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Comprehensive 6th grade science

Total questions: 500

Worksheet time: 6hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Large area of flat grasslands

a)

Plain

b)

River

c)

Ocean

d)

Valley

2.

Large area of a sea or ocean partially enclosed by land.

a)

River

b)

Mountain

c)

Volcano

d)

Gulf

3.

Vast body of salt water.

a)

Ocean

b)

Lake

c)

Valley

d)

Mountain

4.

Land rising high above the land around it.

a)

Valley

b)

Mountain

c)

Lake

d)

Valley

5.

Land surrounded completely by water.

a)

Gulf

b)

Island

c)

Volcano

d)

Plain

6.

A piece of land surrounded by water on all but one side.

a)

valley

b)

Ocean

c)

Peninsula

d)

lake

7.

Earth with opening that spills lava, rock, and gases.

a)

Volcano

b)

Mountain

c)

Lake

d)

valley

8.

Large inland body of water

a)

Volcano

b)

Plain

c)

Ocean

d)

Lake

9.

Lowland between hills or mountains

a)

Ocean

b)

Valley

c)

River

d)

Gulf

10.

Which one of the following does NOT describe weather?

a)

the force of the wind through the trees

b)

if it is raining or not

c)

the amount of water pollution in a lake

d)

the number of clouds there are in the sky

11.

Which of the following best describes the difference between weather and climate?

a)

Weather happens in your state, and climate happens in your country.

b)

Weather includes the wind and rainfall, whereas climate only describes the temperature.

c)

Weather can be predicted but climate cannot.

d)

Weather describes conditions such as wind and rain at a particular time, whereas climate describes typical seasonal conditions.

12.

What is the main cause of deepwater ocean currents?

a)

freshwater rivers and streams flowing into the ocean.

b)

wind, caused by variations in air pressure, blowing on water.

c)

differences in water density because of variations in water temperature and salt concentration.

d)

the Coriolis effect: Earth's rotation causing the water in the oceans to move.

13.

What substances make up most of the atmosphere?

a)

nothing except sometimes clouds

b)

gases such as nitrogen, oxygen, argon, and water vapor

c)

tiny particles of pollution from cars and other machines

d)

greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide and methane

14.

Which one of the following statements about Earth's atmosphere is TRUE?

a)

The temperature in the atmosphere increases as it gets closer to the Sun.

b)

The air pressure increases as you go up in the atmosphere.

c)

The atmosphere has different temperatures and pressures at different altitudes.

d)

The atmosphere has the same temperature and pressure at all altitudes.

15.

Which one of the following factors does NOT influence climate?

a)

ocean currents

b)

the Sun's energy

c)

global wind patterns

d)

soil composition

16.

Most of the water on Earth is found in which of the following locations?

a)

oceans

b)

the atmosphere

c)

groundwater

d)

lakes and rivers

17.

Which of the following is a major factor in Earth's current global warming?

a)

stronger hurricanes

b)

burning of fossil fuels

c)

increase in volcanic activity

d)

increase in Sun's brightness

18.

If you start at the equator and head north, on average the climates will get

a)

drier

b)

cooler

c)

wetter

d)

warmer

19.

Approximately what percentage of Earth's surface is covered with water?

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

90%

20.

What type of instrument is used to measure wind speed?

a)

wind vane

b)

speedometer

c)

the Beaufort scale

d)

anemometer

21.

Your friend argues that underwater volcanic activity is the main cause of increased ocean temperatures over the past 100 years. Which of the following is the best way to evaluate your friend's argument?

a)

Plan and conduct an investigation to test your friend's claim.

b)

Ask your friend questions to identify which supporting evidence they have.

c)

Build a model to generate data on your friend's claim.

d)

Agree with your friend because underwater volcanic activity would generate thermal energy, which would cause the temperature of the oceans to rise.

22.

Which of the following scientists studies the distribution and movement of Earth's water?

a)

climatologist

b)

hydrologist

c)

meteorologist

d)

atmospheric scientist

23.

How do ocean currents affect climates around the world? (Select all that apply)

a)

Ocean water moves in currents that transfers energy, which can affect climates.

b)

Oceans regulate the temperatures of coastal regions, keeping the regions mild.

c)

Ocean water heats and cools much more quickly than land temperatures do.

d)

The oceans store large amounts of thermal energy and move that energy around Earth in large ocean currents.

24.

Which location has the driest climate?

a)

Location A

b)

Location B

c)

Location C

d)

Location D

25.

Use the table to answer which location has the wettest climate?

a)

Location A

b)

Location B

c)

Location C

d)

Location D

26.

Use the table to answer the question. Each location has an average annual temperature above 18ºC (64ºF). Which location is most likely to have a tropical climate?

a)

Location A

b)

Location B

c)

Location C

d)

Location D

27.

Which one of the following are not used to measure or describe the weather?

a)

Temperature

b)

Wind Direction and Speed

c)

Mountain

d)

Precipitation

28.
Which of these is an example of precipitation?
a)
snow
b)
air
c)
clouds
d)
vapor
29.
Which is the opposite of condensation?
a)
runoff
b)
evaporation
c)
precipitation
d)
transpiration
30.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
31.

Water in its gas form is called ____________________,

a)

water vapor

b)

precipitation

c)

ice

d)

air

32.
During which stage do clouds form?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
precipitation
33.
Which stages does liquid water from the ocean turn into water vapor?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
precipitation
d)
run off
34.
What is A?
a)
Evaporation
b)
Condensation
c)
Precipitation
d)
Runoff
35.
What is B?
a)
Evaporation
b)
Condensation
c)
Precipitation
d)
Runoff
36.
What is C?
a)
Evaporation
b)
Condensation
c)
Precipitation
d)
Runoff
37.

Gravity causes ___________________ to occur.

a)

condensation

b)

precipitation

c)

evaporation

d)

none of the above

38.

This provides the power to keep the water cycle running.

a)

The Sun

b)

The Earth

c)

The wind

d)

living things

39.

Which example is a form of precipitation?

a)

Dew

b)

Fog

c)

Frost

d)

Hail

40.

Rain and snow are two different forms of precipitation that fall on Earth's surface. Which factor is responsible for there being different forms of precipitation?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Run-off

c)

Temperature

d)

Transpiration

41.

Groundwater moves from a lower elevation to a higher elevation.

a)

true

b)

false

42.
Condensation is when...
a)
A liquid turns to gas.
b)
A gas turns to liquid.
c)
A liquid turns to ice.
d)
All of the answers.
43.
Evaporation is...
a)
When water changes from a solid to a liquid.
b)
When water changes from a gas to a liquid.
c)
When water changes from a liquid to a gas.
d)
None of the answers.
44.
What changes water from one state to another.
a)
An airplane.
b)
Gravity
c)
A change in temperature.
d)
None of the answers.
45.
What do we call it when water evaporates, condenses, then precipitates to the earth and then repeats?
a)
A Bicycle.
b)
The Life Cycle of a butterfly.
c)
The Water Cycle.
d)
All of the answers.
46.

Aquifers are __________.

a)

not a part of the water cycle

b)

underground water

c)

caused by evaporation

d)

none of the above

47.

What causes condensation?

a)

is not part of the water cycle

b)

water vapor does not change and becomes a liquid

c)

water vapor heats up and becomes a liquid

d)

water vapor cools and becomes a liquid

48.

What is wind?

a)

The movement of water due to pressure differences

b)

The movement of air due to pressure differences.

c)

The movement of air due to pollution differences

d)

The movement of water deep in the ocean

49.

Air moves from areas of _____ pressure to areas of ____ pressure.

a)

high, low

b)

low, high

50.

Cold air is _______ dense than warm air.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

the same as

51.

Warm air is _____ dense than cold air.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

the same as

52.

Warm air _______ and cold air _______.

a)

sinks, rises

b)

rises, sinks

53.

Winds move in a curved pattern called

a)

Tradewinds

b)

The doldrums

c)

The Coriolis Effect

d)

Easterlies

54.

Winds that blow steadily from specific directions over long distances are called

a)

Sea breezes

b)

Land breezes

c)

Jet streams

d)

Global Winds

55.

Three types of global winds are:

a)

Tradewinds

b)

Sea Breezes

c)

Polar Easterlies

d)

Prevailing Westerlies

e)

Land breezes

56.

Winds that blow over short distances are called

a)

Local winds

b)

Global winds

c)

Doldrums

d)

Coriolis Effect

57.

A narrow belt of high speed winds that blow from west to east, between 7 km and 16 km above Earth’s surface is called

a)

a jet stream

b)

the doldrums

c)

the Coriolis effect

d)

global winds

58.

Which absorbs heat the fastest?

a)

Land

b)

Water

59.

Continental air masses are located above

a)

land

b)

water

60.

Maritime air masses are located above

a)

land

b)

water

61.

Polar air masses are

a)

hot

b)

cold

c)

medium temperature

62.

Tropical air masses are

a)

hot

b)

cold

c)

medium tempertaure

63.

Weather events (clouds, rain, storms) occur along the edges of air masses at boundaries called

a)

Coriolis effect

b)

fronts

c)

sea breezes

d)

jet streams

64.

Surface ocean currents are caused by

a)

water temperature

b)

water density

c)

salinty

d)

Global winds

65.

Deep ocean currents are driven by

a)

global winds

b)

salinity

c)

water temperature

d)

the Coriolis effect

66.

An _________ is a large body of air that travels in one direction due to pressure.

a)

Front

b)

Air mass

c)

Ocean current

67.

Global winds don’t blow in straight north/south lines, due to....

a)

Atmosphere

b)

Clouds

c)

Coriolis Force

d)

None of the above

68.

What is the main cause of the Coriolis Effect?

a)

Temperature

b)

Trade Winds

c)

Earth’s Rotation

d)

The Sun and Ocean

69.

What does the Coriolis Effect impact?

a)

Wind Speed

b)

Wind Direction

c)

Small Scale Objects

d)

Bodies of Water

70.

What does the Coriolis Effect help to directly develop in circular motion?

a)

Tornadoes

b)

Thunderstorms

c)

Hurricanes

d)

Floods

71.

A polar air mass will have what kind of air in it?

a)

Warm

b)

Cold

c)

Humid

d)

Dry

72.

what is the coriolis effect?

a)

change in location of warm and cold surface water every 2-7 years

b)

tendency of objects moving large distances on Earth’s surface to bend to the right in the northern hemisphere & to the left in the southern hemisphere

c)

winds in northern Indian ocean that blow from the southwest in the summer & from the northeast in winter

d)

two layers of horizontal winds moving in opposite directions

73.

Using one or more senses to gather information is called ...

a)

hypothesis

b)

observation

c)

conclusion

d)

problem

74.

