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Semester 2 Final Review

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a method to permanently charge an object electrically?

a)

Charging by Friction

b)

Charging by Polarization

c)

Charging by Repetition

d)

Charging by Conservation

2.

A positively charged wand is charged and touched to the bulb of an electroscope, giving the electroscope a positive charge. What type of charging technique was used?

a)

Polarization

b)

Induction

c)

Conduction

d)

Friction

3.

A negatively charged wand is held near (but not touching) the bulb of an electroscope. Meanwhile, you ground the electroscope with your hand. The electroscope should become ______ once you remove the rod and your hand.

a)

Polarized

b)

Negatively charged

c)

Positively charged

d)

Neutral

4.

In a good electrical insulator, electrons are usually ______.

a)

tightly bound to their atoms

b)

fulfilling the octet rule

c)

not moving at all

d)

free to move around

5.

Conservation of charge means that ______.

a)

electrons by themselves can be destroyed

b)

you can give something a charge without taking it from somewhere else

c)

Through friction if one object receives a +3 charge, the other object has a -3 charge

d)

the net charge would have a different magnitude after an interaction.

6.

Like charges ______ while unlike charges ______.

a)

repel, attract

b)

attract, repel

c)

stick together, attract

d)

repel, stick together

7.

You rub a balloon against your hair. If the balloon ends up with a net charge of +7 coulombs, what net charge does your hair have?

a)

+7 C

b)

-7 C

c)

-1.6x10^-19

d)

Neutral

8.

The earth orbits the sun once every 365.25 days. What keeps the earth from falling into the sun?

a)

The earth is in space and does not experience gravity, so it does not fall into the sun

b)

The earth is being repelled by the sun so it stays in the orbit

c)

The earth is falling to the sun but it has orbital velocity which keeps it from hitting the sun.

d)

The sun’s mass keeps the earth from falling into it.

9.

Which force is responsible for keeping the planets in their orbits?

a)

Gravitational force

b)

Force of friction

c)

Force of acceleration

d)

Inertial force

10.

If the gravity of Earth could suddenly disappear, which of the following paths would Satellite A take as a result?

a)

Path A

b)

Path B

c)

Path C

d)

Path D

11.

The force of gravitation between two bodies in the universe depends on ________.

a)

The distance between them

b)

Multiplying their masses

c)

Adding their masses

d)

Both A and B

12.

The following planets are ordered in terms of increasing mass: Mercury, Mars, Venus, Jupiter. Which planet would take a rocket the least amount of energy to leave its surface?

a)

Mercury

b)

Mars

c)

Venus

d)

Jupiter

13.

Refer to the diagram provided. In an elliptical orbit around the Earth, at which point is the force of gravity on the satellite the smallest?

a)

Point A

b)

Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point D

14.

Based on the diagram, where is the potential energy of the satellite the least?

a)

Point A

b)

Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point D

15.

Considering the satellite's elliptical orbit shown in the diagram, at which point is the velocity of the satellite the least?

a)

Point A

b)

Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point D

16.

For a satellite orbiting the Earth, which statement is true when considering an elliptical orbit?

a)

Potential energy is changing

b)

Kinetic energy is constant

c)

Total energy is constant

d)

Gravity is keeping the satellite in orbit

17.

When observing the motion of a satellite in an elliptical orbit, which of the following is true regarding its speed?

a)

Speed is constant

b)

Speed is changing

c)

The distance is constant between the Earth and the satellite

d)

Gravity has no effect on the satellite

18.

Which statement accurately describes the relationship between the satellite and the Earth in an elliptical orbit?

a)

The distance between the Earth and the satellite is constant

b)

Kinetic energy is constant

c)

Gravity is keeping the satellite in orbit

d)

Total energy is changing

19.

Electromagnetic waves are _______.

a)

transverse waves

b)

standing waves

c)

longitudinal waves

d)

mechanical waves

20.

If you dip your finger more frequently into water to make waves, the wavelength of the waves _______.

a)

gets larger

b)

stays the same

c)

gets shorter

d)

becomes unpredictable

21.

An observer on the ground hears a sonic boom which is created by an airplane flying at a speed _______.

a)

just below the speed of sound

b)

greater than the speed of sound

c)

equal to the speed of sound

d)

none of the above

22.

The Doppler Effect describes when you would observe the source moving away from you only when _______.

a)

Only when the source moves away from you

b)

Only when the source moves toward you

c)

When the source moves away or toward you

d)

The Doppler Effect has nothing to do with the motion of the source

23.

The time needed for a wave to make one complete cycle is its _______.

a)

period

b)

frequency

c)

wavelength

d)

amplitude

24.

The distance between successive identical parts of a wave is called its _______.

a)

frequency

b)

period

c)

wavelength

d)

amplitude

25.

