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10O Half-Yearly Study Quiz NHSPA

Total questions: 250

Worksheet time: 5hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
H is the chemical symbol for which element?
a)
Helium
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Mercury
2.
Na is the chemical symbol for which element? 
a)
Sodium
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Neon
3.
N is the chemical symbol for which element? 
a)
Sodium
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Nickel
4.
He is the chemical symbol for which element? 
a)
Heehaw
b)
Helfion
c)
Helium
5.
The chemical symbol for nitrogen is
a)
N
b)
Ni
c)
Na
6.
The chemical symbol for carbon is
a)
C
b)
Ca
c)
Na
7.

Chemical Symbol for Magnesium

a)

Mn

b)

Mg

c)

Me

d)

Mm

8.

Symbol for potassium

a)

Pt

b)

P

c)

Ps

d)

K

9.

Chemical symbol for sodium

a)

Na

b)

Sa

c)

So

d)

No

10.

Elements that are dull in appearance, poor conductors of heat and electricity; a chemical element lacking typical metallic properties.

a)

metalloid

b)

metal

c)

Halogens

d)

non-metal

11.

rows of the periodic table

a)

group/family

b)

period

12.

two or more atoms bonded together

a)

mixture

b)

element

c)

compound

d)

molecule

13.

a pure substance made of only one kide of atom

a)

molecule

b)

element

c)

compound

d)

Halogens

14.

A class of elements characterized by physical properties that include shininess, malleability, ductility, and conductivity.

a)

mixture

b)

metal

c)

non-metal

d)

metalloid

15.

An element that has some characteristics of metals and some characteristics of non-metals

a)

metalloid

b)

metals

c)

non-metals

d)

Halogens

16.

Electrons on the outer most energy level of an atom.

a)

valence electron

b)

noble gasses

c)

electrons

d)

electron cloud

17.

Non-metals, group 18, the most non-reactive elements.

a)

Halogens

b)

Noble gasses

c)

Alkali metals

d)

Alkali Earth metals

18.

contains non metals, 7 valence electrons in it's outermost energy level. Very reactive. Group 17

a)

Noble Gasses

b)

Alkali Metals

c)

Halogens

d)

Alkali Earth Metals

19.

a substance formed by two or more elements

a)

mixture

b)

molecule

c)

compound

d)

element

20.

columns of the periodic table

a)

group/family

b)

period

21.

Total mass of the protons and neutrons in an atom.

a)

atomic mass

b)

atomic number

c)

neutrons

d)

electrons

22.
The horizontal row on the periodic table is called a
a)
group
b)
family
c)
period
d)
atomic number
23.
A vertical column is called...
a)
group
b)
tower
c)
period
d)
crew
24.
The number at the bottom of each square on the periodic table is the ...
a)
atomic number
b)
atomic mass
c)
chemical symbol
d)
element name
25.
The number at the top of each square on the periodic table is the ...
a)
atomic number
b)
atomic mass
c)
Chemical Symbol
d)
Element Name
26.
Sodium (Na) is found in group 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
27.
What does the 6 represent?
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
element name
d)
chemical symbol 
28.
What does 12.011 represent?
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
element name
d)
chemical symbol 
29.

Which element would have similar chemical properties to Oxygen (O)?

a)

Beryllium (Be)

b)

Sulfur (S)

c)

Nitrogen (N)

d)

Molybdenum (Mo)

30.

What is a Bohr Model

a)

diagrams for funsies

b)

simple diagrams that show the atomic structure of an atom

c)

diagrams that show where it is at on the periodic table

d)

not the answer

31.

A valence electron is what?

a)

The electron in the outer shell of an atom.

b)

The electron in the inner shell of an atom.

c)

The last electron.

d)

The first electron.

32.

The valence electron can

a)

Cannot interact in a chemical reaction.

b)

Can interact in a chemical reaction.

33.

Atoms are electrically neutral when

a)

They have a minimal charge.

b)

They have a balanced number of protons and neutrons.

c)

They have a balanced number of protons and electrons.

d)

They have no valance electrons.

34.

If an electron is removed, an ion becomes

a)

An atom

b)

Positive

c)

Negative

d)

Neutral

35.

If an ion gains an electron, it becomes

a)

Positive

b)

Stable

c)

Atomic

d)

Negative

36.

Cations have what type of charge?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

37.

An ion has what type of charge?