An educated prediction that can be tested is a/an

a)

theory

b)

hypothesis

c)

problem

d)

conclusion

75.

Which of the following is an example of data?

a)

measurements

b)

conclusion

c)

theories

d)

materials

76.

Observations that deal with a number or amount are called

a)

manipulated observations

b)

quantitative observations

c)

qualitative observations

d)

operational observations

77.

The rock has bands of black, white and grey is an example of this type of observation.

a)

manipulated observations

b)

quantitative observation

c)

qualitative observation

d)

operational observation

78.

The statement that correctly lists the steps of the scientific method in order is ______

a)

ask a question- research-conclusion-form hypothesis

b)

form hypothesis- ask a question- gather and analyze data- share

c)

design experiment- research-ask a question

d)

form hypothesis- design experiment- gather and analyze data- conclusion

79.

The steps commonly used by scientists in gathering information to test hypotheses and solve problems are called _____.

a)

descriptive research

b)

pure science

c)

applied science

d)

scientific method

80.

In a scientific experiment, the one variable that is changed by the scientist to test a hypothesis is called the _________________________ variable.

a)

dependent

b)

independent

c)

controlled

d)

problem

81.

The _________________________ is the base metric unit of liquid volume.

a)

liter

b)

meter

c)

gram

d)

pound

82.

For ease of understanding, scientists report measurements using the ______________ system.

a)

dependent

b)

science

c)

English

d)

SI or metric

83.

A _________________________ is a visual display of information or data.

a)

line

b)

gram

c)

graph

d)

circle

84.

A ________________ graph is used to show trends in data over time.

a)

line

b)

circle

c)

bar

d)

graph

85.

____________ is the prefix meaning 1000.

a)

milli-

b)

kilo-

c)

mega-

d)

centi-

86.

A process that uses observation and experimentation to gain knowledge about events in nature is _________________________.

a)

gram

b)

scientific method

c)

experiment

d)

science

87.

Which prefix means hundredth?

a)

milli-

b)

deci-

c)

centi-

d)

hecto-

88.

What type of data does the picture represent?

a)

qualitative

b)

quantitative

c)

counting

d)

scientific

89.

What is the name of this piece of equipment?

a)

beaker

b)

graduated cylinder

c)

test tube

d)

flask

90.

What is this piece of equiment used for?

a)

measuring mass

b)

measuring volume

c)

holding liquids

d)

mixing liquids

91.

Mass is measured in

a)

liters

b)

grams

c)

centimeters

d)

pounds

92.

It is safe to taste any substance to correctly identify it.

a)

true

b)

false

93.

According to the circle graph, what is the favorite pizza topping?

a)

cheese

b)

supreme

c)

sausage

d)

pepperoni

94.

According to the graph, what is the nicest fruit?

a)

blueberry

b)

apple

c)

orange

d)

banana

95.

What was the highest temperature reached?

a)

40F

b)

30F

c)

50F

d)

60F

96.

What variable goes on the x-axis?

a)

independent

b)

dependent

c)

variable

d)

control

97.

You do not have to wear safety glasses when working with chemicals.

a)

true

b)

false

98.
What two things are needed for a scientific investigation?
a)
Data and observations
b)
Observations and a hypothesis
c)
Evidence and observations
d)
Hypothesis and conclusion
99.

Which of these best describes an experiment?

a)

mathematical analysis of data

b)

observation of animals in their natural world

c)

collection of data from an uncontrolled environment for comparative purposes

d)

procedure with controlled conditions and test and outcome variables

100.

Which piece of equipment are used to measure length?

a)

balance

b)

ruler

c)

graduated cylinder

d)

thermometer

101.

Which property of vinegar can you observe through sense alone?

a)

has a sour, acidic taste

b)

has a pH greater than that of pure water

c)

has a density greater than that of pure water

d)

conducts an electrical current when dissolved in water

102.

Identifying the Test (Independent) Variable and Outcome (Dependent) Variable in an experiment will help you interpret results. What is the difference between the Test (Independent) and the Outcome (Dependent) Variable in an experiment?

a)

Test Variable changes due to the outcome variable, the Outcome Variable is what is measured in an experiment.

b)

Test Variable changes due to the outcome variable, the Outcome Variable is what stays the same in an experiment.

c)

The Test Variable is what we change in an experiment, and the Outcome Variable is what changes as a result of that change.

d)

The Test Variable is what is measured in an experiment, and the Outcome Variable is what changes as a result of that change.

103.
In a scientific experiment, the one variable that is changed by the scientist to test a hypothesis is called the _________________________ variable.
a)

dependent

b)

control

c)

constant

d)

independent

104.

What are the steps of the Scientific Method?

a)

Make observation & Ask question, Make Hypothesis, Analyze Results or data, Test Hypothesis, Draw Conclusion

b)

Make observation & Ask question, Make Hypothesis, Test Hypothesis, Analyze Data, Draw Conclusion and Communicate Results

c)

Make observation & Ask question, Communicate Results, Make Hypothesis, Analyze Results or data, Test Hypothesis, Draw Conclusion

d)

Communicate Results, Make observation & Ask question, Make Hypothesis, Analyze Results or data, Test Hypothesis, Draw Conclusion

105.

A force that one object can apply to another object without touching is?

a)

Gravity

b)

Noncontact Force

c)

Friction

d)

Contact Force

106.

Does attraction increase or decrease if the mass increases?

a)

Decreases if one or both masses increase

b)

Increases if only one mass increases

c)

Decreases if only one mass increases

d)

Increase if one or both masses increase

107.

Does attraction between objects increase or decrease with increasing distance?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

108.

Is gravity a contact or noncontact force?

(a)  

109.

Astronauts on the Moon can jump higher than if they were on Earth. This is because

a)

the astronauts are less massive on the Moon.

b)

there is no friction on the Moon.

c)

Newton's laws of motion do not apply to the Moon.

d)

the Moon is less massive than the Earth

110.

According to the law of universal gravitation, any two objects are attracted to each other. The strength of the gravitational force depends on the masses of the objects and their distance from each other. Many stars have planets around them. If there were no gravity attracting a planet to its star, the planet's motion would carry it away from the star. However, when this motion is balanced by the gravitational attraction to the star, the planet orbits the star. Two solar systems each have a planet the same distance from the star. The planets have the same mass, but Planet A orbits a more massive star than Planet B. Which of the following statements is true about the planets?

a)

Planet A orbits its star faster than Planet B.

b)

Planet A has a longer year than Planet B.

c)

Planet B is more attracted to its star than Planet A.

d)

Planet B will keep orbiting its star longer than Planet A

111.

Which of the following exists around every object that has mass?

a)

magnetic poles

b)

electric charges

c)

a magnetic field

d)

a gravitational field

112.

Which of the following is true of Earth's gravity?

a)

It pulls objects toward the Earth's surface without touching them.

b)

It only has an effect on objects farther than ten meters from the Earth's surface.

c)

It pushes objects away from the Earth's surface without touching them.

d)

It only has an effect on the Moon and the Sun.

113.

The data above were collected by scientists testing the force of gravity between two objects. What does the data in the table support?

a)

The force of gravity only depends on the object with less mass.

b)

The force of gravity only depends on the distance between the objects interacting.

c)

The force of gravity depends on the masses of the objects interacting.

d)

The force of gravity only depends on the object with more mass.

114.

Which of the following statements explains why the Earth has a gravitational field?

a)

It is revolving around the Sun.

b)

It is rotating on its axis.

c)

It has mass.

d)

It has an electric charge.

115.

In which situation is the gravitational force between two objects hard to detect?

a)

if the mass of each object is very small

b)

if the mass of both objects is very great

c)

if the mass of one of the objects is very great

d)

if the objects are very close together

116.

Why does the Sun gravitationally dominate all other objects in the Solar System?

a)

The Sun is by far the brightest object in the Solar System.

b)

The Sun is by far the most massive object in the Solar System.

c)

The Sun moves at a greater speed than any of the other objects in the Solar System.

d)

The Sun is the closest object to planet Earth.

117.

When a scale is used to weigh an object on Earth, it measures the gravitational force that pulls on the object. The unit for the force of gravity pulling on an object is the newton (N). A student uses a scale to measure the force of gravity on 5 different objects, each with a mass of 20, 40, 60, 80, and 100 grams. She plotted her data on the graph shown above. What does the data show?

a)

The greater the mass of an object, the greater the gravitational pull exerted on it by Earth.

b)

An object gains mass when the gravitational force on Earth remains the same.

c)

The smaller the mass of an object, the greater the gravitational pull exerted on it by Earth.

d)

An object loses mass when the gravitational force on Earth remains the same.

118.

Scientists are observing and recording data for two different planets, planet X and planet Y. Each planet orbits a different star. The planets have the same mass. The scientists record the following data. Which of the following statements is most likely true?

a)

The star close to planet Y has less mass.

b)

The star close to planet Y is hotter.

c)

The star close to planet Y is cooler.

d)

The star close to planet Y has more mass.

119.

Emma hits a baseball into the air. While the ball is flying through the air, which of the following objects is pulling on it with a gravitational force?

a)

the Sun

b)

the bat

c)

the Earth

d)

all of these

120.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Only objects that are very close together exert gravitational forces on each other.

b)

Objects can only exert gravitational forces if they are at least as dense as water.

c)

Any object with mass exerts a gravitational force on all other objects.

d)

Only objects that are as large as planets exert gravitational forces on other objects.

121.

__________ is the attractive pull between any two objects

a)

Atmospheric pressure

b)

Gravity

c)

Inertia

d)

Friction

122.

Gravity keeps

a)

the planet Mars in orbit around the Sun.

b)

moons in orbit around the planet Saturn.

c)

the Moon in orbit around Earth.

d)

all of these

123.

Which statement best describes two objects experiencing a gravitational interaction?

a)

The objects can only attract each other and the force depends on their masses.

b)

The objects can attract and repel each other and the force does not depend on their masses.

c)

The objects can attract and repel each other and the force depends on their masses.

d)

The objects can only repel each other and the force does not depend on their masses.

124.

Which of the following exerts gravity?

a)

only planets, moons, and stars

b)

any object with mass

c)

only objects on Earth

d)

only the Earth

125.

Which of the following best describes a gravitational force?

a)

It can attract or repel two objects.

b)

It only repels two objects.

c)

It does not require objects to have mass.

d)

It only attracts two objects.

126.

A scientist observes and records data for the force of gravity between the Sun and a few different-sized planets. The different-sized planets are placed at the same distance from the Sun. Based on the above scenario, which graph best represents the gravity between the different-sized planets and the Sun?

a)

Z

b)

Y

c)

X

d)

W

127.