Which wave vibrates perpendicular to the direction in which the wave travels?

a)

Longitudinal wave

b)

Transverse wave

c)

Standing wave

d)

Sound wave

26.

The source of nearly all wave motion is a _______.

a)

movement of matter.

b)

harmonic object.

c)

Vibrating object

d)

region of variable high and low pressure

27.

Sound waves cannot travel in ______.

a)

solid

b)

air

c)

the vacuum of space

d)

water

28.

The singer Caruso is said to have made a crystal chandelier shatter with his voice. This is a demonstration of ______.

a)

resonance

b)

beats

c)

interference

d)

an echo

29.

An echo occurs when sound ______.

a)

is transmitted through a surface

b)

is reflected from a distant surface

c)

changes speed when it strikes a distant surface

d)

out of tune

30.

The pitch of a sound depends on the sound wave’s ______.

a)

amplitude

b)

frequency

c)

speed

d)

friction

31.

The loudness of a sound depends on the sound wave’s ______.

a)

amplitude

b)

frequency

c)

speed

d)

friction

32.

Sound travels fastest in ______.

a)

Solids

b)

Liquids

c)

Gasses

d)

sound travels the same speed in all media

33.

If two Polaroid filters are held with their polarization axes at right angles to each other, how much light will be transmitted?

a)

twice as much

b)

the same

c)

half as much

d)

zero

34.

Which of the following models best describes transmission of light?

a)

Diagram a

b)

Diagram b

c)

Diagram c

d)

Diagram d

35.

Which of the following describes an umbra?

a)

a total shadow is formed where light rays cannot reach

b)

has a very clear border

c)

has a very fuzzy border

d)

both a & c

36.

Which of the following describes a penumbra?

a)

a total shadow is formed where light rays cannot reach

b)

has a very clear border

c)

has a very fuzzy border

d)

both a & c

37.

Complementary colors are colors that ______.

a)

look good together

b)

produce white light when added together

c)

are primary colors

d)

are next to each other on the color chart

38.

The three primary colors of light addition are ______.

a)

red, yellow, and green

b)

red, green, and blue

c)

yellow, green, and blue

d)

red, yellow, and blue

39.

The cyan color of ocean water is evidence that the water absorbs ______.

a)

green

b)

blue

c)

red

d)

yellow

40.

When blue light is added to red light, what color results?

a)

blue light

b)

magenta light

c)

red light

d)

cyan light

41.

A chemical or material which is used to selectively absorb certain frequencies of colored light is called a ______.

a)

spectrum

b)

lens

c)

mirror

d)

pigment

42.

The three colors used for color subtraction when printing with ink are ______.

a)

magenta, cyan, and yellow

b)

blue, cyan, and magenta

c)

red, blue, and green

d)

red, magenta, and yellow

43.

What are the primary colors of light in color addition?

a)

Red, Yellow, Blue

b)

Red, Green, Blue

c)

Yellow, Green, Cyan

d)

Cyan, Magenta, Yellow

44.

When red light is mixed with green light, what color is produced?

a)

Yellow

b)

Cyan

c)

Magenta

d)

Blue

45.

What color is produced by mixing blue and green light?

a)

Yellow

b)

Cyan

c)

Magenta

d)

Red

46.

The gravitational force exerted by an object depends on its

a)

volume

b)

mass

c)

weight

47.

The gravitational force exerted by an object depends on its

a)

volume

b)

mass

c)

weight

48.
What is the force applied to all objects on Earth?
a)
Earthquakes
b)
Gravity
49.
What happens to the force of gravity if the mass of one of the objects is doubled?
a)
The force of gravity doubles
b)
The force of gravity is tripled
c)
The force of gravity is halved
d)
The force of gravity increases 4 times
50.
The path a planet travels around the sun is called its 
a)
orbit
b)
ellipse
c)
barycenter
d)
precession
51.
Force of gravity is directly proportional to
a)
Mass
b)
Weight
c)
Distance
d)
Time
52.

If I double the distance between two objects, what happens to their gravitational Force?

a)

4x bigger

b)

1/4

c)

2x bigger

d)

1/2

53.
If I double the mass of one object, but don't change anything else... WHat happens to the gravitational force between two objects?
a)
Doubles
b)
Quadruples
c)
Cut in Half
d)
4x Smaller
54.
What happens to Gravitational force if I double both of the masses but don't change their distance?
a)
doubles
b)
half as big
c)
4x bigger
d)
4x smaller
55.
Complete the following statement: The farther away two planets are the _______ the gravitational force between them.
a)
more
b)
same
c)
dosen't matter
d)
less
56.

How is the gravitational force between to objects related to their mass

a)

They are directly proportional

b)

They are inversely proportional

c)

They do not affect each other

d)

They are equal

57.

If the distance between 2 masses is increased then the force of gravitation between them will...

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

58.