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

38.

Anions have which type of charge?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

39.

A positively charged object and a neutral object will...

a)

attract.

b)

repel.

c)

not experience an electric force.

d)

implode.

40.

What is the formula of an ionic compound formed from Lithium and Oxygen?

a)

Li2O

b)

LiO2

c)

2LiO

d)

Li2O

41.

Valency of an element is the number of valence electrons that must be gained, lossed or shared to achieve a complete valence electron shell.

What is the valency of the following elements?

a)

Li

1.

1

b)

Ca

2.

2

c)

C

3.

4

d)

N

4.

3

e)

O

5.

2

42.

The valency of hydroxide ion, OH- is

(a)  

43.

What is the valency of Nitrogen (N)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

3

44.
How many valence electrons are in an atom of P?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
45.
How many valence electrons are in an atom of K?
a)
3
b)
8
c)
4
d)
1
46.

Which of following has valency 2?

a)
b)
c)
d)
47.

If an ion gains an electron, it becomes

a)

Positive

b)

Stable

c)

Atomic

d)

Negative

48.

Name for NaH

a)

sodium hydrogen

b)

potassium hydride

c)

sodium hydride

d)

potassium hydrogen

49.

Formula for barium sulfide

a)

B2S3

b)

BaS

c)

Ba2S

d)

BaS2

50.

Name for LiOH

a)

lithium hydrogen oxide

b)

lithium hydroxide

c)

lithium (II) hydroxide

d)

lithium (I) hydroxide

51.

Name for CO

a)

carbon monoxide

b)

carbon oxide

c)

monocarbon oxide

d)

carbide monoxide

52.

Name for BaO

a)

Barium oxide

b)

Barium monoxide

c)

Monobarium oxide

d)

Monobarium monoxide

53.

Match the following polyatomic ions

a)

NH4+

1.

Ammonium ion

b)

OH-

2.

Hydroxide ion

c)

SO42-

3.

Sulfate ion

d)

HCO3-

4.

Bicarbonate ion

e)

CO32-

5.

Carbonate ion

54.

The ions: Li+ and F-, make the chemical compound:

a)

LiF

b)

Lithium fluorine

c)

Li2F

d)

FLi

55.
What is the correct formula for this molecule?
a)
NH
b)
N3H
c)
NH3
d)
NH4
56.

An element with 3 protons in each atom has an atomic number of:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

57.

An atomic number of 8 means the atom has ________ protons.

a)

7

b)

8

c)

16

d)

88

58.

An element with 12 protons in each atom has an atomic number of:

a)

12

b)

21

c)

2

d)

24

59.

True or false: If the number of protons changes in an atom, it becomes a different element.

a)

True

b)

False

60.
What is the mass number defined as?
a)
the number of protons
b)
the number of protons and neutrons
c)
the number of neutrons
d)
the number of protons and electrons
61.

What is the atomic mass of this atom?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

7

62.

What is the atomic number?

a)

the number of protons

b)

the number of protons and neutrons combined

c)

the number of neutrons

d)