Scientists and engineers are testing three different satellites orbiting Earth. The scientists are able to use sensors to determine the gravitational force experienced by each satellite. Some of the data from each of the orbiting satellites is shown in the table above. Which statement best summarizes the information given?

a)

The gravitational force on the satellite depends only on the distance from Earth at which it is traveling.

b)

The satellite with the least amount of mass is able to exert greater gravitational force on Earth than the others.

c)

The gravitational force exerted by Earth changes the mass of each of the satellites.

d)

The gravitational force exerted by Earth on the satellite depends on the satellite's mass.

128.

All objects anywhere on or near the Earth are

a)

pulled toward Earth by the force of gravity.

b)

held in place by several forces pushing and pulling on them.

c)

pushed away from Earth by the force of repulsion.

d)

spun in a counterclockwise direction by magnetic forces.

129.

When placed at equal distances apart, the greatest gravitational attraction will be between two

a)

skateboards

b)

bowling balls

c)

school buses

130.

Which is needed to determine the amount of gravitational force between two objects?

a)

distance and mass

b)

weight and time

c)

area and weight

131.

The gravitational force exerted by an object depends on its

a)

volume

b)

mass

c)

weight

132.

A student drops a bowling ball and an apple from a third-story window. Both objects hit the ground at the same time. From the experiment, the student should conclude that

a)

the apple weighs more than the bowling ball

b)

more air friction is acting on the apple than on the bowling ball

c)

gravity pulls on both objects, causing them to fall at the same time.

133.
What is gravitational force?
a)
It makes objects at rest start moving.
b)
It makes objects that are moving stop.
c)
The force of attraction between two objects.
d)
It pulls you into space.
134.
A baseball and bat are on the ground.   What is true?
a)
They attract each other with equal gravitational force.
b)
There is no gravitational force between them.
c)
The baseball will float because it's lighter.
d)
The bat will pull the baseball closer to itself.
135.
As the product of two objects' masses increases, the pull of gravity
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
136.
This FORCE pulls things.  It PULLS things into orbit around the sun. 
a)
Newton
b)
gravity
c)
weight
d)
path
137.
Mass is a measurement of 
a)
how much matter is present in an object
b)
how much weight is present in an object
c)
the amount a spring is compressed on a scale
d)
none of the answers are correct
138.
Jupiter has about 317 times more mass than Earth. What can you infer from this fact? 
a)
That Jupiter’s gravitational force is much weaker than on Earth’s gravitational force.
b)
That Jupiter’s gravitational force is much stronger than Earth’s gravitational force.
c)
That Jupiter’s and Earth’s gravitational forces are equal.
d)
Mass has no effect on the gravitational force between two objects
139.
How can you explain that we have a stronger gravitational attraction with Earth than the Sun?
a)
The sun has a larger mass
b)
The sun has a smaller mass
c)
Closer to center of sun
d)
Closer to center of Earth
140.
Which of these best describes why your weight (on Earth) would change on another planet?
a)
Dehydration effects on different planets change weight.
b)
In general, the smaller the planet, the greater weight
c)
Different planets have different gravitational pulls
d)
Weight does not change, no matter where you are.
141.

What is the relationship between mass and gravitational pull?

a)

Higer mass creates higher gravitational pull

b)

Lower mass creates higher gravitational pull

c)

Lower gravitational pull creates more mass

142.

Which of the following data would support the claim that the gravitational force between objects depends on mass?

a)

A rocket can escape Earth’s gravity by traveling at high speed.

b)

Gravitational force is stronger on more massive planets.

c)

The further a planet is away from the sun, the smaller the gravitational force.

d)

An object’s weight can change depending where it is on Earth.

143.

Which of the following does not affect the gravitational force between the earth and the sun?

a)

The net electrical charge of the earth

b)

The distance between the earth and the sun

c)

The mass of the sun

d)

The mass of the earth

144.

An astronaut way out in space is considered to be “weightless". This is because–

a)

his mass is so small relative to the earth that gravity doesn’t affect him.

b)

gravitational force decreases greatly over long distances.

c)

gravitational force pushes objects away from each other at long distances.

d)

objects far away from the earth have less mass.

145.

Which statement is true?

a)

All objects with mass exert a gravitational force.

b)

Only celestial objects exert a gravitational force.

c)

Gravity can both push and pull objects.

d)

Only Earth exerts a gravitational force.

146.

The push or pull between two objects

a)

attract

b)

mass

c)

force

d)

gravitational force

147.

The matter in an object, which affects gravitational forces

a)

attract

b)

mass

c)

gravitational force

d)

force

148.

Objects being pulled together

a)

gravitational force

b)

attract

c)

mass

d)

force

149.

The force between two masses

a)

gravitational force

b)

force

c)

mass

d)

attract

150.

A change in an object's position, direction or location

a)

Position

b)

Force

c)

Motion

d)

Inertia

151.

A measurement of distance over time

a)

speed

b)

acceleration

c)

force

d)

distance

152.

The measurement of speed and direction of an object

a)

speed

b)

velocity

c)

acceleration

d)

average speed

153.

a change in an objects speed or direction

a)

speed

b)

velocity

c)

acceleration

d)

motion

154.

What is the speed formula?

a)

d = s*t

b)

s= time/distance

c)

d= speed/time

d)

s = distance/time

155.

What is force?

a)

a push or a pull

b)

motion

c)

acceleration

d)

interaction

156.

An object at rest stay at rest and an object in motion stays in motion until acted upon by an unbalanced force.

a)

Newton's 3rd Law

b)

Force

c)

Newton's 2nd Law

d)

Newton's 1st Law

157.

The acceleration of an object as produced by net force. F = m*a

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Motion

c)

Newton's 2nd Law

d)

Newton's 3rd Law

158.

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

a)

Newton's 2nd Law

b)

Newton's 1st Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

None of the above

159.

What units is Force measured in?

a)

Grams

b)

Miles

c)

Hours

d)

Newtons

160.

Equal forces that do not cause a change in an objects motion

a)

Unbalance force

b)

Push or a pull

c)

Balanced force

d)

Average speed

161.

Are unequal forces that cause a change in the motion of an object

a)

Balanced forces

b)

Unbalanced forces

c)

Inertia

d)

Gravity

162.

The overall force exerted on an object; measured in Newtons.

a)

Balanced forces

b)

Unbalanced forces

c)

Net forces

d)

Newtons

163.

The overall speed of an object during the entire course of a trip

a)

Velocity

b)

Average speed

c)

Acceleration

d)

Gravity

164.

The force that attracts objects to the center of the Earth

a)

Friction

b)

Air resistance

c)

Motion

d)

Gravity

165.

What is the definition of motion?

a)

The amount of gravity depends on two things.

b)

A change in the position of an object over time.

c)

The force of attraction between all objects.

d)

The attractive or repulsive force between any two charged objects.

166.

How do you know something is in motion or has moved?

a)

By the weight of the object.

b)

By the force of push or pull.

c)

By the roughness of the surface.

d)

By using a reference point.

167.

What causes an object to move?

a)

The force of attraction between all objects.

b)

The amount of gravity depends on two things.

c)

A push or a pull.

d)

The attractive or repulsive force between any two charged objects.

168.

What is a force?

a)

A push or a pull.

b)

The attractive or repulsive force between any two charged objects.

c)

The amount of gravity depends on two things.

d)

The force of attraction between all objects.

169.

Can more than one force act on an object at the same time?

a)

Yes, because the roughness of the surface affects the amount of force.

b)

Yes, because the total combination of the forces acting on an object is called net force.

c)

Yes, because the force of push or pull affects the amount of force.

d)

Yes, because the weight of the object affects the amount of force.

170.

What is a balanced force?

a)

A force in which the net force equals zero.

b)

A force that opposes the motion of an object.

c)

A force in which the net force is greater than zero.

d)

A force that causes a change in speed or direction.

171.

What is an unbalanced force?

a)

A force in which the net force equals zero.

b)

A force that opposes the motion of an object.

c)

A force that causes a change in speed or direction.

d)

A force in which the net force is greater than zero.

172.

What is the 1st Law of Motion according to Newton?

a)

The force of attraction between all objects.

b)

The law of inertia.

c)

The force of push or pull.

d)

The force of friction.

173.

What is inertia?

a)

The force that opposes the motion of an object.

b)

The force of push or pull.

c)

The tendency of objects to resist a change in motion.

d)

The force of attraction between all objects.

174.

What is friction?

a)

The tendency of objects to resist a change in motion.

b)

A force that opposes the motion of an object.

c)

The force of push or pull.

d)

The force of attraction between all objects.

175.

What is Newton's First Law of Motion?

a)

Every action has an equal and opposit reaction

b)

Objects in motion stay in motion/Objects at rest stay at rest until an outside force acts on it

c)

A force is required to accelerate an object with a known mass

176.

What is Newton's Second Law of Motion?

a)

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

b)

Objects in motion stay in motion/objects at rest stay at rest until an outside force acts on it

c)

A force is required to accelerate an object with a known mass

177.

What is Newton's Third Law of Motion?

a)

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

b)

Objects in motion stay in motion/objects at rest stay at rest until an outside force acts on it

c)

A force is required to accelerate an object with a known mass

178.

A frog pushes his legs down on a lily pad, but yet the direction he travels is upwards. Which law explains this?

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

d)
179.

The Swimmer moves her hand down and to the left and her body moves forward and to the right

a)

Newton's first law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

180.

A person in a car slides to the right when going through a very sharp left turn on the highway

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

181.

A car is placed in neutral and on flat ground not moving. The car weighs 800 pounds. If a force of 40 N is applied to the front of the car and a force of 30 N is applied to the back of the car, what will happen?

a)

The car will not move

b)

The car will move forward

c)

The car will move backwards

d)

The car will flip over

182.

The speed and direction of an object is it's ___________.

a)

Momentum

b)

Velocity

c)

acceleration

d)

Inertia

183.

Anything that turns or changes it's direction (including things in orbit) is ___________.

a)

Going a constant speed

b)

moving

c)

accelerating

d)

decelerating

184.

If the forces acting on an object are unbalanced, then the object must be ____________.

a)

balanced

b)

at rest

c)

accelerating

d)

momentum

185.

Which of Newton's laws explains why an object in space will stay in motion once it starts moving?

a)

Newton's first law

b)

Newton's second law

c)

Newton's third law

186.

A person’s body is thrown outward as a car rounds a curve on a highway.

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

None of them

187.

Force is measured in _______________

a)

Newtons

b)

Kg

c)

m/s2

188.

A sports car speeds up much faster than a dump truck when a traffic light turns from red to green. Which law is this?

a)

Law 1

b)

Law 2

c)

Law 3

189.