If the mass of either m1 or m2 is increased then the force of gravitation between them will...

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

59.

The planets in our solar system all have ______________ orbits.

a)

spherical

b)

elliptical

c)

circular

d)

highly eccentric

60.

Where does the planet have the most velocity?

a)

Position A

b)

Position B

c)

Position G

d)

Position I

61.
A planet moves __________ when it is farthest from the sun.
a)
faster
b)
slower
62.
How does changing the distance between objects affect the force of gravity?
a)
Decreasing distance increases gravity
b)
increasing distance increases gravity 
c)
Distance does not affect gravity
63.

What would cause all of the planets to continue moving in a straight line based on their velocity (direction and speed)?

a)

the sun disappearing

b)

the sun's mass increasing

c)

the distance between the planets and the sun decreasing

d)

the distance between the planets and the sun increasing

64.

Kinetic Energy is constant.

Circular, Elliptical, or Both?

a)

Circular

b)

Elliptical

c)

Both

65.

Velocity changes throughout the orbit.

Circular, Elliptical, or Both?

a)

Circular

b)

Elliptical

c)

Both

66.

Total Energy is constant throughout the orbit.

Circular, Elliptical, or Both?

a)

Circular

b)

Elliptical

c)

Both

67.

Gravity is keeping the planet in orbit.

Circular, Elliptical, or Both?

a)

Circular

b)

Elliptical

c)

Both

68.

Potential Energy changes throughout the orbit.

Circular, Elliptical, or Both?

a)

Circular

b)

Elliptical

c)

Both

69.

Where does the planet have the most Potential Energy?

a)

Position A

b)

Position B

c)

Position G

d)

Position I

70.

Which wave has the longest wavelength?

a)

Radio waves

b)

Infrared

c)

Ultraviolet

d)

X-Rays

71.

Which waves have the highest frequency?

a)

Microwaves

b)

Radio waves

c)

Visible light

d)

Gamma rays

72.

True or False: Most of the EM Spectrum is visible to humans.

a)

False

b)

True

73.

True or False: Light acts both as a wave and a particle.

a)

False

b)

True

74.

What is the speed of light?

a)

100,000,000 m/s

b)

300,000,000m/s

c)

100,000,000mph

d)

100,000,000kph

75.

Why do some objects look white?

a)

They reflect all wavelengths of visible light

b)

Only white light hits the object

c)

They relect white wavelengths of visible light

d)

They absorb all wavelengths of visible light

76.
Select the correct order of waves on the EMS 
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
77.
All waves carry
a)
energy
b)
light 
c)
matter
d)
particles
78.

When an object gains electrons it becomes __________

a)

Neutral

b)

Positively charged

c)

Negatively charged

79.

An atom of oxygen has 8 protons and 10 electrons, this means the atom is ____________

a)

positively charged because it has excess electrons

b)

negatively charged because it has excess electrons

c)

positively charged because it has a deficiency of electrons

d)

negatively charged because it has a deficiency of electrons

80.

After a balloon is rubbed against wool, the two objects will ________ each other because they have ___________ charges

a)

attract; like

b)

attract, opposite

c)

repel; like

d)

repel; opposite

81.

Which statement is true of a positively charged object?

a)

Positively charged objects do not contain any electrons.

b)

Positively charged objects do not contain neutrons or electrons.

c)

There is a lack of electrons on a positively charged object.

d)

The protons and the electrons are both positively charged on such objects.

82.

When two objects are rubbed together, there is a transfer of electrons. How do you determine which object acquires the transferred electrons?

a)

Always transfer from the bigger to the smaller object, to make it even

b)

Transfer is based on the initial charge of the two objects

c)

Transfer is based on how much electron affinity that each object has

d)

Always transfer from the more negative to the more positive object

83.

What is the end result of charging by contact?

a)

Both object have the same charge, so they will attract one another

b)

Both object have the same charge, so they will repel one another

c)

Both object have the opposite charge, so they will attract one another

d)

Both object have the opposite charge, so they will repel one another

84.

What method of static charging is shown in this picture

a)

Contact

b)

Friction

c)

Grounding

d)

Electron Shifting

85.

Which image shows a neutral conductive pith ball after a positively charged balloon is brought near the left side, but doesn't touch?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

86.

When a charged object contacts another object (one is usually a conductor), there is a transfer of electrons. How do you determine which object acquires the transferred electrons?

a)

Always transfer from the bigger to the smaller object, to make it even

b)

Transfer is based on the initial charge of the two objects

c)

Transfer is based on how much electron affinity that each object has

d)

Always transfer from the more negative to the more positive object

87.

Which electrostatics phenomena is shown in this picture?

a)

Contact

b)

Friction

c)

Grounding

d)

Electron Shifting

88.