the number of protons and electrons combined

63.
What is the atomic number of Nickel? (enlarge the periodic table)
a)
110
b)
28
c)
46
d)
78
64.
How many protons are in a sodium atom? (tap to enlarge the periodic table)
a)
Sodium has 1 proton.
b)
Sodium has 3 protons.
c)
Sodium has 11 protons
65.
An element has the mass number 12 and atomic number  6. The number of neutrons in it is:
a)
6
b)
10
c)
4
d)
8
66.
If an atom has 10 electrons, how many protons does it have?
a)
0
b)
1
c)
10
d)
5
67.
How many electrons are in an atom with an atomic number of 50?
a)
5
b)
8
c)
50
d)
2
68.
What subatomic particles would you find in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons only
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Neutrons and Electrons
d)
Protons and Electrons 
69.
Which subatomic particles contribute the most to the mass of an atom?
a)
Protons, Neutrons, Electrons
b)
Protons only
c)
Protons and Electrons
d)
Protons and Neutrons
70.
What is the mass number of this atom?
a)
9
b)
10
c)
19
d)
27
71.
What is the mass number of this atom?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
72.
An element with a mass number of 11 and an atomic number of 5 has how many neutrons?
a)
11
b)
5
c)
6
d)
16
73.
A phosphorus atom has 15 protons and 16 neutrons. What is the mass number?
a)
15
b)
16
c)
31
d)
1
74.
An atom of argon has 18 protons and 22 neutrons. How many electrons does it have?
a)
18
b)
22
c)
40
d)
4
75.
What element has 20 protons? (Use your periodic table.)
a)
Potassium (K)
b)
Calcium (Ca)
c)
Nitrogen (N)
d)
Neon (Ne)
76.
What element has 16 protons? (Use your periodic table.)
a)
Oxygen (O)
b)
Sulfur (S)
c)
Phosphorus (P)
d)
Boron (B)
77.
Which particles are NOT included in the mass number?
a)
Protons
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Electrons
d)
Neutrons
78.
What is true about a neutral atom?
a)
The number of protons equal the number of neutrons
b)
The number of protons equal the number of electrons
c)
The number of neutrons equal the number of electrons
d)
The number of protons, neutrons, and electrons are all different
79.
The nucleus is ____________ charged whereas the electron cloud is ____________ charged. 
a)
negatively, positively
b)
negatively, negatively
c)
positively, positively
d)
positively, negatively
80.
The  mass of an atom is located  in the ___________ and the volume of an atom is made of the ____________
a)
electron cloud, nucleus
b)
electron cloud, energy levels
c)
nucleus, electron cloud
d)
nucleus, neutrons
81.

A stable atom has:

a)

Equal numbers of Protons & Electrons

b)

Different numbers of Protons

c)

Equal numbers of Electrons & Neutrons

d)

Equal numbers of Protons & Electrons

82.

Radiation is emitted from:

a)

all atoms

b)

most atoms

c)

unstable atoms

d)

stable atoms

83.

An element with a mass number of 11 and an atomic number of 5 has how many neutrons?

a)

11

b)

5

c)

6

d)

16

84.

An isotope of an element has the same number of _________, but a different number of _________.

a)

Protons, electrons

b)

Protons, neutrons

c)

Electrons, neutrons

d)

Neutrons, protons

85.

A radioactive nuclide has a ____ stable nucleus than a non-radioactive nucleus of the same element.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

identical

d)

small

86.
What makes something radioactive?
a)
elements with an atomic number above 81
b)
an unstable nucleus
c)
contaminated sewage
d)
It decays over time
87.
_______________ is the process by which unstable atoms emit radiation until they become stable.
a)
Radiation
b)
Chemical Reaction
c)
Radioactive Decay
d)
Isotopes
88.
In order of most to least penetrating radiation we have
a)
Alpha , Beta,  Gamma
b)
Beta , Gamma , Alpha
c)
Gamma, Beta, Alpha
d)
Gamma, Alpha, Beta
89.
Negatively charged particles emitted from a nucleus at a high speed are ____ .
a)
protons
b)
neutrons
c)
electrons
d)
protons and neutrons
90.

What are the solubility rules for common ionic compounds?

a)

Look for the solubility rules in a cookbook

b)

Ask your friends for the solubility rules

c)

Refer to chemistry reference books or online resources

d)

Check the weather forecast for solubility rules

91.

Explain the concept of insoluble salts and how they form precipitates.

a)

Insoluble salts are formed when two solutions containing ions that form an insoluble compound are mixed. The insoluble compound then forms a precipitate, which is a solid that separates from the solution.

b)

Insoluble salts are formed when two solutions containing ions that form a soluble compound are mixed.

c)

Insoluble salts are formed when two gases are mixed together.

d)

Insoluble salts are formed when two solids are mixed together.

92.

Write the equation for the reaction between silver nitrate and sodium chloride.

a)

Ag+ + Cl- -> Ag2Cl2

b)

AgNO3 + NaCl -> AgCl + NaNO3

c)

Ag+ + Cl- -> AgCl

d)

Ag+ + Na+ -> AgNa

93.

Explain the process of predicting products in precipitation reactions.

a)

Ask a friend to predict the products for you

b)

Write out the chemical equation and use solubility rules to determine if the products will form a precipitate.

c)

Use a magic 8-ball to determine the products

d)

Guess the products randomly without considering solubility rules

94.

Describe the formation of precipitates in a chemical reaction.

a)

The precipitate will always dissolve in water

b)

The reaction will always produce a gas

c)

A solid substance may form if the product is insoluble in water.

d)

The formation of precipitates is not related to solubility

95.

How can you determine the products of a precipitation reaction using solubility rules?

a)

By asking a magic eight ball

b)

By identifying which combinations of ions will form insoluble compounds

c)

By flipping a coin

d)

By guessing randomly

96.
Which is the name of the kind of solid substance formed in this figure?  
a)
aqueous 
b)
precipitate
c)
acid
d)
synthesis 
97.

What is an ion?

a)

An atom that has gained or lost an electron.

b)

An atom that has gained or lost a neutron.

c)

An atom that has gained or lost a proton.

d)

An atom that is electrically neutral.

98.
State whether the following compound is soluble or insoluble. Silver iodide AgI
a)
Soluble 
b)
Insoluble 
99.
State whether the following compound is soluble or insoluble. iron(ii) sulfide FeS
a)
soluble
b)
insoluble
100.
State whether the following compound is soluble or insoluble. Zinc hydroxide Zn(OH)2
a)
Soluble 
b)
Insoluble
101.
State whether the following compound is soluble or insoluble. potassiun bromide KBr
a)
Soluble
b)
Insoluble
102.
State whether the following compound is soluble or insoluble.  calcium carbonate CaCO3 
a)
soluble
b)
insoluble
103.

What is the formula for speed?

a)

distance / time

b)

distance x time

c)

mass / volume

d)

mass x volume

104.

What is speed in a given direction?

a)

instantaneous speed

b)

average speed

c)

displacement

d)

velocity

105.

A car driving 120 miles in 4 hours would have what average speed?

a)

480 mi/hr

b)

30 mi/hr

c)

3 mi/hr

d)

120 mi/hr

106.

A truck driving 60 mi/hr over 3 hours would go how many miles?

a)

180 miles

b)

20 miles

c)

18 miles

d)

90 miles

107.

What does a horizontal line mean on a distance vs. time graph?

a)

That the person is home.

b)

That the person is moving closer to home.

c)

That the person is moving away from home.

d)

That the person is stopped.

108.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
109.
Determine if the object was accelerating between 40 seconds and 60 seconds. 
SPEED = DISTANCE/TIME
a)
No, the speed stayed the same
b)
Yes, the speed increased
c)
Yes, the speed decreased
d)
Yes. the speed stayed same
110.
At 60 seconds, how far had this object traveled? 
a)
0 m
b)
10 m
c)
20 m
d)
40 m
111.
How many times does this object STOP moving?
a)
None
b)
Once
c)
Twice
d)
Three times
112.
Which of the graphs shows that one of runners started 10 yards further ahead of the other (note that graph c is the bottom right and graph d is the bottom left)? 
a)
Graph A
b)
Graph B
c)
Graph C
d)
Graph D
113.
A measurement of how fast an object is moving
a)
Velocity
b)
Speed
c)
Vector
d)
Acceleration
114.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Deacceleration
d)
Not moving
115.
According to the graph how far does the person travel in the first 5 seconds?
a)
2 m
b)
10 m
c)
0 m
d)
5 m
116.

John and Caroline go out for a drive one day. The graph represents the distance they traveled over time.


During what part of their drive were they not moving?

a)

From 0 to 0.75 hours

b)

From 1.25 to 2.0 hours

c)

From 0.75 to 1.25 hours

d)

They are moving the entire time.

117.

Use the graph to answer the following question:

What is the independent variable?

a)

number of people

b)

cost of admission

c)

quadrant 1

118.

The ​ (a)   depends on the ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
cost of admission
number of people
119.
On a graph, which axis shows the independent variable?
a)
x-axis
b)
y-axis
c)
neither
d)
it changes
120.
On a graph, which axis shows the dependent variable?
a)
x-axis
b)
y-axis
c)
neither
d)
it changes
121.
a)
the independent variable is distance
b)
the independent variable is d=25 t
c)
the dependent variable is time
d)
the dependent variable is distance
122.
a)
The dependent variable is total cost
b)
The dependent variable is weight
c)
The independent variable is total cost
d)
The independent variable is cost of a package
123.

Scientific Question: Does being tardy impact test scores?

What is the dependent variable?

a)

test scores

b)

the time a student arrives to class

c)

amount of time to complete test

124.

Scientific Question: Does being tardy impact test scores?

What is the indepedent variable?

a)

test scores

b)

the time a student arrives to class

c)

amount of time to complete test

125.

The dependent variable is the one:

a)

being measured

b)

causing the change

c)

that stays constant

126.

The independent variable is the one:

a)

being measured

b)

causing the change

c)

that stays constant

127.
a)

Hours is the dependent variable

b)

Number of E. Coli Bacteria is the dependent variable

128.
a)

Hours is the independent variable

b)

Number of E. Coli Bacteria is the independent variable

129.

Students of different ages were given the same puzzle to put together. They were timed to see how long it took to finish the puzzle. What is the Dependent Variable?

a)

Student ages

b)

The puzzle

c)

Time to finish the puzzle

d)

None of the above

130.

Students of different ages were given the same puzzle to put together. They were timed to see how long it took to finish the puzzle. What is the Independent Variable?

a)

Student ages

b)

The puzzle

c)

The time it takes to complete

d)

None of the above

131.

Validity is a concept that... (choose the best answer)

a)

Measures the consistency of the measurement taken under the study.

b)

Covers the the full range of the issue set for the study

c)

Measures the accuracy of the concept that it supposes to measure.

132.

A fair test is a __________ experiment.

a)

reliable

b)

valid

c)

accurate

d)

scientific

133.

Independent variable is/are

a)

The 1 variable that is changed.

b)

What is being measured.

c)

Variables that are kept the same.

d)

The two or more variables that are changed.

134.

Dependent variable is/are

a)

The 1 variable that is changed.

b)

The variable that is measured.

c)

The variable that is kept the same.

d)

The two or more variables that are changed

135.

A method is valid if

a)

A list of equipment is provided

b)

Variables are controlled

c)

Variables are not controlled

d)

They are detailed,logical and easy to understand

136.

A method is valid if

a)

it allows you to test the hypothesis.

b)

it allows you to repeat the experiment multiple times.

c)

it allows you room for error.

d)

It allows you to draw a results table with averages.

137.

To ensure results are reliable the experiment should be

a)

Done once

b)

Repeated

c)

Done as exactly the same as the method outlines

d)

Repeated if necessary

138.

A reliable experiment produces results which

a)

are consistent

b)

vary greatly

c)

are different from sample answers

d)

are not consistent

139.

Repetition _______________ the effect of outliers and allows them to be removed.

a)

increases

b)

minimises

c)

equals

d)

justifies

140.

Results collected from repeat trials of an experiment should be

a)

averaged

b)

graphed

c)

added up

d)

subtracted

141.

Can results be reliable without being valid

a)

True

b)

False

142.

A faulty thermometer can consistently provide a wrong value therefore providing reliably

a)

Invalid results

b)

Valid results

c)

Accurate results

d)

Weird results

143.

The purpose of an investigation includes

a)

aim

b)

hypothesis

c)

aim and hypothesis

d)

aim and prediction

144.

An aim is

a)

a statement describing the intention of the practical.

b)

a statement describing the intention of the investigation.

c)

a question linked to the intention of the investigation.

145.

The hypothesis is a

a)

testable and informed prediction of the outcome of the investigation. It should include mention of both dependent and independent variable.

b)

testable and informed prediction of the outcome of the investigation. It should include mention of the dependent variable.

c)

testable and informed prediction of the outcome of the investigation. It should include mention of the independent variable.

146.

A method is valid if

a)

A list of equipment is provided

b)

Variables are controlled

c)

Variables are not controlled

d)

They are detailed,logical and easy to understand

147.

To ensure results are reliable the experiment should be

a)

Done once

b)

Repeated

c)

Done as exactly the same as the method outlines

d)

Repeated if necessary

148.

A reliable experiment produces results which

a)

are consistent

b)

vary greatly

c)

are different from sample answers

d)

are not consistent

149.

Keeping Control Variables the same increases:

a)

Accuracy

b)

Validity

c)

Reliability

150.

Using good equipment and good techniques increases:

a)

Accuracy

b)

Validity

c)

Reliability

151.

Which of these is an accuracy technique:

a)

Holding the ruler upright with a clamp stand

b)

Keeping the surface the ball is bounced on the same

c)

Keeping the type of ball used the same

d)

Doing 4 trials for each drop height

152.

Reliability is improved by:

a)

Doing more repeats

b)

Keeping control variables the same

c)

Using accurate equipment and techniques

153.

Which of these increases Reliability:

a)

Using a ruler that measures down to mm

b)

Reading the ruler at eye level

c)

Repeating the experiment 4 times

d)

Dropping the ball on a flat surface

154.

This is an example of...

a)

Reliability but Not Validity

b)

Validity but Not Reliability

c)

Neither Validity or Reliability

d)

Validity and Reliability

155.

A fair test is a __________ experiment.

a)

reliable

b)

valid

c)

accurate

d)

scientific

156.

Option D describes...

a)

Precision but no accuracy

b)

Accuracy but no precision

c)

Accuracy and Precision

d)

No accuracy and no precision

157.
Which of the following is a unit of speed?
a)
km/hr
b)
hr
c)
km
d)
s
158.

A runner races in the 100 meter dash. It takes him 10 seconds to finish. What is his average speed?

a)

10 m/s

b)

1000 m/s

c)

100 seconds

d)

10 seconds

159.
On a distance vs. time graph, the steeper the slope _____
a)
the slower the speed
b)
the faster the speed
c)
less acceleration
d)
greater acceleration
160.

What is the metric unit for speed?

a)

h/km

b)

m/s

c)

km

d)

cm3

161.

Which two elements have the same atomic mass

a)

K & Ca

b)

Ar & K

c)

Fe & Co

d)

Co & Ni

162.
Sodium has an atomic number of 11, how many protons does this atom have?
a)

22

b)

11

c)

12

d)

2

163.

How many neutrons are in Magnesium?

a)

36

b)

12

c)

24

d)

6

164.

The atomic mass of an element is the ___.

a)

average of the mass number and the atomic number for the element

b)

weighted average of the masses of the isotopes of the element

c)

total mass of the isotopes of the element

d)

total number of subatomic particles in the nucleus

165.
What does the Law of Conservation of Mass state?
a)
Matter cannot be gained or lost in a chemical reaction.
b)
Matter can only be lost in a chemical reaction.
c)
Matter can only be gained in a chemical reaction.
d)
Matter can be gained and lost in a chemical reaction. 
166.
Is the following equation balanced?...
Al + O2 --> 2Al2O3
a)
Yes!
b)
No!
167.
How many Oxygens are in this molecule? 
(OH)2
a)
4
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
168.
How many HCl molecules do you need to balance this equation? 
Mg +  __HCl --->  MgCl2 + H2
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
169.
What coefficient should be used to make the following equation balanced?
N2+O2--> _NO 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
170.

Balance the following equation:

___ H2+ ___ O2→___ H2O

a)

1, 1, 3

b)

2, 2, 2

c)

1, 2, 1

d)

2,1, 2

171.

Balance the following equation:

___ SeCl6+ ___ O2→___ SeO2+____Cl2

a)

1, 1, 1, 3

b)

2, 1, 2, 1

c)

1, 2, 1, 2

d)

2, 2, 2, 4

172.

The coefficient in 3H2O is

a)

6

b)

5

c)

2

d)

3

173.
The red numbers in the image below represent ________
a)
subscripts
b)
coefficients
c)
I don't know, and don't want to try
d)
None of the answers are correct
174.
The blue numbers in the image below represent ________
a)
I don't know, and don't want to try
b)
coefficients
c)
subscripts
d)
none of the answers are correct
175.
Number of C's in 2Na₂CO₃
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
5
176.

Balance the following equation by filling in the blank:

N2 + 6H2 → _NH3

(a)  

177.
What is the right ratio of chemicals for the BCE (Balanced Chemical Equation)?__CO + __Fe2O3--> __Fe + __CO2
a)
3,1 --> 2,3
b)
3,2 --> 1,1
c)
3,2 --> 2,4
d)
3,2 --> 2,1
178.
Which of these is not a noble gas?
a)
Helium
b)
Argon
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Krypton
179.
Name the group that contains inert (nonreactive) elements.
a)
noble gases
b)
halogens
c)
alkali metals
d)
alkaline earth metals
180.
In which group would you find the Noble Gases?
a)
5
b)
6
c)
7
d)
8
181.
The blue atoms are called 
a)
metals
b)
nonmetals
c)
metalloids
d)
noble gases
182.
Which noble gas is found in signs or light displays?
a)
Krypton
b)
Helium
c)
Argon
d)
Neon
183.
What is essential for a combustion reaction to begin?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Fuel 
c)
Fuel, oxygen and heat
d)
Water and oxygen
184.
What kind of energy conversion does a combustion reaction involve?
a)
Kinetic to Potential Energy
b)
Chemical Potential Energy to Kinetic or Thermal Energy
c)
Potential Energy to Nuclear Energy
d)
Mass to Energy
185.
Which of the following chemical reactions involve combustion?
a)
A forest fire
b)
Human digestion
c)
A car using gasoline
d)
All of the above
186.
What are the types of combustion?
a)
Complete & incomplete
b)
Incomplete & inexact
c)
Impossible & complete
d)
Computer & incompete
187.
Complete combustion is when there is plenty of oxygen to react with. 
a)
True
b)
False
188.
Incomplete combustion is when there is a limited amount of oxygen.
a)
True
b)
False
189.
What is carbon monoxide?
a)
A toxic gas
b)
A large solid
190.
Another term for burning is
a)
Fire triangle
b)
Magnesium oxide
c)
Combustion
d)
Bustion
191.
Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?
a)
Wood
b)
Coal
c)
Petroleum
d)
Natural Gas
192.
Is combustion a reversible reaction?
a)
Yes.
b)
No.
193.
The word equation for combustion is:
fuel + oxygen -->
 water + ________ __________
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Limewater
194.

Most combustion reaction depend on oxygen. True of False?

a)

True

b)

False

195.

James, Samuel, and Anika are planning a camping trip. They want to start a campfire. What are the reactants necessary for them to start the combustion reaction for the campfire?

a)

Water and carbon dioxide

b)

Hydrocarbon fuels and oxygen

c)

Propane and butane

d)

Gasoline and wood

196.

How does the combustion of fossil fuels affect the carbon cycle?

a)

adds more CO2

b)

removes CO2

c)

does not affect CO2

197.
What does not produce carbon dioxide?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Animal respiration
d)
Plants decaying
198.

What is NOT product of complete combustion?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

water

c)

carbon monoxide

d)

water

199.

The product(s) of complete combustion of any hydrocarbon is/are _________________.

I. water

II. carbon dioxide

III. carbon monoxide

a)

I

b)

III

c)

I and II

d)

I and III

200.

Incomplete combustion is harmful to humans because it ___________________.

a)

increases the level of sugar in the blood

b)

produces large amounts of carbon dioxide

c)

decreases the amount of sugar in the blood

d)

produces carbon monoxide that reduces the level of oxygen in the blood

201.
The word equation for combustion is: fuel + oxygen --> water + ________ __________
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Limewater
202.

If a flame is giving off smoke, this type of combustion is occurring...

a)

Complete combustion

b)

Incomplete combustion

203.

EXAMPLE OF COMBUSTION REACTION

a)

burning wood

b)

burning coal

c)

noun of the above

204.

What is the impact of complete combustion on the carbon cycle?

a)

It increases the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

b)

It decreases the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

c)

It has no impact on the carbon cycle

d)

It converts carbon dioxide into carbon monoxide

205.
What is the half-life of iodine-131?
a)
32 days
b)
8 days
c)
16 days
d)
24 days
206.

What is the Half Life of this isotope?

a)

3 days

b)

5 days

c)

8 days

d)

10 days

207.

What is the half-life of this sample?

(a)  

208.

What is the half-life of this sample?

(a)  

209.

Which one is a type of ionizing radiation?

a)

radio waves

b)

microwaves

c)

gamma rays

d)

infrared

210.

Alpha is stopped by:

a)

Thick lead

b)

Thin paper

c)

A few cm of air

d)

Aluminium

211.

Gamma radiation is:

a)

2 protons

b)

A high speed electron

c)

A wave

d)

2 protons and 2 neutrons

212.

Beta radiation is:

a)

2 protons

b)

A high speed electron

c)

A wave

d)

2 protons and 2 neutrons

213.
In order of most to least penetrating radiation we have
a)
Alpha , Beta,  Gamma
b)
Beta , Gamma , Alpha
c)
Gamma, Beta, Alpha
d)
Gamma, Alpha, Beta
214.
What type of radiation can be stopped by a thick lead sheet?
a)
Alpha radiation
b)
Beta radiation
c)
gamma radiation
215.
What type of radiation can be stopped by a 5 mm piece of aluminium?
a)
Alpha radiation
b)
Beta radiation
c)
gamma radiation
216.
What type of radiation can be stopped by a piece of paper?
a)
Alpha radiation
b)
Beta radiation
c)
Gamma radiation
217.
_______________ is the process by which unstable atoms emit radiation until they become stable.
a)
Radiation
b)
Chemical Reaction
c)
Radioactive Decay
d)
Isotopes
218.