A rocket pushes burning gases DOWN which causes the rocket to launch UP. Which law is this?

a)

Law 1

b)

Law 2

c)

Law 3

190.
the tendency of an object to resist a change in its motion
a)
acceleration
b)
inertia
c)
mass
d)
frame of reference
191.
a force that opposes motion between any surfaces that are touching
a)
velocity
b)
friction
c)
inertia
d)
position
192.
Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist a change in its ___________. 
a)
temperature
b)
shape
c)
size
d)
motion
193.
Because of inertia, a resting object will remain at ________.
a)
rest
b)
a constant speed
c)
school
d)
inertia 
194.
An object's velocity can be changed by changing its speed, its direction, or both.
a)
True
b)
False
195.

Newton's Second Law States: That Acceleration is equal to the net force on an object divided by the object's _________

a)

mass

b)

time

c)

speed

d)

force

196.

Newton's Third Law States: For every action, there is an opposite and equal reaction.

a)

False

b)

True

197.
A player throws a ball. The action force is the player impact on the ball. The reaction force is...
a)
The force of the ball impact on the player
b)
The force of the grip of the ball
c)
The celebration the player is thinking of
198.
A rocket pushes exhaust 10, 000 N. Without any other forces acting on the rocket, how much force does the rocket go forward?
a)
15,000 N
b)
1,000 N
c)
10, 000 N
199.

The list describes six different situations.

1. A pendulum moving back and forth

2. A toy car rolling down a ramp

3. An airplane traveling at a constant velocity of 500 km/h north

4. A raindrop falling on a leaf

5. A marble sitting on a table

6. A hockey puck sliding across the ice at constant velocity

Which objects in the list are experiencing balanced forces?

a)

The pendulum, the toy car, and the hockey puck

b)

The airplane, the marble, and the hockey puck

c)

The toy car, the raindrop, and the marble

d)

The pendulum, the toy car, and the raindrop

200.

Which of the following could occur when the net force acting on a car is zero?

a)

The car changes speed from 0 m/s to 20 m/s

b)

The car slows down while turning a corner

c)

The car travels at a constant speed of 20 m/s

d)

The car changes speed from 20 m/s to 0 m/s

201.

Are the forces acting on the object balanced or unbalanced? The man does a flip on the fly board.


(a)  
Choose from the below words
unbalanced
balanced
202.

How will this object move?

a)

It will not move

b)

It will move in both directions

c)

It will move to the right

d)

It will move to the left

203.

How will this object move?

a)

It will not move

b)

It will move in both directions

c)

It will move to the right

d)

It will move to the left

204.

Shadell pushes a box 35 N to the right. Nazai pushes the box 25 N in the same direction. What is the net force?


(a)  
Choose from the below words
60 N unbalanced to the right
60 N balanced to the right
10 N balanced to the right
10 N unbalanced to the right
205.

What is net force?

(a)  

206.

Balanced or Unbalanced

(a)  

207.

What is the net force?


(a)  
Choose from the below words
5 N left
30 N left
25 N right
55 N right
208.

Which of the answer choices is not a characteristic of a balanced force?

a)

no change in motion

b)

moving at a constant speed

c)

causes a change in motion

d)

net force of zero

209.

If an object is not moving the forces acting upon it are (a)  

210.

A (a)   is a push or a pull on an object.

211.

Balanced forces causes

a)

speed of an object

b)

change in motion

c)

no change in motion

d)

no friction on object

212.
What is the net force?
a)
17 N Right
b)
3 N Right
c)
3 N Left
d)
17 N Left
213.
The forces represented by the arrows in the diagrams are applied to the four objects that are at rest on a table. Which object is most likely to move to the right?
a)
Object W
b)
Object X
c)
Object Y
d)
Object Z
214.

Calculate the net force shown in the  diagram?

(a)  

215.

What causes the feeling of your stomach churning when you lift up from your seat on a roller coaster?

a)

Magnetism

b)

Friction

c)

Gravity

d)

Inertia

216.

What is the force that pulls us down toward the center of the earth?

a)

Magnetism

b)

Friction

c)

Buoyancy

d)

Gravity

217.

What is the property by which an object at rest tends to stay at rest until a force acts upon it?

a)

Velocity

b)

Inertia

c)

Acceleration

d)

Momentum

218.

At what G force may a person suffer a nose bleed?

a)

2 Gs

b)

5 Gs

c)

4 Gs

d)

3 Gs

219.

What do amusement park ride engineers make sure of when designing rides?

a)

Maximum duration

b)

Maximum speed

c)

Maximum height

d)

Maximum G force

220.

What do astronauts experience when they finally exit Earth's atmosphere?

a)

Quadruple gravity

b)

Triple gravity

c)

Double gravity

d)

Zero gravity

221.

What force are astronauts put through during training for space?

a)

Buoyancy force

b)

G force

c)

Magnetic force

d)

Friction force

222.

What is the force of gravity on an object on Earth?

a)

4 G

b)

3 G

c)

2 G

d)

1 G

223.

What is the force that causes the man's face to be lifted up and back in the wind tunnel experiment?

a)

Magnetism

b)

Buoyancy

c)

Friction

d)

G force

224.

What is the force that causes the man's skin to be pulled up against his bones in the wind tunnel experiment?

a)

Inertia

b)

G force

c)

Acceleration

d)

Momentum

225.
Energy can be created.
a)
True
b)
False
226.
Energy cannot be destroyed.
a)
True 
b)
False
227.
The Law of Conservation of Energy states:
a)
Energy can created or destroyed but not transformed 
b)
Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it can only transformed
c)
Energy can't be created, destroyed or transformed
228.
According to the Law of Conservation of energy, the amount of energy before and after a reaction must be the same. Which statement below is true?
a)
The total amount of energy is conserved
b)
The total amount of energy is less after a reaction
c)
The total amount of energy is more after a reaction
229.

The Law of Conservation of Energy states:

a)

Energy can created or destroyed but not transformed

b)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it can only transformed from one form to another form

c)

Energy can't be created, destroyed or transformed

d)

All the above

230.

Energy can not be created nor destroyed.

a)

Newton's Laws of Motion

b)

Big Bang Theory

c)

The Law of Conservation of Momentum

d)

The Law of Conservation of Energy

231.

The Law of Conservation of Energy is also known as:

a)

First Law of Thermodynamics

b)

Second Law of Thermodynamics

c)

Third Law of Thermodynamics

d)

None of the above

232.
When you plug in an iron, electrical energy is transformed into ______ energy
a)
sound
b)
mechanical
c)
thermal (heat)
d)
radiant
233.
When a construction worker hits a hammer into plank of wood, the mechanical energy from the hit becomes _____ energy
a)
radiant
b)
electical
c)
heat and sound
d)
chemical
234.
After using a flashlight on an overnight sleeping trip the flashlight stops working. Why?
a)
 You forgot to charge the flashlight.
b)
The electrical circuit in the flashlight was broken
c)
The bulb received too much energy from the  battery
d)
All of the energy from the battery was transformed into light and heat
235.

Which type of energy has to do with objects in motion?

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

236.

Which of these has the most potential energy.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

237.

If a football player wants to become better at tackling by increasing his or her kinetic energy, how can the player do this?

a)

Increase his/her height

b)

Increase his/her speed

c)

Increase his/her mass

d)

Decrease his/her speed

238.
What type of energy is in this picture?
a)
Kinetic
b)
Potential
c)
Chemical
d)
Sound
239.
On a roller coaster, where is maximum potential energy?
a)
At the bottom of a big hill
b)
When going around a corner
c)
When going upside down
d)
At the top of a big hill
240.
On a roller coaster, where is maximum kinetic energy?
a)
At the bottom of a big hill
b)
When going around a corner
c)
When going upside down
d)
At the top of a big hill
241.
A baseball held by a pitcher has _____________energy.
a)
Kinetic
b)
Chemical 
c)
Potential
d)
Thermal
242.
At what position does the rock have the greatest kinetic energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
D
d)
E
243.
Wood, batteries, gasoline, and  food are all examples of ________________________.
a)
gravitational potential energy
b)
elastic potential energy
c)
chemical potential energy
d)
None of the above
244.
The faster an object moves, the ________ kinetic energy it has. 
a)
more
b)
less
c)
none of the above
d)
all of the above 
245.

When you compress a spring, you are storing __________ energy.

a)

sound

b)

elastic

c)

light

d)

chemical

246.
What kind of energy is in a moving skateboard?
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
247.
Energy due to motion is ____________ energy. 
a)
Potential 
b)
Energy
c)
Kinetic
d)
Friction
248.
__________ is stored energy. 
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
c)
None of the above 
d)
All of the above 
249.
Gravitational potential energy depends on the ________ and ________ of the object. 
a)
Height and mass
b)
Friction and movement
c)
Mass and Movement
d)
Height and Friction 
250.
Energy can not be created or destroyed, only converted from one form to another.
a)
true
b)
false
251.
Explain what happens to the potential energy of a rock as it falls off the side of a cliff.
a)
The kinetic energy decreases as the potential energy increases.
b)
The kinetic energy decreases as the potential energy decreases.
c)
The potential energy decreases as the kinetic energy increases.
d)
The potential energy decreases as the kinetic energy decreases. 
252.
When riding a roller coaster, you go up and down many hills. As you get to the top of a roller coaster, what energy change is taking place.
a)
Potential energy is changed into kinetic energy.
b)
Kinetic energy is changed into potential energy.
c)
Chemical energy is changed into heat energy.
d)
Heat energy is changed into chemical energy. 
253.

Which passenger has the most potential energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

254.

The formula for calculating the gravitational potential energy in an object is shown above. Which object will have the largest value for its GPE

a)
b)
c)
d)
255.

If these are all moving at the same speed, the vehicle with the greatest KE would be

(Think about their sizes)

a)
b)
c)
d)
256.

Determine whether the following example is Potential Energy (PE) or Kinetic Energy (KE):


flashlight turned off

a)

Potential Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

257.
a)
Potential Energy
b)
Kinetic Energy
258.

Calculate the speed of a car that travels 200 meters in 20 seconds.

a)

5 m/s

b)

15 m/s

c)

10 m/s

d)

25 m/s

259.

A train travels 500 meters in 25 seconds. What is its speed?

a)

30 meters per second

b)

10 meters per second

c)

20 meters per second

d)

50 meters per second

260.

Graph the distance versus time for a car that travels 100 meters in 10 seconds.

a)

A vertical line at 10 s

b)

A straight line with a slope of 10 m/s

c)

A horizontal line at 100 m

d)

A curved line with a slope of 5 m/s

261.

