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Semester 2 Final Review #1

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes the structure of a DNA molecule?

a)

A double helix consisting of two strands of nucleotides held together by hydrogen bonds

b)

A single helix made up of amino acids linked by peptide bonds

c)

A linear chain of sugars and phosphates bonded by ionic bonds

d)

A complex structure of proteins and carbohydrates

2.

Which of the following is a major difference between Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes?

a)

Eukaryotes have a nucleus, while Prokaryotes do not.

b)

Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes both lack a nucleus.

c)

Prokaryotes have membrane-bound organelles, while Eukaryotes do not.

d)

Both have complex cellular structures.

3.

Genetics can be studied at many different levels, compare the following terms being sure to clearly explain how they relate: genome, gene, chromosome, homologous chromosomes.

a)

Genome refers to the complete set of genes or genetic material present in a cell or organism, genes are the basic unit of heredity, chromosomes are structures within cells that contain DNA, and homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes containing the same gene sequences.

b)

Genome is a single chromosome, genes are parts of a genome, chromosomes are made of proteins, and homologous chromosomes do not relate to each other.

c)

Genome and genes are interchangeable terms, chromosomes are unrelated to genes, and homologous chromosomes are a type of gene.

d)

Genome is a type of chromosome, genes are unrelated to chromosomes, and homologous chromosomes are a modern scientific concept not related to genetics.

4.

Which of the following statements correctly contrasts DNA and RNA?

a)

DNA is double-stranded and stays mostly in the nucleus, while RNA is single-stranded and can travel out of the nucleus.

b)

DNA and RNA are both single-stranded and remain in the cytoplasm.

c)

DNA and RNA are both double-stranded and stay in the nucleus.

d)

RNA is double-stranded and stays mostly in the nucleus, while DNA is single-stranded and can travel out of the nucleus.

5.

Which of the following best describes the Central Dogma of molecular biology?

a)

The process by which DNA is transcribed to RNA, which is then translated into protein

b)

The replication of DNA during cell division

c)

The modification of proteins after translation

d)

The feedback inhibition of metabolic pathways

6.

Which of the following best describes the three main forms of RNA, how they are made, and their role in translation, including the terms codons and anticodons?

a)

mRNA carries the genetic code from DNA to the ribosome (made of rRNA), where tRNA uses anticodons to match codons and assemble amino acids into proteins.

b)

mRNA directly synthesizes proteins at the ribosome, tRNA supplies the ribosome with DNA, and rRNA reads the codons and anticodons.

c)

All forms of RNA are involved in the replication of cellular DNA and do not participate in translation.

d)

rRNA carries codons that match with anticodons on tRNA to synthesize mRNA.

7.

Which of the following sequences correctly represents the translation of the DNA strand 'ATGCGTACGTTAGCCATG' into mRNA and the corresponding amino acids?

a)

UACGCAUGCAAUCGGUAC, Tyr-His-Cys-Asn-Arg-Tyr

b)

UACGCAUGCAUUCGGUAC, Tyr-His-Cys-Ile-Arg-Tyr

c)

AUGCGUACGUUAGCCACG, Met-Arg-Thr-Val-Ser-His

d)

UACGCAUGCUUAGCGUAC, Tyr-His-Cys-Leu-Ser-Tyr

8.

Which of the following best describes different types of point mutations and their impact on protein structure, and also explains the model of a DNA double strand with 10 base pairs including the basic steps of DNA replication, complementary sequence, and semi-conservative method?

a)

Point mutations include substitutions, insertions, and deletions, which can alter protein structure; DNA replication involves unwinding of the double helix, base pairing, and semi-conservative replication.

b)

Point mutations do not affect protein structure; DNA replication does not involve semi-conservative methods.

c)

Only deletions are considered point mutations; DNA replication involves complete conservative methods without base pairing.

d)

Point mutations are unrelated to DNA structure; DNA replication occurs without unwinding the double helix.

9.

Describe what happens in each of the phases of the cell cycle.

a)

The cell grows, duplicates its DNA, and divides into two daughter cells.

b)

The cell stops all functions and enters a dormant state.

c)

The cell only duplicates its DNA without any growth or division.

d)

The cell undergoes apoptosis and dies.

10.

Which of the following best describes how mistakes in the cell cycle can lead to cancer?

a)

Errors in the cell cycle do not affect cancer development.

b)

Errors in the cell cycle can cause uncontrolled cell growth, leading to cancer.

c)

Errors in the cell cycle can eliminate cancerous cells.

d)

Errors in the cell cycle can slow down cell division.

11.

Which statement best describes the differences between mitosis and meiosis, including terms such as diploid, haploid, identical, variable, body cell, and gamete?

a)

Mitosis results in two identical diploid body cells, while meiosis results in four variable haploid gametes.

b)

Mitosis and meiosis both produce identical haploid gametes.

c)

Mitosis results in four variable diploid body cells, while meiosis results in two identical haploid cells.

d)

Both mitosis and meiosis result in identical diploid body cells.

12.

Which of the following best describes the phases of meiosis including the terms crossing over and interkinesis?

a)

Meiosis involves one round of chromosome replication followed by two rounds of nuclear division, with crossing over occurring in prophase I and interkinesis occurring between the two meiotic divisions.

b)

Meiosis is a continuous process without distinct phases, and does not involve crossing over or interkinesis.

c)

Meiosis includes only one division phase, similar to mitosis, and crossing over happens during interkinesis.

d)

Meiosis consists of two phases of chromosome replication and one nuclear division, with interkinesis preceding crossing over.

13.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between 'Dominant' and 'Recessive' traits in genetics?

a)

Dominant traits mask the effects of recessive traits.

b)

Recessive traits are more common than dominant traits.

c)

Dominant and recessive traits are unrelated.

d)

Recessive traits mask the effects of dominant traits.

14.

Describe the sex chromosomes found in a typical male or female human.

a)

XX for female and XY for male

b)

XX for male and XY for female

c)

XY for both male and female

d)

X for male and XX for female

15.

Which of the following types of evidence supports the theory of evolution (you can select more than one answer)?

a)

Molecular Genetics

b)

Anatomy and Embryology

c)

Fossils

d)

Biogeography

e)

Artificial selection

16.

Define Evolution.

a)

Changes in population's allele frequency (gene pool) that occur over time.

b)

A theory that depicts the age of the earth.

c)

A type of scientific experiment.

d)

A mathematical concept in physics.

17.

Which of the following can lead to evolution in a population?

a)

Natural selection

b)

Gene flow

c)

Mutation

d)

Sexual selection

e)

All of the above

18.

Which statement best describes how evolution occurs and the inheritance of acquired traits?

a)

Evolution occurs in individuals and acquired traits are inherited.

b)

Evolution occurs in populations and acquired traits are not inherited.

c)

Evolution does not occur, and all traits are inherited.

d)

Evolution occurs randomly and all traits can be inherited.

19.

Define a species and describe what can lead to speciation.

a)

A species is a group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring, and speciation can occur due to geographic, genetic, or ecological factors.

b)

A species is a single organism that can reproduce, and speciation is influenced by climate change only.

c)

A species refers to a specific type of plant life, and speciation is a result of human activities.

d)

A species is a classification of living organisms, unrelated to reproduction, and speciation does not actually occur.

20.

Which of the following is a major structure in the rat that you need to identify and explain its basic function?

a)

Heart

b)

Liver

c)

Kidney

d)

All of the above

21.

Which process describes the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template?

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Reverse transcription

22.

Segments of DNA are called _______________________

a)

Genes

b)

Alleles

c)

Traits

d)

Chromosomes

23.

What does DNA stand for?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

b)

Diribose nutride acidosis

c)

Dinitro acid

d)

Deoxynitrogenic acid

24.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
25.

What will be the complementary DNA sequence resulting from the following:

GAT-TAC-AGA-TTA-CAT?

a)

CTA-ATG-TCT-AAT-GTA

b)

GAU-UAG-UGA-UUA-GUT

c)

CUA-AUG-UCU-AAU-GUA

d)

CAT-ACA-TAC-ATA-TAG

26.

Which scientist(s) discovered that in any sample of DNA, the amount of A = T and the amount of C = G?

a)

Griffith

b)

Avery

c)

Chargaff

d)

Franklin

27.

Please arrange the order of all phases in a cell cycle

a)

Prophase , Metaphase , Anaphase and Telophase

b)

Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis

c)

G1-S - Mitosis

d)

G2 -S - G1 phase

28.

What is the significance of the G1 phase in the cell cycle?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Cell growth and preparation for DNA replication

c)

Separation of sister chromatids

d)

Formation of mitotic spindle

29.
DNA is replicated during what phase of interphase?
a)
S
b)
G1
c)
M
d)
G2
30.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a)
DNA-protein-RNA
b)
Protein-RNA-DNA
c)
RNA-protein-DNA
d)
DNA-RNA-protein
31.

The production of a protein from mRNA is known as:

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Mutation

32.

The sequence of nucleotides in a section of RNA is:

GCCAUACGAUCG.

What is the base sequence of DNA sense strand?

a)

CGGUAUGCUAGC

b)

GCCATACGATCG

c)

CGGTATGCTAGC

d)

GCCAUACGAUCG

33.

If a dog has 24 chromosomes, how many will be in its body cells?

a)

24

b)

12

c)

48

d)

36

34.

Which base is normally used in the synthesis (making) of RNA but not in the synthesis (making) of DNA?

a)

adenine

b)

uracil

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

35.

Which of the following environmental factors can cause mutations in DNA?

a)

High temperatures

b)

Exposure to certain chemicals

c)

Listening to loud music

d)

High levels of physical activity

36.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

37.

Mutations are random.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Mutations are always bad

a)

true

b)

false

39.

Which of the following is NOT an example of evolution?

a)

Over many generations, wild teosinte has become corn.

b)

When the Grand Canyon formed, it geographically divided a squirrel population into two populations, which developed into distinct species.

c)

A frog begins its life as a tadpole, but becomes an amphibian.

d)

Finches in the Galapagos islands have diversified over time into many species each well-suited for eating a particular type of food.

40.

Structures that were once functional in the past but no longer serve a purpose due to evolutionary adaptations and physiological changes are referred to as __________ structures.

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

None of these

41.

A Nucleotide is shown above. What part of the Nucleotide is labelled "3"?

a)

Sugar

b)

Phosphate

c)

Nitrogenous Base

42.

Which nucleotide pairs with Thymine?

a)

Uracil

b)

Adenine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Guanine

43.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
44.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
45.

Having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).

a)
homozygous
b)

heterozygous

c)
protein
d)
chromosome
46.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
47.
Tt is-
a)
homozygous dominant
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
heterozygous
d)
none of these
48.
Brown fur color is dominant over black fur color. Which of the following is the actual genotype of ALL of the offspring in the next generation of this cross for fur color?
AA x aa
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
brown fur
49.

Which of the following best illustrates natural selection?

a)

An organism with favorable genetic variations will tend to survive and breed successfully.

b)

A population monopolizes all of the resources in its habitat, forcing other species to migrate.

c)

A community whose members work together utilizing all existing resources and migratory routes.

d)

The largest organisms in a species receive the only breeding opportunities.

50.
Do organisms "decide" to evolve and change?
a)
Yes, they know they need to change to survive 
b)
No, they change because of natural selection