Why does the child's hair stick up?

a)

The boy is grounded since he's at the bottom of the slide

b)

He gained a charge from the slide, and since he's not grounded, his hairs have the same charge so they repel one another

c)

He gained a charge from the slide, and since he's not grounded, his hairs have opposite charges so they repel one another

d)

When hair is neutral, some have a positive side and some have negative side, so they will attract to each other, making it stand up

89.

What is the end result of charging by friction?

a)

Both object have the same charge, so they will attract one another

b)

Both object have the same charge, so they will repel one another

c)

Both object have the opposite charge, so they will attract one another

d)

Both object have the opposite charge, so they will repel one another

90.

After grounding, how will objects interact?

a)

Both will have the same charge, so they attract one another

b)

Both will be neutral, so they will attract one another

c)

Botn will be neutral, so they will repel one another

d)

Both will be neutral, so they will not attract nor repel

91.

A balloon is rubbed against a student's hair and then touched to a wall. The balloon sticks to the wall due to

a)

The balloon is charged neutral, so is the wall, so it attracts to the wall

b)

The balloon is charged opposite the wall, so it attracts to the wall

c)

The balloon has a charge, so it attracts the neutral wall

d)

The wall grounds the balloon, so it sticks

92.
When a plastic rod is rubbed with wool, the wool acquires a positive charge because
a)
protons are transferred from the wool to the rod
b)
protons are transferred from the rod to the wool
c)
electrons are transferred from the rod to the wool
d)
electrons are transferred from the wool to the rod
93.

You rub a balloon against your hair. Excess electrons are now on your hair. If the balloon has a charge of +10C, what would be the charge of your hair?

a)

-5C

b)

+5C

c)

-10C

d)

+10C

94.

A negatively charged wand is brought and held near (but not touching) the bulb of an electroscope.  Meanwhile, you ground the electroscope with your hand. The electroscope is now charged. What type of charging technique did this demonstrate?

a)

Charging by Induction

b)

Charging by Friction

c)

Polarization

d)

Conduction

95.

A positive and negative charge are held near each other then released. As they move, the force on each particle should be ____________.

a)

Zero

b)

attract & increase

c)

repulse & decrease

d)

attract & decrease

96.

Total Energy is constant throughout the orbit.

Circular, Elliptical, or Both?

a)

Circular

b)

Elliptical

c)

Both

97.

What best describes a penumbra?

a)

The fuzzy border

b)

The clear border

c)

There is a no shadow

98.

The highest point on a transverse wave is the

a)

compression

b)

crest

c)

rest position

d)

trough

99.

#1 refers to the

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

crest

d)

trough

100.

#2 refers to the

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

crest

d)

trough

101.

#4 refers to the

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

crest

d)

trough

102.

An area of spread out particles (bottom red arrow) of a longitudinal wave is an area of ________________.

a)

rarefaction

b)

compression

c)

amplitude

103.

An area of bunched up particles (bottom blue arrow) in a longitudinal wave is an area of ________________ .

a)

rarefaction

b)

compression

c)

amplitude

104.
A period is
a)
Amount of time it takes a wavelength to complete one cycle.
b)
How many wave lengths happen in a second.
c)
An indication of the amount of energy in a wave.
d)
The distance between two crests or two troughs.
105.

The frequency of a wave is:

a)

the number of waves each second

b)

the number of seconds for each wave

c)

always 1 second

d)

the number of times the particles in the medium vibrate is some given time

106.

As the frequency increases, the wavelength

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

doesn't change

107.

The intensity of the sound depends on the

a)

wave speed

b)

amplitude

c)

frequency

d)

wavelength

108.

The pitch of the sound depends on the

a)

wave speed

b)

amplitude

c)

frequency

d)

wavelength

109.

If this changes, the speed of the wave changes

a)

frequency

b)

amplitude

c)

medium

d)

wavelength

110.

An echo occurs when

a)

two different frequencies occur together

b)

sound bounces off a rigid barrier

c)

sound changes medium

d)

you travel faster than the speed of sound

111.

How much more intense is 20dB than 0dB?

a)

20 times

b)

100 times

c)

10 times

d)

200 times

112.

Resonance occurs when

a)

an echo occurs

b)

a force causes any object to vibrate

c)

an object is forced to vibrate at its natural frequency

d)

the energy of the wave spreads out making the sound quieter

113.

Sound waves in air are made up of

a)

high and low pressure areas

b)

compressions and rarefactions

c)

higher and lower density areas of air particles

d)

all of these

114.

Sound travels fastest in

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

vacuum

115.

Transverse waves vibrate _______ to the direction of energy motion.

a)

parallel

b)

perpendicular

c)

counter clockwise

116.

Longitudinal waves vibrate _______ to the direction of energy motion.

a)

parallel

b)

perpendicular

c)

counter clockwise

117.

An object that has lost electrons.

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral