government most?

a)

Interest groups

b)

Individuals

c)

Social movements

d)

Bureaucrats

20.

A government in which citizens rule indirectly through elected representatives is a ____________.

a)

direct democracy

b)

dictatorship

c)

parliamentary system

d)

republic

21.

The idea that power rests in the hands of a small number of wealthy and powerful individuals is known as 

a)

elite theory

b)

pluralist theory

c)

bureaucratic theory

d)

social movement theory

22.

The Constitution’s Article VI asserts that the national government’s laws, and all treaties between the United States and foreign countries, come before those adopted by any state. This has come to be known as the

a)

privilege and immunities clause

b)

full faith and credit clause.

c)

supremacy clause.

d)

necessary and proper clause.

23.

In England in the eighteenth century, the notion that members of Parliament should be guided by their sense of “the general good” regardless of the district they represented was known as

a)

trustee representation.

b)

constituency service.

c)

delegate representation.

d)

better angels” representation.

24.

Discussions among the Constitution’s framers over ________ pitted the elite groups of northern merchants and southern planters against each other, providing an early warning of national conflict to come.

a)

states’ rights

b)

slavery

c)

the regulation of interstate commerce

d)

control of the executive branch

25.

In 1776, for the first time in world history, the American colonists made the claim that government

a)

must be limited.

b)

derives its power from the consent of the governed.

c)

must protect private property

d)

must be maintained by frequent elections

26.

The colonists favored the model of representation in which members of the legislature responded to constituents’ desires, known as

a)

delegate representation.

b)

trustee representation.

c)

politico representation.

d)

parliamentary representation.

27.

The power of federal judges to interpret the Constitution in cases that involve questions about federal law or the Constitution is referred to as

a)

stare decisis.

b)

judicial oversight.

c)

judicial review.

d)

judicial sovereignty

28.

What did the Declaration of Independence do?

a)

Explains America’s political philosophy and provides a list of grievances against King George.

b)

Outlines the structure of the new government.

c)

Codifies into law the rights and liberties—the protections from government—that every citizen is guaranteed.

d)

Formally served notice of America's intent to enter World War 2.

29.

The Antifederalists, a group of respected early American statesmen, argued in writings against the new Constitution that it was a step toward monarchy and a betrayal of the American Revolution because

a)

the framers granted too much power to political minorities, who would use their power to oppress the majority.

b)

the framers erred in giving so much power to an elected House of Representatives, risking mob rule.

c)

they thought a stronger central government would use its power to oppress ordinary citizens.

d)

the document did not include a bill of rights

30.

At the Constitutional Convention, the issue of counting enslaved persons for purposes of representation was settled by the

a)

Great Compromise.

b)

Virginia Plan.

c)

Three-Fifths Compromise.

d)

Fifteenth Amendment, ratified after the Civil War.

31.

Compared with the Articles of Confederation, the Constitution of 1787 __________.

a)

centralized power in a strong national government.

b)

decentralized power by maximizing states’ authority.

c)

focused on states’ rights

d)

was more democratic

32.

The agreement reached during the Constitutional Convention to adopt the proposal that gave each state an equal number of senators regardless of the population but linked representation in the House of Representatives to population became known as the

a)

Boston Plan.

b)

Virginia Plan.

c)

Great Compromise.

d)

Three-Fifths Compromise

33.

A power held by the states and the federal government simultaneously, such as the power to levy taxes, is called ________ power.

a)


a reserved

b)

a sovereign or supreme

c)


a concurrent

d)

an eminent

34.

The Tenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution states that the powers the Constitution does not delegate to the national government are

a)

reserved to the states or to the people.

b)

reserved for the county and municipal governments

c)

left to bargaining for control between states and the national government.

d)

to be exercised only through specific legislation passed by Congress.

35.

The Constitution’s commerce clause gives the federal government power to

a)

regulate international commerce only.

b)

regulate only the specific parts of commerce not covered by individual states’ constitutions.

c)

regulate interstate commerce and trade with foreign nations

d)

regulate interstate commerce only

36.

_______ is defined as the transfer of authority from national to state or local governments.

a)

Devolution

b)

Supremacy

c)

Elasticity

d)

Power-seeking theory

37.

According to the ________ clause, if a couple marries in Texas as regulated by state law, then Missouri must also recognize that marriage even though the couple was not married under Missouri state law.

a)

contract

b)

necessary and proper

c)

privileges and immunities

d)

full faith and credit

38.

