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Q3 QUIZ REVIEW

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer had ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Mutation
2.
What does the image represent?
a)
Founder effect
b)
Bottleneck effect
c)
Natural Selection
d)
Mutations
3.
Gene Flow tends to ___________ genetic variation (diversity)
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
Stabilize
d)
Exaggerate 
4.

Which of the following conditions can result in evolution in a population?

a)

Mutation is not occurring

b)

All mating is totally random

c)

Natural selection is not occurring

d)

None of the above

5.

This involves organisms that share common ancestors but perform different functions.

a)

Analogous Structure

b)

Homologous Structure

c)

Analogic Structure

d)

Homologic Structure

6.

Which is an example of an analogous structure?

a)

Dog and Bird

b)

Lizard and Dolphin

c)

Bat and Butterfly

d)

Human’s arm and whale flipper

7.

What is an example of a homologous structure?

a)

Penguin and shark fins

b)

Bird and butterfly wings

c)

Bat and Butterfly wings

d)

Human’s arm and whale flipper

8.

Put the following units of geological time in order from largest to smallest unit of time.

a)

Epoch, Eon, Era, Period

b)

Epoch, Period, Era, Eon

c)

Eon, Era, Period, Epoch

d)

Period, Eon, Period, Era

9.

What two methods are used to divide and classify the geological time scale?

a)

Living organisms

b)

rock strata or layers

c)

DNA

d)

fossils

10.

Which era is the most recent, the one that we are currently in?

a)

cenozoic

b)

mesozoic

c)

paleozoic

d)

precambrian

11.
According to the law of superposition, the oldest fossils are found 
a)
At the top of the rock layers
b)
Near the bottom of the rock layers
c)
In the middle of the rock layers
d)
Somewhat near the surface
12.
Which of the following orders the rock layers accurately from youngest to oldest?
a)
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b)
5, 4, 3, 2, 1
c)
2, 3, 4, 5, 1
d)
1, 2, 3, 5, 4
13.

Refer to the attached image. Which fossil is relatively the oldest?

a)
Trilobite
b)
Ammonite
c)
Crinoid
d)
Gastropod
14.

Which genetic engineering technique allows us to produce multiple, identical copies of a single gene?

a)

Cloning

b)

Hybridization

c)

Gene Splicing

d)

Inbreeding

15.

Hybridization is...

a)

Selective Breeding between two unrelated organisms

b)

Selective Breeding between two inbred organisms

c)

Selective Breeding within a species

d)

Selective Breeding within a population

16.

Which is used to cut DNA molecules at specific points for gene splicing?

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

Restriction enzymes

d)

Plasmid

17.
  1. What was Carl Linnaeus known for in the field of systematics?

a)

Developing a system of binomial nomenclature

b)

Introducing the concept of genetic drift

c)

Establishing a 5-kingdom system

d)

Discovering the process of gene flow

18.

What is the term for breeding animals with desired characteristics to produce offspring with those traits?

a)

Inbreeding

b)

Hybridization

c)

Selective Breeding

d)

Gene Therapy

19.

Which of the following organisms is correctly matched with their respective geological periods?

a)

Brachiopods - Paleogene

b)

Dinosaurs - Permian

c)

Ammonites - Jurassic

d)

Saber-toothed Cats - Triassic

20.

Which of the following genetic engineering practices is correctly matched with its example?

a)

Gene Splicing: Introducing a gene from a firefly into tobacco plants to make them glow in the dark

b)

Artificial Selection: Modifying the DNA of corn to resist pests and herbicides

c)

Inbreeding: Producing hybrid corn by crossing two different varieties

d)

Hybridization: Creating identical copies of a prized orchid through tissue culture

21.

How did the Cretaceous-Paleogene Extinction event impact Earth's biodiversity?

a)

Caused widespread glaciation.

b)

Resulted in the emergence of new species

c)

Triggered increased volcanic activity.

d)

Led to the extinction of non-avian dinosaurs.

22.

Which type of animal is a cross-breed of a male lion and a female tiger?

a)

Liger

b)

Tigon

c)

Mule

d)

Dachshund

23.

Who proposed the use of fossils and faunal succession suggesting that fossils in rock layers are laid down in succession to each other representing a "slice" of time?

a)

Smith

b)

Steno

c)

Chadwick

d)

Arduino

24.