Which is an Alpha particle?

a)
b)
c)
219.

Which type of radiation is LEAST penetrating

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

220.

What type of radiation is the most penetrating?

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

none of them

221.
What type of radiation is the least penetrating?
a)
alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma
d)
none of them
222.
What decay product is also a helium nucleus?
a)
alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma
d)
none of them
223.

What decay product is an electron?

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

none of them

224.

What decay product is a high energy electromagnetic wave?

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

none of them

225.
Can be stopped by a piece of paper or a few centimeters of air
a)
alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma
226.
Used in smoke detectors
a)
alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma
227.

Which type of radiation is represented by the X?

a)

Gamma

b)

Beta

c)

Alpha

d)

All three

228.

Which type of radiation is represented by the X?

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

d)

All three

229.
A car travels 300 km in 6 hours. What is the average speed of the car (in km/hr)?
a)
0.02 km/hr
b)
1,800 km/hr
c)
50 km/hr
d)
50 km
230.
What is the average speed of a walker who walks 500 m in 400 seconds?
a)
1.25 m/s
b)
100 m/s
c)
0.8 m/s
d)
200,000 m/s
231.
If a student ran 300 m in 30 seconds, what was her average speed?
a)
0.10 m/s
b)
10 m/s
c)
270 m/s
d)
100 m/s
232.

Convert 72 km/h to m/s.

a)

20 m/s

b)

10 m/s

c)

15 m/s

d)

25 m/s

233.

Convert 36 km/h to m/s.

a)

20 m/s

b)

10 m/s

c)

15 m/s

d)

25 m/s

234.

Convert 54 km/h to m/s.

a)

20 m/s

b)

10 m/s

c)

15 m/s

d)

25 m/s

235.
The speed boats speed increased from 0m/s to 24m/s in a time span of 12 seconds.
a)
4 m/s²
b)
2 m/s²
c)
8 m/s²
d)
6 m/s²
236.

The unit for Acceleration is usually

a)

m/s

b)

m/s2

c)

m

d)

s

237.

A Ninja motorbike travelling at 55 m/s takes 5 sec to come to rest. What is its deceleration rate?

a)

11 m/s2

b)

-11 m/s2

c)

-11 m/s

d)

10 m/s2

238.
Which graph represents the greatest acceleration?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
239.
A roller coasters accelerates from an initial velocity of of 6.0 m/s to a final velocity of 70 m/s over 4 seconds.  What's the acceleration?
a)
24 m/s2
b)
18 m/s2
c)
16 m/s2
d)
16 m/s
240.

There was a rapid drop in production in the first quarter, but it bottomed out at about 20.

a)
b)
c)
d)
241.

Production grew more and more rapidly over the first three quarters but then reached a peak. Since then, it has quickly dropped.

a)
b)
c)
d)
242.

Describe the trend shown in the graph.

a)

As the volume decreases, the mass stays the same.

b)

As the mass decreases, the volume increases.

c)

As the volume increases, the mass increases.

d)

As the mass increases, the volume stays the same.

243.

Describe the trend in rainfall from January to June in City 1.

a)

As time increases, the monthly rainfall increases.

b)

As time increases, the monthly rainfall decreases.

c)

As time decreases, the monthly rainfall stays the same

d)

As time decreases, the monthly rainfall decreases.

244.

Which element is represented by the symbol 'O'?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Gold

c)

Osmium

d)

Olivenite

245.

What is the atomic number of Helium?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

246.

Which of the following is a characteristic of metals?

a)

Brittle

b)

Insulator of heat

c)

Good conductor of electricity

d)

Non-reflective

247.

What is the atomic number of oxygen?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

18

d)

12

248.

Which element is represented by the chemical symbol 'K'?

a)

Potassium

b)

Krypton

c)

Kalcium

d)

Kobalt

249.

What property do all noble gases share?

a)

High reactivity with water

b)

Colorful flame when burned

c)

Low reactivity

d)

Good conductivity of electricity

250.

What is the chemical symbol for Helium?

a)

He

b)

H

c)

Hi

d)

Ho

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