Draw a distance-time graph for a bicycle that covers 300 meters in 30 seconds.

a)

A curved line with a slope of 5 meters per second

b)

A straight line with a slope of 10 meters per second

c)

A horizontal line with a slope of 0 meters per second

d)

A zigzag line with a slope of 15 meters per second

262.

Interpret the distance-time graph where the line is horizontal.

a)

The object is moving in a circular path

b)

The object is not moving

c)

The object is moving at a constant speed

d)

The object is accelerating

263.

Explain the meaning of a steep slope on a distance-time graph.

a)

Slow speed or rate of change in distance over time

b)

No movement or change in distance over time

c)

Negative speed or rate of change in distance over time

d)

Fast speed or rate of change in distance over time

264.

What is the average speed of a runner who covers 400 meters in 50 seconds?

a)

5 meters per second

b)

40 meters per second

c)

8 meters per second

d)

10 meters per second

265.

Calculate the average speed of a boat that travels 600 meters in 120 seconds.

a)

5 m/s

b)

10 m/s

c)

3 m/s

d)

8 m/s

266.

What is the difference between velocity and speed?

a)

Velocity is a measure of distance, while speed is a measure of time.

b)

Velocity is always constant, while speed can vary.

c)

Velocity includes direction, while speed does not.

d)

Velocity is used for objects in motion, while speed is used for stationary objects.

267.

A car travels at a speed of 60 km/h. How long will it take to cover a distance of 180 km?

a)

2.5 hours

b)

3 hours

c)

5 hours

d)

4 hours

268.

What is the primary function of the major systems of the human body as described in the learning material?

a)

To perform individual tasks without interacting

b)

To maintain homeostasis

c)

To provide energy to the body

d)

To regulate body temperature only

269.

What is one of the functions of the cardiovascular system?

a)

To produce blood cells

b)

To carry food, water, oxygen, and other needed substances to the body's cells

c)

To regulate body temperature

d)

To control muscle contractions

270.

What is another function of the cardiovascular system?

a)

To synthesize vitamins

b)

To digest food

c)

To carry waste products away from the body's cells

d)

To send nerve signals to the brain

271.

What is the function of the right atrium in the circulatory system?

a)

It pumps oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body.

b)

It receives oxygen-poor blood from the body and pumps it into the right ventricle.

c)

It pumps oxygen-rich blood into the left ventricle.

d)

It prevents blood from flowing backward.

272.

What does the left ventricle do?

a)

It receives oxygen-poor blood from the body.

b)

It pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.

c)

It pumps oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body via the aorta.

d)

It prevents blood from mixing with oxygen-poor blood.

273.

What is the role of the septum in the heart?

a)

It sends a signal that makes heart muscle cells contract.

b)

It pumps blood throughout the body.

c)

It is a flap of tissue that prevents blood from flowing backward.

d)

It separates the left side of the heart from the right side and prevents oxygen-rich blood from mixing with oxygen-poor blood.

274.

What is the function of the pacemaker in the heart?

a)

It is a group of cells in the right atrium that send a signal that makes heart muscle cells contract, making the heart beat.

b)

It receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs.

c)

It pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.

d)

It is a flap of tissue that prevents blood from flowing backward.

275.

What is the purpose of the valve in the circulatory system?

a)

It pumps blood throughout the body.

b)

It separates the left side of the heart from the right side.

c)

It is a flap of tissue that prevents blood from flowing backward.

d)

It sends a signal that makes heart muscle cells contract.

276.

What is the function of arteries in the circulatory system?

a)

To carry blood away from the heart

b)

To carry blood back to the heart

c)

To exchange substances between blood and body cells

d)

To prevent blood from flowing backward

277.

What are capillaries?

a)

The largest artery in the body

b)

Blood vessels that carry oxygen-poor blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs

c)

Tiny vessels where substances are exchanged between the blood and body cells

d)

A major vein that carries blood from the lower body to the heart

278.

Which vessel is known as the largest artery in the body?

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Aorta

c)

Superior Vena Cava

d)

Inferior Vena Cava

279.

What is the role of the pulmonary veins in the circulatory system?

a)

They carry oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart

b)

They carry oxygen-poor blood from the heart to the lungs

c)

They carry blood away from the heart

d)

They exchange substances between blood and body cells

280.

What is the function of the valve in the circulatory system?

a)

To exchange substances between blood and body cells

b)

To carry blood back to the heart

c)

To carry blood away from the heart

d)

To prevent blood from flowing backward

281.

What is the function of plasma in the blood?

a)

It is a type of white blood cell.

b)

It is responsible for carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide.

c)

It is the liquid part of the blood, composed mostly of water.

d)

It plays an important role in forming blood clots.

282.

What is the primary role of red blood cells (RBC)?

a)

They fight against infectious diseases.

b)

They are involved in protecting the body against foreign invaders.

c)

They carry oxygen to other cells in the body.

d)

They play an important role in forming blood clots.

283.

What is hemoglobin?

a)

A type of white blood cell.

b)

A cell fragment that plays an important role in forming blood clots.

c)

A protein that binds chemically to oxygen which colors our blood red.

d)

A type of RBC responsible for carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide.

284.

What are leukocytes commonly known as?

a)

Platelets.

b)

Erythrocytes.

c)

Red blood cells.

d)

White blood cells.

285.

What is the role of platelets in the circulatory system?

a)

They are involved in protecting the body against foreign invaders.

b)

They are responsible for carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide.

c)

They are the liquid part of the blood.

d)

They play an important role in forming blood clots.

286.

Where is the heart situated in the body?

a)

Below the lungs

b)

Between the lungs, protected by the ribcage

c)

Above the lungs

d)

Outside the ribcage

287.

What is the function of the heart?

a)

To digest food

b)

To pump blood to the lungs and to the rest of the body

c)

To filter blood

d)

To store oxygen

288.

What does the heart do with the oxygenated blood?

a)

The heart stores the oxygenated blood

b)

The heart pumps the oxygenated blood to the rest of the body

c)

The heart sends the oxygenated blood back to the lungs

d)

The heart cools down the oxygenated blood

289.

What is the function of the right atrium in the heart?

a)

It pumps blood into the aorta

b)

It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs

c)

It receives deoxygenated blood from the body

d)

It pumps blood to the lungs

290.

Through which valve does blood flow after leaving the right ventricle?

a)

Aortic valve

b)

Pulmonic valve

c)

Mitral valve

d)

Tricuspid valve

291.

Where does the blood travel after passing through the left pulmonary veins?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Left atrium

c)

Right ventricle

d)

Left ventricle

292.

What is the role of the aorta in the circulatory system?

a)

It carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs

b)

It carries oxygenated blood to the body

c)

It receives blood from the pulmonary artery

d)

It collects blood from the pulmonary veins

293.

What is the function of arteries in the circulatory system?

a)

To carry oxygenated blood away from the heart

b)

To carry blood from the capillaries back to the heart

c)

To enable the exchange of oxygen with the body

d)

To re-oxygenate the blood in the lungs

294.

What role do capillaries play in the circulatory system?

a)

They carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs

b)

They enable the exchange of oxygen with the body

c)

They pump blood through the heart

d)

They carry oxygenated blood away from the heart

295.

What is the primary function of veins in the circulatory system?

a)

To carry blood from the capillaries back to the heart to be pumped to the lungs

b)

To carry oxygenated blood away from the heart

c)

To enable the exchange of oxygen with the body

d)

To re-oxygenate the blood in the lungs

296.

How many times does the human heart beat in one day?

a)

About 10,000 times

b)

About 35 million times

c)

About 100,000 times

d)

About 2.5 billion times

297.

Approximately how many times will the human heart beat during an average lifetime?

a)

About 100,000 times

b)

About 35 million times

c)

About 2.5 million times

d)

More than 2.5 billion times

298.

How much force does the heart use to pump blood compared to giving a tennis ball a good, hard squeeze?

a)

Less force than squeezing a tennis ball

b)

The same amount of force as squeezing a tennis ball

c)

Twice the amount of force as squeezing a tennis ball

d)

No force is used to pump blood

299.

Compared to the leg muscles of a person sprinting, how hard do the heart muscles work even at rest?

a)

Half as hard

b)

The same

c)

Twice as hard

d)

Not at all

300.

What is the range of a resting pulse for a child?

a)

50 to 70

b)

90 to 120

c)

60 to 100

d)

70 to 110

301.

Which system is primarily responsible for the removal of waste products from the body?

a)

Circulatory System

b)

Nervous System

c)

Excretory System

d)

Respiratory System

302.

What is the main function of the digestive system as shown in the image?

a)

To transport oxygen

b)

To control body temperature

c)

To digest and absorb nutrients

d)

To send neural signals

303.

What is the primary function of the digestive system?

a)

To circulate blood throughout the body

b)

To remove waste from the body

c)

To absorb nutrients from food

d)

To control body temperature

304.

Which system is responsible for removing waste from the body?

a)

Circulatory system

b)

Immune system

c)

Excretory system

d)

Musculoskeletal system

305.

How do the digestive and excretory systems work together?

a)

By circulating blood and oxygen

b)

By processing nutrients that enter the bloodstream and removing waste

c)

By controlling body movements

d)

By enhancing sensory functions

306.

What is the primary function of the digestive system?

a)

To provide sensory information to the brain

b)

To break down food and turn it into energy and nutrients

c)

To pump blood throughout the body

d)

To help the body breathe

307.

What is a calorie defined as in the context of food?

a)

A unit measuring the weight of food

b)

A type of nutrient found in food

c)

The amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of one gram of water by one Celsius degree

d)

A measure of how much food you should eat in a day

308.

What do nutrients in food provide to the body?

a)

The flavor and texture of the food

b)

The substances that provide the raw materials and energy for essential processes

c)

The ability to digest other foods more quickly

d)

The means to eliminate waste from the body

309.

How many kinds of nutrients are necessary for human health?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

310.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a type of nutrient necessary for human health?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Fiber

d)

Minerals

311.

What are carbohydrates mainly composed of?

a)

Nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon

b)

Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

c)

Carbon, oxygen, and potassium

d)

Hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen

312.

What is glucose?

a)

A complex carbohydrate

b)

A type of fiber

c)

A simple carbohydrate

d)

A protein

313.

What is fiber found in?

a)

Animal products

b)

Plant foods

c)

Dairy products

d)

Seafood

314.

What are fats primarily composed of?

a)

Nitrogen, carbon, oxygen

b)

Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen

c)

Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen

315.

Which type of fats are usually liquid at room temperature?

a)

Saturated fats

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Unsaturated fats

d)

Proteins

316.

What can excessive cholesterol lead to?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Heart disease

c)

Liver failure

d)

Kidney stones

317.