What is a concern associated with genetically engineered food plants?"

a)

Potential global economic impacts

b)

Unstudied side effects

c)

Reduced taste compared to existing products

d)

Possibility of unintended harm to ecosystems

25.

Imagine you are examining sedimentary rock layers in a cliffside. You observe that a layer of sandstone contains fossilized dinosaur footprints, while a layer of shale above it contains fossilized tree trunks. What inference can you make about the relative ages of the sandstone and shale layers?

a)

The sandstone layer is younger than the shale layer.

b)

The shale layer is younger than the sandstone layer.

c)

Both the sandstone and shale layers formed at the same time.

d)

The relative ages of the layers cannot be determined from the information provided.

26.

What sheep breed was Dolly?

a)

Ewe

b)

Finn-Dorset

c)

Scottish Blackface

d)

Merino

27.

Which of the following technology enables geneticists and medical researchers to edit parts of the genome by removing, adding or altering sections of the DNA sequence?

a)

CRISPR-Cas9

b)

Gene Therapy

c)

Gene Pharming

d)

Vaccines

28.

What is the correct sequence in the hierarchical system of taxonomy?

a)

Domain-Phylum-Class-Kingdom-Order-Genus-Family-Species

b)

Domain-Phylum-Kingdom-Family-Class-Order-Genus-Species

c)

Domain-Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Family-Order-Genus-Species

d)

Domain-Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species

29.

Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a)

Jurassic

b)

Triassic

c)

Carboniferous

d)

Cretaceous

30.

What is the primary source of genetic variation in a population?

a)

mutation

b)

genetic drift

c)

gene flow

d)

natural selection

31.

What term refers to the process by which organisms better adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring?

a)

genetic drift

b)

mutation

c)

natural selection

d)

gene flow

32.

The founder effect is best illustrated by which of the following scenarios?

a)

A large population experiences a sudden reduction in size.

b)

A small group of individuals colonizes a new habitat.

c)

A population experiences a gradual change in allele frequencies.

d)

A species evolves into two distinct species in the same geographic area.

33.

Which of the following best describes a genetic bottleneck?

a)

A population undergoes a rapid increase in size.

b)

A population experiences a significant reduction in genetic diversity.

c)

A population evolves new traits due to environmental pressures.

d)

A population becomes isolated and evolves into a new species.

34.

Gene flow is most likely to occur in which of the following situations?

a)

Two populations are completely isolated from each other.

b)

Individuals migrate between two populations and interbreed.

c)

A population undergoes a genetic bottleneck.

d)

A population experiences disruptive selection.

35.

1. The process of choosing parent organisms for desired characteristics is called

a)

natural selection

b)

Artificial selection

c)

random selection

d)

genetic manipulation

36.
Putting the gene for bioluminescence into a fish is an example of...
a)

Gene Splicing

b)
Artificial Selection
c)
Selective Breeding
d)
Gene Mutation
37.
Which of the following best represents inbreeding?
a)
removing DNA from an organism
b)
changing traits based on environment
c)
crossing 2 similar animals
d)
crossing 2 different animals
38.

What is the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology?

a)
RNA -> DNA -> Protein
b)
Protein -> RNA -> DNA
c)
DNA -> Protein -> RNA
d)
DNA -> RNA -> Protein
39.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
40.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides ("The Builder")?
a)

Gyrase

b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
41.
In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
M
42.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
43.
Which of the following must happen first in order for DNA replication to occur?
a)
DNA polymerase binds to the leading strand
b)
DNA is unwound
c)
Hydrogen bonds form between bases
d)
chromosomes condense
44.

Okazaki fragments form on the:

a)
lagging strand
b)
leading strand
c)
base-pairs
d)
5' end
45.
What type of RNA carries the DNA message out of the nucleus to the ribosomes?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
RNA
d)
DNA
46.
What do we call the process of turning DNA into mRNA?
a)
Translation
b)
Transcription 
c)
Replication
d)

Association

47.
_______ is made during transcription and ________ is made during translation.
a)
mRNA / a protein
b)
a protein / mRNA
c)
Ribosome / Nucleus
d)
mRNA / tRNA
48.

What are expressed as proteins?

a)

Exons

b)

Introns

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Promoters

49.

What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code:

5' AUG CCA GUA 3'

a)

Met-Pro-Ala

b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)

Tyr-Arg-His