Mechanisms through which each branch of government participates in and influences the activities of the other branches are referred to as

a)

separation of powers

b)

federalism

c)

cooperative governance.

d)

checks and balances.

39.

The system of supportive relations among national, state, and local governments since the 1930s is often referred to as

a)

friendly federalism

b)

associative federalism.

c)

elastic federalism

d)

cooperative federalism

40.

Under the ________ clause of Article IV, Section 2 of the Constitution, states are prohibited from discriminating against the fundamental rights of someone from another state.

a)

establishment

b)

general welfare

c)

habeascorpus

d)

privileges and immunities

41.

The principle that a local jurisdiction derives its authority from the state is known as

a)

Dillon’s Rule.

b)

Adams’s Doctrine.

c)

Hamilton’s Corollary

d)

Franklin’s Fancy

42.

Powers derived from the necessary and proper clause of Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution are called

a)

unicameral powers.

b)

implied powers.

c)

expressed powers.

d)

un-enumerated powers

43.

Representatives who believe that they have been elected to do the bidding of those who sent them to Congress are said to be serving as

a)

trustees

b)

politicos

c)

agents

d)

delegates

44.

Compared to the House of Representatives, the Senate serves constituencies that are mostly

a)

larger and more diverse

b)

smaller and more diverse.

c)

larger and more homogeneous

d)

smaller and more homogeneous.

45.

State legislatures must redraw congressional districts to reflect population changes ________, after censuses.

a)

every 20 years

b)

every 10 years

c)

every 6 years

d)

annually

46.

What leaders hold most of the real power within the U.S. Senate and control the Senate’s calendar or agenda for legislation?

a)

the president pro tempore and the majority leader

b)

the majority leader and the vice president

c)

the vice president, with the majority and minority leaders

d)

the majority and minority leaders

47.

Who is the chief presiding officer in the U.S. House of Representatives?

a)

Speaker of the House

b)

majority leader

c)

minority leader

d)

majority whip

48.

A rule allowing a three-fifths majority of U.S. senators to set a time limit on debate over a given bill, or cut off a filibuster, is called

a)

preemption

b)

a closed rule.

c)

cloture

d)

whipping

49.

A joint committee created to iron out differences between House and Senate versions of the same bill is called

a)

a blue ribbon panel.

b)

a conference committee

c)

a joint caucus.

d)

a joint investigative committee

50.

The party conference or party caucus is a

a)

group of congressional aides who administer the day-to-day affairs of the national parties

b)

series of district meetings in which participants collectively select party nominees for congressional races.

c)

party organ designed to promote the election of fellow party candidates.

d)

meeting of a political or legislative group to select leaders or discuss party strategy.

51.

Senators, in contrast to House members, are better equipped to consider new ideas and bring together new political coalitions because they serve

a)

six-year terms, which gives them a longer-term view.

b)

eight-year terms, which insulates them from immediate consequences.

c)

as agents for more diverse groups and interests via statewide elections.

d)

larger and more diverse constituencies in four-year terms.

52.

How often do seats in the House of Representatives come up for reelection?

a)

every year

b)

every two years

c)

every four years

d)

every six years

53.

A permanent legislative committee that considers legislation within its designated subject area is known as a

a)

standing committee.

b)

oversight committee.

c)

conference committee.

d)

joint blue ribbon panel.

54.

The traditional but informal designation for the heads of all the major departments of the federal government in the United States is the

a)

cabinet

b)

executive service

c)

advisory staff.

d)

executive council.

55.

The Constitution grants the power to declare war to

a)

the president

b)

Congress

c)

the secretary of defense.

d)

the director of homeland security.

56.

Powers granted to one branch of government by the Constitution but exercised by another branch with permission of the first are called

a)

executive powers.

b)

enumerated powers.

c)

delegated powers.

d)

expressed powers.

57.

The president’s constitutional power to reject acts of Congress is known as

a)

executive privilege.

b)

legislative initiative

c)

the veto.

d)

an executive order.

58.

An announcement made by a president after signing a bill, which presidents beginning with Reagan have used as a means of saying how they interpret or will implement congressional legislation, is known as

a)

executive review.

b)

a line-item veto.

c)

a presidential directive.

d)

a signing statement

59.

A set of permanent executive branch agencies, such as the Office of Management and Budget and the National Security Council, that perform defined management tasks for the president and compose a major part of what is called the “institutional presidency,” is officially known as the

a)

cabinet

b)

White House.

c)

Directorate of Executive Affairs

d)

Executive Office of the President

60.