What are proteins made up of?

a)

Fatty acids

b)

Amino acids

c)

Glycerol molecules

d)

Cholesterol units

318.

What is the role of vitamins in the body?

a)

They provide energy for daily activities.

b)

They act as helper molecules in a variety of chemical reactions within the body.

c)

They build and repair body tissues.

d)

They regulate body temperature.

319.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the digestive system?

a)

Breaking down food into molecules.

b)

Absorbing molecules into the blood.

c)

Synthesizing vitamins and minerals.

d)

Eliminating wastes from the body.

320.

What is the most important nutrient?

a)

Vitamins

b)

Minerals

c)

Water

d)

Proteins

321.

What is digestion?

a)

The process by which the body hydrates its cells.

b)

The process by which your body breaks down food into small nutrient molecules.

c)

The process by which nutrients are stored in the body.

d)

The process by which food is chewed and swallowed.

322.

What is absorption?

a)

The elimination of waste products from the body.

b)

The breakdown of food into simpler molecules.

c)

The process by which nutrient molecules pass through the wall of your digestive system into your blood.

d)

The intake of food and liquids through eating and drinking.

323.

What is another name for the digestive tract?

a)

Cardiovascular canal

b)

Alimentary canal

c)

Respiratory tract

d)

Neural pathway

324.

Which of the following is NOT part of the digestive tract?

a)

Liver

b)

Stomach

c)

Esophagus

d)

Small intestine

325.

What organs help in breaking down food with enzymes and chemicals, but are not included in the digestive tract?

a)

Stomach and esophagus

b)

Liver and pancreas

c)

Small and large intestine

d)

Mouth and rectum

326.

Which organ is the starting point of the digestive tract?

a)

Stomach

b)

Mouth

c)

Esophagus

d)

Anus

327.

What is the correct sequence of food passage through the digestive tract?

a)

Mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus

b)

Mouth, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine, anus, rectum

c)

Esophagus, mouth, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus

d)

Mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, rectum, anus

328.

What is the role of saliva in the digestive system?

a)

It helps in the absorption of nutrients.

b)

It speeds up chemical reactions in the body.

c)

It breaks the food into smaller pieces.

d)

It mixes with food to form a bolus.

329.

What is the function of the enzyme in the digestive system?

a)

It helps in moving food down the esophagus.

b)

It seals off the windpipe to prevent food entry.

c)

It speeds up chemical reactions in the body.

d)

It lubricates the food making it easier to swallow.

330.

What is the purpose of the epiglottis in the digestive system?

a)

It produces a thick, slippery substance.

b)

It breaks down food mechanically.

c)

It seals off the windpipe to prevent food from entering.

d)

It aids in the absorption of food nutrients.

331.

Which term describes the movement of the esophagus walls that helps food move to the stomach?

a)

Bolus

b)

Mucus

c)

Peristalsis

d)

Saliva

332.

What is the primary function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach?

a)

To absorb nutrients

b)

To produce chyme

c)

To break down food and kill bacteria

d)

To move food into the small intestine

333.

Which type of digestion primarily occurs in the stomach?

a)

Chemical digestion

b)

Absorptive digestion

c)

Mechanical digestion

d)

Enzymatic digestion

334.

What is chyme?

a)

A type of enzyme in the stomach

b)

A muscular ring in the stomach

c)

A heavy, pasty liquid created in the stomach

d)

A type of bacteria in the stomach

335.

What role does the sphincter play in the digestive system?

a)

It releases enzymes

b)

It prevents food from returning to the esophagus

c)

It absorbs nutrients

d)

It secretes digestive juices

336.

What happens to the food in the stomach after it is mixed with gastric juices?

a)

It is immediately absorbed into the bloodstream

b)

It forms a liquid called chyme and moves to the small intestine

c)

It solidifies for easier digestion

d)

It is expelled from the body

337.

What is the primary function of the small intestine in the digestive system?

a)

To pump blood throughout the body

b)

To absorb nutrients from digested food

c)

To filter waste from the blood

d)

To produce digestive enzymes

338.

Which part of the small intestine is responsible for absorbing nutrients like vitamin B12 and bile acids?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Ileum

d)

Pancreas

339.

How long is the small intestine?

a)

10-15 feet

b)

22-25 feet

c)

30-35 feet

d)

5-10 feet

340.

What happens to food in the small intestine?

a)

It is stored for future use

b)

It is converted into waste material

c)

It is broken down into simple chemicals

d)

It is cooled down before digestion

341.

Where does the chemical digestion primarily occur in the digestive system?

a)

Stomach

b)

Large intestine

c)

Small intestine

d)

Liver

342.

What is the primary function of the large intestine as described in the text?

a)

To absorb nutrients from food

b)

To break down food particles

c)

To eliminate waste material

d)

To produce bile

343.

What does the liver produce that helps in breaking up fat particles?

a)

Vitamins

b)

Bacteria

c)

Bile

d)

Salt

344.

According to the text, what do the bacteria in the colon help with?

a)

Producing waste

b)

Absorbing salt

c)

Digesting food products

d)

Filtering harmful substances

345.

Which part of the colon is responsible for absorbing fluids and salt?

a)

The first part

b)

The second part

c)

The last part

d)

The middle part

346.

Where is the liver located?

a)

In the lower portion of the abdomen

b)

In the upper portion of the abdomen

c)

Near the heart

d)

Below the lungs

347.

What shape is the pancreas?

a)

Circular

b)

Triangular

c)

Rectangular

d)

Square

348.

What is the primary function of the enzymes produced by the pancreas?

a)

To regulate blood sugar

b)

To produce hormones

c)

To help in digestion by breaking down fat, protein, and starch

d)

To store energy

349.

Which organ is described as pear-shaped and located below the liver?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Gallbladder

c)

Liver

d)

Stomach

350.

Which of the following organs are considered accessory organs of the digestive system?

a)

Liver and stomach

b)

Pancreas and gallbladder

c)

Liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

d)

Stomach and intestines

351.

What is the primary role of bile in the digestive system?

a)

To absorb nutrients

b)

To break down proteins

c)

To break down fats

d)

To produce digestive enzymes

352.

Where is bile stored for later use?

a)

In the liver

b)

In the pancreas

c)

In the gallbladder

d)

In the stomach

353.

Through which tube does bile pass from the gallbladder to the small intestine?

a)

The pancreatic duct

b)

The cystic duct

c)

The bile duct

d)

The hepatic duct

354.

What is the first section of the small intestine where bile enters to help digest fats?

a)

The ileum

b)

The jejunum

c)

The duodenum

d)

The colon

355.

What is the primary function of the stomach in the digestive system as described in the text?

a)

To absorb nutrients from food

b)

To produce hormones that regulate food digestion

c)

To transport nutrients throughout the body

d)

To protect the body from infection

356.

What role do the bacteria in the gut play in immune homeostasis according to the document?

a)

They produce hormones

b)

They absorb nutrients

c)

They influence local and systemic immunity

d)

They transport nutrients

357.

Where does further breakdown and absorption of nutrients primarily occur in the digestive system?

a)

In the stomach

b)

In the small intestine

c)

In the large intestine

d)

In the esophagus

358.

What is the function of Peyer's patches as mentioned in the text?

a)

They regulate the balance of white blood cells

b)

They produce digestive enzymes

c)

They secrete an anti-inflammatory substance

d)

They absorb vitamins and minerals

359.

How long are the intestines in an adult human?

a)

15 feet

b)

25 feet

c)

35 feet

d)

45 feet

360.

How long does it take for food to move through the intestine?

a)

1 hour

b)

3 hours

c)

5 hours

d)

7 hours

361.

What is the maximum time food can stay in the large intestine?

a)

12 hours

b)

18 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

48 hours

362.

Approximately how much peanut butter do Americans consume annually?

a)

700 thousand pounds

b)

700 million pounds

c)

7 million pounds

d)

7 billion pounds

363.

How much chocolate do Americans eat each year?

a)

2 million pounds

b)

20 million pounds

c)

200 million pounds

d)

2 billion pounds

364.

How much weight can the human digestive system handle in a lifetime?

a)

5 tons

b)

15 tons

c)

35 tons

d)

50 tons

365.

What is the primary function of the excretory system as mentioned in the text?

a)

To provide oxygen to the cells

b)

To prevent too much or too little water in the body

c)

To produce metabolic waste

d)

To absorb nutrients

366.

Which of the following is a waste product formed when protein is broken down in the liver?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Glucose

c)

Urea

d)

Hormones

367.

What is carbon dioxide described as in the text?

a)

A nutrient needed by the body

b)

A type of protein

c)

A by-product of cellular respiration

d)

A component of the excretory system

368.

According to the image, which organ is not part of the excretory system?

a)

Kidney

b)

Bladder

c)

Heart

d)

Ureter

369.

What is the role of the organs in the excretory system?

a)

To absorb nutrients and water

b)

To remove harmful metabolic waste products from the blood

c)

To produce metabolic waste

d)

To circulate blood in the body

370.

What is the primary function of the kidneys in the excretory system?

a)

To produce blood

b)

To eliminate urea and other waste materials

c)

To transport oxygen

d)

To absorb nutrients

371.

How many kidneys does a human typically have?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

372.

What do the ureters connect to in the excretory system?

a)

Kidney to liver

b)

Kidney to bladder

c)

Bladder to urethra

d)

Heart to kidney

373.

What is urine primarily composed of?

a)

Blood cells and oxygen

b)

Nutrients and minerals

c)

Excess water and waste products

d)

Carbon dioxide and salts

374.

What is the approximate size of each kidney?

a)

The size of a pea

b)

The size of a grape

c)

The size of your fist

d)

The size of a football

375.

What is the function of the bladder in the human excretory system?

a)

To filter blood

b)

To collect and store urine before it is excreted

c)

To absorb nutrients

d)

To produce urine

376.

What is the urethra?

a)

A muscle that aids in digestion

b)

A tube that connects the kidney to the bladder

c)

A tube that connects the bladder to the outside of the human body

d)

A type of cell that transports oxygen

377.

Which organ is also known as the urinary bladder to distinguish it from another similarly named organ?

a)

Kidney

b)

Heart

c)

Bladder

d)

Liver

378.

What is the primary function of the kidneys in the excretory system?

a)

To transport oxygen to different parts of the body

b)

To filter blood and remove unwanted substances

c)

To absorb nutrients from digested food

d)

To produce hormones that regulate blood pressure

379.

What happens during the absorption process in the excretory system?

a)

Blood cells are created

b)

Nutrients are absorbed from the food in the intestines

c)

Substances needed by the body are reabsorbed into the blood

d)

Oxygen is absorbed into the bloodstream

380.

What is diffusion in the context of the excretory system?

a)

The process of filtering blood through the kidneys

b)

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration

c)

The exchange of gases in the lungs

d)

The absorption of water in the large intestine

381.

What is the role of nephrons in the kidneys?

a)

To pump blood throughout the body

b)

To carry oxygen to tissues

c)

To remove wastes from blood and produce urine

d)

To absorb nutrients from digested food

382.

What occurs during the excretion process in the excretory system?

a)

Blood is pumped to the heart

b)

Urine is stored in the bladder and then expelled from the body

c)

Nutrients are absorbed into the bloodstream

d)

Oxygen is delivered to the cells

383.

Which digestive organ STORES/SECRETES bile produced by the liver?

a)

kidneys

b)

intestines

c)

stomach

d)

gall bladder

384.
What happens when the food goes to the small intestine?
a)
nutrients gets into the blood
b)
the food keeps on going
c)
nothing
385.
Chewing food is an example of _____________.
a)
chemical digestion
b)
mechanical digestion
386.
What type of tissue SIGNALS the intestines to move food along?
a)
Nervous Tissue
b)
Blood Tissue
c)
Smooth muscle tissue
d)
Skeletal Muscle Tissue
387.
The physical breakdown of food.
a)
mechanical digestion
b)
elimination
c)
chemical digestion
d)
absorption
388.

Which part of the digestive system absorbs most of the nutrients from digested food?

a)

Stomach

b)

Large intestine

c)

Small intestine

d)

Liver

389.
Where does MOST digestion occur?
a)
stomach
b)
large intestine
c)
small intestine
d)
gall bladder
390.

What is the term for the muscle contraction that moves food through the digestive system?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Peristalsis

c)

Diffusion

d)

Respiration

391.

Identify the small intestine in the diagram

A
B
C
D
E
F
392.

Identify the stomach in the diagram

A
B
C
D
E
F
393.

The ​ (a)   system consists of a group of organs that help break down food into nutrients and simpler substances. The ​ (b)   system helps transport these nutrients and substances throughout the body, and into the cells.

Choose from the below words
digestive
circulatory
endocrine
respiratory
394.
Enzymes (chemicals) in your saliva help break down food while chewing.  This is...
a)
Mechanical digestion
b)
Chemical digestion
395.
Food is broken down to supply energy for your body in the ____________
a)
digestive system
b)
endocrine system
c)
excretory system
d)
reproductive system
396.

Hydrochloric acid is secreted in the _______________ .

a)

oesophagus

b)

stomach

c)

large intestine

d)

small intestine

397.
Your large and small intestines are part of this body system.
a)
nervous
b)
digestive
c)
muscular
d)
skeletal
398.
Peristalsis refers to
a)
one of the digestive organs
b)
the action of the stomach
c)
heart rate increasing
d)
smooth muscles moving food through the digestive system
399.
Food being broken down by enzymes found in saliva is an example of
a)
chemical digestion
b)
physical digestion
400.

Once you consume food and you have chewed it and mixed it with your saliva containing enzymes to begin the breakdown, where does it go next?

a)

esophagus

b)

small intestine and add bile from gallbladder

c)

large intestine to remove water

d)

exit the rectum and anus

401.

The human body is made up of many cells. Certain cells perform specific functions within each human body system.

Find the human body system that changes food into nutrients the body can use.

a)

b)

c)

402.

What is the primary function of the major systems of the human body as described in the learning material?

a)

To perform individual tasks without interacting

b)

To maintain homeostasis

c)

To provide energy to the body

d)

To regulate body temperature only

403.

What is one of the functions of the cardiovascular system?

a)

To produce blood cells

b)

To carry food, water, oxygen, and other needed substances to the body's cells

c)

To regulate body temperature

d)

To control muscle contractions

404.

What is another function of the cardiovascular system?

a)

To synthesize vitamins

b)

To digest food

c)

To carry waste products away from the body's cells

d)

To send nerve signals to the brain

405.

What is the function of the right atrium in the circulatory system?

a)

It pumps oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body.

b)

It receives oxygen-poor blood from the body and pumps it into the right ventricle.

c)

It pumps oxygen-rich blood into the left ventricle.

d)

It prevents blood from flowing backward.

406.

What does the left ventricle do?

a)

It receives oxygen-poor blood from the body.

b)

It pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.

c)

It pumps oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body via the aorta.

d)

It prevents blood from mixing with oxygen-poor blood.

407.

What is the role of the septum in the heart?

a)

It sends a signal that makes heart muscle cells contract.

b)

It pumps blood throughout the body.

c)

It is a flap of tissue that prevents blood from flowing backward.

d)

It separates the left side of the heart from the right side and prevents oxygen-rich blood from mixing with oxygen-poor blood.

408.

What is the function of the pacemaker in the heart?

a)

It is a group of cells in the right atrium that send a signal that makes heart muscle cells contract, making the heart beat.

b)

It receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs.

c)

It pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.

d)

It is a flap of tissue that prevents blood from flowing backward.

409.

What is the purpose of the valve in the circulatory system?

a)

It pumps blood throughout the body.

b)

It separates the left side of the heart from the right side.

c)

It is a flap of tissue that prevents blood from flowing backward.

d)

It sends a signal that makes heart muscle cells contract.

410.

What is the function of arteries in the circulatory system?

a)

To carry blood away from the heart

b)

To carry blood back to the heart

c)

To exchange substances between blood and body cells

d)

To prevent blood from flowing backward

411.

What are capillaries?

a)

The largest artery in the body

b)

Blood vessels that carry oxygen-poor blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs

c)

Tiny vessels where substances are exchanged between the blood and body cells

d)

A major vein that carries blood from the lower body to the heart

412.

Which vessel is known as the largest artery in the body?

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Aorta

c)

Superior Vena Cava

d)

Inferior Vena Cava

413.

What is the role of the pulmonary veins in the circulatory system?

a)

They carry oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart

b)

They carry oxygen-poor blood from the heart to the lungs

c)

They carry blood away from the heart

d)

They exchange substances between blood and body cells

414.

What is the function of the valve in the circulatory system?

a)

To exchange substances between blood and body cells

b)

To carry blood back to the heart

c)

To carry blood away from the heart

d)

To prevent blood from flowing backward

415.

What is the function of plasma in the blood?

a)

It is a type of white blood cell.

b)

It is responsible for carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide.

c)

It is the liquid part of the blood, composed mostly of water.

d)

It plays an important role in forming blood clots.

416.

What is the primary role of red blood cells (RBC)?

a)

They fight against infectious diseases.

b)

They are involved in protecting the body against foreign invaders.

c)

They carry oxygen to other cells in the body.

d)

They play an important role in forming blood clots.

417.

What is hemoglobin?

a)

A type of white blood cell.

b)

A cell fragment that plays an important role in forming blood clots.

c)

A protein that binds chemically to oxygen which colors our blood red.

d)

A type of RBC responsible for carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide.

418.

What are leukocytes commonly known as?

a)

Platelets.

b)

Erythrocytes.

c)

Red blood cells.

d)

White blood cells.

419.

What is the role of platelets in the circulatory system?

a)

They are involved in protecting the body against foreign invaders.

b)

They are responsible for carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide.

c)

They are the liquid part of the blood.

d)

They play an important role in forming blood clots.

420.

Where is the heart situated in the body?

a)

Below the lungs

b)

Between the lungs, protected by the ribcage

c)

Above the lungs

d)

Outside the ribcage

421.

What is the function of the heart?

a)

To digest food

b)

To pump blood to the lungs and to the rest of the body

c)

To filter blood

d)

To store oxygen

422.

What does the heart do with the oxygenated blood?

a)

The heart stores the oxygenated blood

b)

The heart pumps the oxygenated blood to the rest of the body

c)

The heart sends the oxygenated blood back to the lungs

d)

The heart cools down the oxygenated blood

423.

What is the function of the right atrium in the heart?

a)

It pumps blood into the aorta

b)

It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs

c)

It receives deoxygenated blood from the body

d)

It pumps blood to the lungs

424.

Through which valve does blood flow after leaving the right ventricle?

a)

Aortic valve

b)

Pulmonic valve

c)

Mitral valve

d)

Tricuspid valve

425.

Where does the blood travel after passing through the left pulmonary veins?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Left atrium

c)

Right ventricle

d)

Left ventricle

426.

What is the role of the aorta in the circulatory system?

a)

It carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs

b)

It carries oxygenated blood to the body

c)

It receives blood from the pulmonary artery

d)

It collects blood from the pulmonary veins

427.

What is the function of arteries in the circulatory system?

a)

To carry oxygenated blood away from the heart

b)

To carry blood from the capillaries back to the heart

c)

To enable the exchange of oxygen with the body

d)

To re-oxygenate the blood in the lungs

428.

What role do capillaries play in the circulatory system?

a)

They carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs

b)

They enable the exchange of oxygen with the body

c)

They pump blood through the heart

d)

They carry oxygenated blood away from the heart

429.

What is the primary function of veins in the circulatory system?

a)

To carry blood from the capillaries back to the heart to be pumped to the lungs

b)

To carry oxygenated blood away from the heart

c)

To enable the exchange of oxygen with the body

d)

To re-oxygenate the blood in the lungs

430.

How many times does the human heart beat in one day?

a)

About 10,000 times

b)

About 35 million times

c)

About 100,000 times

d)

About 2.5 billion times

431.

Approximately how many times will the human heart beat during an average lifetime?

a)

About 100,000 times

b)

About 35 million times

c)

About 2.5 million times

d)

More than 2.5 billion times

432.

How much force does the heart use to pump blood compared to giving a tennis ball a good, hard squeeze?

a)

Less force than squeezing a tennis ball

b)

The same amount of force as squeezing a tennis ball

c)

Twice the amount of force as squeezing a tennis ball

d)

No force is used to pump blood

433.

Compared to the leg muscles of a person sprinting, how hard do the heart muscles work even at rest?

a)

Half as hard

b)

The same

c)

Twice as hard

d)

Not at all

434.

What is the range of a resting pulse for a child?

a)

50 to 70

b)

90 to 120

c)

60 to 100

d)

70 to 110

435.
Energy can be created.
a)
True
b)
False
436.
Energy cannot be destroyed.
a)
True 
b)
False
437.
The Law of Conservation of Energy states:
a)
Energy can created or destroyed but not transformed 
b)
Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it can only transformed
c)
Energy can't be created, destroyed or transformed
438.
According to the Law of Conservation of energy, the amount of energy before and after a reaction must be the same. Which statement below is true?
a)
The total amount of energy is conserved
b)
The total amount of energy is less after a reaction
c)
The total amount of energy is more after a reaction
439.