The National Security Council

a)

excludes members of the cabinet to give the president more nonpolitical advice on national security issues.

b)

consists of the chairpersons of national security committees in Congress, plus the president.

c)

provides mostly political advice and is used to help bolster a president’s electoral success.

d)

consists of the president, vice president, and secretaries of state and defense, as well as other policy experts

61.

Powers claimed by the president that are not directly stated in the Constitution but are said to stem from “the rights, duties, and obligations of the presidency” are known as

a)

inherent powers.

b)

enumerated powers.

c)

expressed powers

d)

delegated powers.

62.

Implementation is

a)

the delegation of the duties of executive branch agencies to Congress

b)

the tendency of bureaucracies to tilt toward the bureaucrats’ policy preferences and away from the intentions of the elected officials who created the laws.

c)

the efforts by Congress, through hearings, investigations, and other techniques, to exercise control over the activities of executive agencies.

d)

the development of rules, regulations, and bureaucratic procedures to translate laws into action

63.

When a regulatory agency charges a person or business suspected of violating a particular rule or regulation and holds a hearing on the matter, it engages in

a)

oversight

b)

administrative adjudication.

c)

rule making

d)

administrative law review.

64.

Which term defines congressional efforts to exercise control over the activities of bureaucratic agencies in the executive branch through hearings, investigations, and other techniques?

a)

oversight

b)

rule making

c)

regulation

d)

micromanagement

65.

Privatization means that part of the bureaucracy has been

a)

totally eliminated

b)

sent to state and local governments for implementation.

c)

drifting away from its core missions

d)

transferred out of the public sector and delegated to private companies

66.

The policy of reducing the number of rules issued by federal regulatory agencies is known as

a)

deregulation

b)

administrative review.

c)

devolution

d)

privatizing

67.

A regulatory agency is best described as

a)

a department, bureau, or independent agency whose primary mission is to make rules governing a particular type of activity.

b)

a department or bureau of government whose mission is to promote, serve, or represent a particular interest.

c)

a department or bureau that provides public services that are either too expensive or too important to be left to private initiatives

d)


a department, bureau, or agency that operates more like a private business and charges for a market service

68.

Which group helps set monetary policy for the United States by making changes to the interest rate and the money supply?

a)

Securities and Exchange Commission

b)

Federal Reserve System

c)

Federal Deposit Insurance Commission

d)

Consumer Financial Protection Board

69.

The term “judicial ________” best describes the power of the courts to declare actions of the legislative and executive branches invalid or unconstitutional.

a)

review

b)

supremacy

c)

activism

d)

restraint

70.

The lowest tier of the federal court system consists of ________, which are located in each of the 50 states, the District of Columbia, and several territories. These take in civil and criminal trial courts of general jurisdiction.

a)

constitutional courts

b)

state courts

c)

district courts

d)

circuit courts

71.

Jurisdiction is best described as

a)

the body of principles derived from past cases courts use to decide present and future case

b)

a type of law that involves disputes between individuals and the federal government.

c)

the requirement that citizens be treated according to the law and provided with adequate protections for their rights.

d)

the types of cases over which a court has authority.

72.

A writ of certiorari is

a)

the official name of written arguments presented before the Supreme Court.

b)

a court order demanding that an individual in custody be brought into court and shown the cause for detention

c)

a formal request to have the Supreme Court review a decision of a lower court.

d)

a brief filed by someone who is not party to a lawsuit but has a strong interest in influencing the outcome

73.

A lawsuit in which a large number of people with common interests join together under a representative party to bring or defend the suit is called a ________ lawsuit.

a)

group

b)

plurality

c)

mass tort

d)

class action

74.

Interest groups, sometimes at the request of attorneys involved in cases, often attempt to influence Supreme Court decisions through

a)

direct lobbying.

b)

recommendations for judicial posts.

c)

amicus curiae, or “friend of the court” briefs.

d)

stare decisis, or “friend of the court” briefs.

75.

A regional ________ exercises appellate jurisdiction over cases heard by the district courts within its territory

a)

circuit court

b)

trial court

c)

en banc court

d)

three-judge tribunal

76.

Prior judicial decisions that are applied to a given case, whether in a federal or state court, are known as

a)

standards

b)

precedents

c)

briefs

d)

public law.