The Law of Conservation of Energy states:

a)

Energy can created or destroyed but not transformed

b)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it can only transformed from one form to another form

c)

Energy can't be created, destroyed or transformed

d)

All the above

440.

Energy can not be created nor destroyed.

a)

Newton's Laws of Motion

b)

Big Bang Theory

c)

The Law of Conservation of Momentum

d)

The Law of Conservation of Energy

441.

The Law of Conservation of Energy is also known as:

a)

First Law of Thermodynamics

b)

Second Law of Thermodynamics

c)

Third Law of Thermodynamics

d)

None of the above

442.
When you plug in an iron, electrical energy is transformed into ______ energy
a)
sound
b)
mechanical
c)
thermal (heat)
d)
radiant
443.
When a construction worker hits a hammer into plank of wood, the mechanical energy from the hit becomes _____ energy
a)
radiant
b)
electical
c)
heat and sound
d)
chemical
444.
After using a flashlight on an overnight sleeping trip the flashlight stops working. Why?
a)
 You forgot to charge the flashlight.
b)
The electrical circuit in the flashlight was broken
c)
The bulb received too much energy from the  battery
d)
All of the energy from the battery was transformed into light and heat
445.

Which type of energy has to do with objects in motion?

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

446.

Which of these has the most potential energy.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

447.

If a football player wants to become better at tackling by increasing his or her kinetic energy, how can the player do this?

a)

Increase his/her height

b)

Increase his/her speed

c)

Increase his/her mass

d)

Decrease his/her speed

448.
What type of energy is in this picture?
a)
Kinetic
b)
Potential
c)
Chemical
d)
Sound
449.
On a roller coaster, where is maximum potential energy?
a)
At the bottom of a big hill
b)
When going around a corner
c)
When going upside down
d)
At the top of a big hill
450.
On a roller coaster, where is maximum kinetic energy?
a)
At the bottom of a big hill
b)
When going around a corner
c)
When going upside down
d)
At the top of a big hill
451.
A baseball held by a pitcher has _____________energy.
a)
Kinetic
b)
Chemical 
c)
Potential
d)
Thermal
452.
At what position does the rock have the greatest kinetic energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
D
d)
E
453.
Wood, batteries, gasoline, and  food are all examples of ________________________.
a)
gravitational potential energy
b)
elastic potential energy
c)
chemical potential energy
d)
None of the above
454.
The faster an object moves, the ________ kinetic energy it has. 
a)
more
b)
less
c)
none of the above
d)
all of the above 
455.

When you compress a spring, you are storing __________ energy.

a)

sound

b)

elastic

c)

light

d)

chemical

456.
What kind of energy is in a moving skateboard?
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
457.
Energy due to motion is ____________ energy. 
a)
Potential 
b)
Energy
c)
Kinetic
d)
Friction
458.
__________ is stored energy. 
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
c)
None of the above 
d)
All of the above 
459.
Gravitational potential energy depends on the ________ and ________ of the object. 
a)
Height and mass
b)
Friction and movement
c)
Mass and Movement
d)
Height and Friction 
460.
Energy can not be created or destroyed, only converted from one form to another.
a)
true
b)
false
461.
Explain what happens to the potential energy of a rock as it falls off the side of a cliff.
a)
The kinetic energy decreases as the potential energy increases.
b)
The kinetic energy decreases as the potential energy decreases.
c)
The potential energy decreases as the kinetic energy increases.
d)
The potential energy decreases as the kinetic energy decreases. 
462.
When riding a roller coaster, you go up and down many hills. As you get to the top of a roller coaster, what energy change is taking place.
a)
Potential energy is changed into kinetic energy.
b)
Kinetic energy is changed into potential energy.
c)
Chemical energy is changed into heat energy.
d)
Heat energy is changed into chemical energy. 
463.

Which passenger has the most potential energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

464.

The formula for calculating the gravitational potential energy in an object is shown above. Which object will have the largest value for its GPE

a)
b)
c)
d)
465.

If these are all moving at the same speed, the vehicle with the greatest KE would be

(Think about their sizes)

a)
b)
c)
d)
466.

Determine whether the following example is Potential Energy (PE) or Kinetic Energy (KE):


flashlight turned off

a)

Potential Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

467.
a)
Potential Energy
b)
Kinetic Energy
468.

Which systems interact with each other to move the arm?

a)

Nervous

b)

Skeletal

c)

Muscular

d)

All of the above

469.

The brain can be thought of as the "nucleus" and is part of which body system?

a)

Excretory

b)

Skeletal

c)

Nervous

d)

Circulatory

470.

The peripheral nervous system consists of...

a)

The brain and spinal cord

b)

The heart and blood vessels

c)

The brain and blood vessels

d)

A network of nerves

471.

Which of the following attaches MUSCLES to Bone?

a)

Tendon

b)

Ligament

c)

Cartilage

d)

Fascia

472.

The central nervous system consists of...

a)

Network of nerves

b)

Brain and spinal cord

c)

Brain and network of nerves

d)

Network of nerves and spinal cord

473.

In order to maintain homeostasis, the systems of the human body work together to keep a constant internal temperature. which of the following best describes how the human body responds in a cold environment?

a)

The nervous system signals the muscles of the muscular system to contract and warm the body.

b)

The skeletal system produces more blood cells that circulate through he body vessels, increasing the warmth of the body.

c)

The digestive system produces more hormones to warm the body.

d)

The circulatory system delivers less carbon dioxide to the muscular system, resulting in stiffening of the muscles.

474.

The interaction of the skeletal and muscular systems to produce movement is coordinated by which human body system?

a)

Respiratory

b)

Circulatory

c)

Nervous

d)

Excretory

475.

Organ systems work together to meet the needs of the human body. How is the skeletal system related to the nervous system?

a)

The brain determines how the skeleton develops.

b)

The brain and spinal cord hold the skeleton together.

c)

The skeletal system works as part of the nervous system.

d)

The skeleton protects the brain and spinal cord.

476.

Which of the following is an example of voluntary muscle action?

a)

pupils dilating in reaction to light

b)

the heart pumping blood through the body

c)

fingers typing on a keyboard

d)

the stomach moving food to the intestines.

477.

Which phrase defines the term homeostasis?

a)

removal of waste materials produced by the cells of the body.

b)

division of cells that make up the body.

c)

maintenance of a stable environment inside the body.

d)

regulation of the environment outside the body.

478.

Which body system receives stimuli from inside and outside of the body and communicates a response to all of the body's systems?

a)

Respiratory System

b)

Nervous System

c)

Musculoskeletal System

d)

Excretory System

479.

What parts of the body belong to the peripheral nervous system?

a)

brain, spinal cord, and nerves

b)

brain and spinal cord

c)

spinal cord and nerves in the arms/legs

d)

all of the nerves in the arms/legs

480.

Part of the musculoskeletal system is the skeleton. There are 206 bones in an adult human skeleton. Any place where two bones meet is called a ________. There are some that can rotate in a circle, some that can open and close, and some that do not move at all.

a)

ligament

b)

joint

c)

tendon

d)

socket

481.

A soccer player has been taken to the hospital with a painful injury. The doctor explains that she has ripped the place in her ankle where the bone was attached to the muscle. Bones cannot move without muscles. What did the soccer player rip?

a)

joint

b)

ligament

c)

socket

d)

tendon

482.

What type of voluntary muscle is attached to bones and provides the force needed to move the bones?

a)

skeletal muscle

b)

smooth muscle

c)

cardiac muscle

483.

Some bones make blood to replace the blood cells that die as they age. What two systems are working closely together?

a)

musculoskeletal and circulatory system

b)

musculoskeletal system and respiratory system

c)

nervous and musculoskeletal systems

d)

circulatory and nervous system

484.

The brain controls the breakdown of food. It also controls the movement of food through the tubes using smooth muscles. What three systems are working togehter?

a)

circulatory, respiratory, and nervous systems

b)

nervous, musculoskeletal and respiratory system

c)

excretory, digestive and nervous system

d)

nervous, digestive, and musculoskeletal systems.

485.

Movement that you can't control and can be a reflex are called

a)

Unconscious

b)

Involuntary

c)

Voluntary

d)

Carefully thought out

486.

What are the eyes, ears, nose and tongue?

a)

Special organs

b)

Motor organs

c)

Big organs

d)

Sensory organs

487.

What are the three types of muscles (select all that apply)

a)

Smooth

b)

Skeletal

c)

Cardiac

d)

Cartilage

488.

What type of muscles makes up your internal organs?

a)

Smooth

b)

Skeletal

c)

Cardiac

489.

How do you know that bone is made up of living tissue?

a)

I know bone is alive because it forms new bone tissue as I grow

b)

I know bone is alive because I grew, bone tissue replaced most of my cartilage with the bones I have now

c)

I know bone is alive because even when I am fully grown, bones

d)

All of the above

490.

All parts of your nervous system contain ________. These are the tiny cells that quickly pass along signals to and from your brain through your nervous system.

a)

photons

b)

protons

c)

neurons

d)

electrons

491.

What is the most complex structure?

a)

Tissue

b)

Organ

c)

Organ System

d)

Cell

492.

Reorder the following from simplest to most complex.

a)

Organelle

b)

Cell

c)

Tissue

d)

Organ

e)

Organ System

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
493.

The smallest unit of all organisms are _____.

a)

cells

b)

tissues

c)

organs

494.

Groups of tissues form ______________.

a)

cells

b)

tissues

c)

organs

495.

In order to maintain homeostasis, the systems of the human body work together to keep a constant internal temperature. which of the following best describes how the human body responds in a cold environment?

a)

The nervous system signals the muscles of the muscular system to contract and warm the body.

b)

The skeletal system produces more blood cells that circulate through he body vessels, increasing the warmth of the body.

c)

The digestive system produces more hormones to warm the body.

d)

The circulatory system delivers less carbon dioxide to the muscular system, resulting in stiffening of the muscles.

496.

What is an example of the musculoskeletal system and the nervous system interacting to maintain homeostasis?

a)

the brain sending a message to move a muscle.

b)

the skull providing nutrients for brain growth and repair.

c)

the leg muscle providing energy to the brain.

d)

the skull providing nutrients for brain growth and repair.

497.

Which part of the skeletal system protects the heart and lungs?

a)

cranium/skull

b)

pelvis

c)

scapula

d)

ribs

498.

The skeletal system has several jobs. Select one of the following that describe its jobs.

a)

send messages between the brain and the body

b)

makes red blood cells and stores minerals

c)

creates hormones

d)

carries blood through out the body

499.
The spinal cord is part of the ____ nervous system.
a)
Central
b)
Peripheral
500.

The nerves in your fingertips are part of the ___ nervous system

a)

central

b)

peripheral

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