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Network Administration Midterm

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main objective of network administration?

a)

To conduct ethical research

b)

To design computer networks

c)

To develop new technologies

d)

To achieve continuous operation and optimal network infrastructure

2.

Which of the following is NOT a basic use or area of application as computer networks are concerned?

a)

Communication

b)

Data management

c)

Resource sharing

d)

Software development

3.

What is the purpose of DHCP in a network?

a)

To manage network file systems

b)

To secure data against theft

c)

To create infrastructure documentation

d)

To allow machines to receive IP dynamically

4.

Which of the following is a wide area network (WAN)?

a)

Local Area Network (LAN)

b)

Internet

c)

Personal Area Network (PAN)

d)

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

5.

What is the main responsibility of Performance Management in network administration?

a)

Detection and correction of abnormal functioning conditions

b)

Protection of the network against attacks

c)

Supervision and overall performance of the corporate network

d)

Configuration of hardware and software components

6.

What technical skill does a network administrator need to possess to resolve problems analytically?

a)

Flexibility to adapt to changes in technologies

b)

Human competences

c)

Capacity to focus on details

d)

Ability to work independently

7.

What is the main concern in the context of administrative activities for a network administrator?

a)

Continuous professional training

b)

Respect for privacy of users and corporate interests

c)

Hardware management

d)

Efficient resource allocation

8.

Which of the following is a code of conduct for network administrators as per ethics?

a)

Avoid integrity at all costs

b)

Maintain interactions at low professional standards

c)

Violate user rights

d)

Demonstrate professionalism in executing duties

9.

What is the main duty of a network administrator in terms of user management?

a)

Assign appropriate rights to users

b)

Establish and maintain infrastructure

c)

Create infrastructure documentation

d)

Installation and maintenance of network services

10.

What is the primary function of switches and hubs in a network?

a)

User management

b)

Hardware management

c)

Performance monitoring

d)

Backups

11.

What is the basic purpose of a router?

a)

Sending packets over the data network

b)

Running video conferencing software

c)

Connecting printers to computers

d)

Playing multimedia files

12.

Which component of a router stores the running copy of the configuration file and the routing table?

a)

Random access memory (RAM)

b)

Read-only memory (ROM)

c)

Flash memory

d)

Central Processing Unit (CPU)

13.

What command is used to view information about the router during the boot-up process?

a)

show interfaces

b)

show ip route

c)

show running-config

d)

show version

14.

Which type of interface is used to connect routers to external networks that interconnect LANs?

a)

WAN Interfaces

b)

LAN Interfaces

c)

Ethernet Interfaces

d)

Serial Interfaces

15.

What is the purpose of a routing table in a router?

a)

To determine the best path for packet forwarding

b)

To manage printer connections

c)

To store multimedia files

d)

To play video games

16.

Which metric is used by routing protocols to help determine the best path to a destination?

a)

Hop count

b)

Bandwidth

c)

Latency

d)

Packet loss

17.

What is the process used by a router to switch a packet from an incoming interface to an outgoing interface on the same router?

a)

Decoding Mechanism

b)

Encapsulation Process

c)

Routing Algorithm

d)

Switching Function

18.

Which field in the Internet Protocol (IP) packet format provides information about the sending and receiving hosts?

a)

IP header length

b)

Destination IP address

c)

Packet length

d)

Version & TTL

19.

When should static routes be used in a network?

a)

When network is connected to multiple ISPs

b)

When network uses dynamic routing exclusively

c)

When network has high traffic volume

d)

When network only consists of a few routers

20.

What is the purpose of the TTL field in an IP packet?

a)

To determine the source IP address

b)

To indicate the packet length

c)

To specify the type of service for the packet

d)

To prevent packets from endlessly traversing the network

21.

What is the general role of a router in networks?

a)

Forwarding packets to destination

b)

Managing switches

c)

Creating firewalls

d)

Generating IP addresses

22.

What command is used to view the routing table on a router?

a)

Show IP router

b)

Show IP address

c)

View Routing Table

d)

Display Routes

23.

Which type of cable is used to connect a switch to a router?

a)

Coaxial

b)

Fiber optic

c)

Straight through

d)

Twisted pair

24.

What is the purpose of the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)?

a)

Gather information about directly connected Cisco devices

b)

Encrypt network traffic

c)

Block malicious websites

d)

Monitor network bandwidth

25.

What is a static route used for?

a)

Manually configured route to a specific network

b)

Dynamic routing updates

c)

Wireless network setup

d)

Load balancing

26.

How can you configure a default static route?

a)

ip default-route [exit-interface | ip-address]

b)

default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 [exit-interface | ip-address]

c)

ip route default [exit-interface | ip-address]

d)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 [exit-interface | ip-address]

27.

What is the purpose of route summarization?

a)

Reduce the size of the routing table

b)

Enable multicast routing

c)

Increase network latency

d)

Improve network security

28.

Which command is used to troubleshoot routing problems by testing end-to-end connectivity?

a)

TestConnectivity

b)

Ping

c)

Trace

d)

CheckRoute

29.

What is the process of combining multiple static routes into a single static route called?

a)

Route summarization

b)

Route aggregation

c)

Path consolidation

d)

Network merging

30.

How can you verify that a static route has been entered correctly on a router?

a)

Show running-config

b)

Display routes

c)

Check connections

d)

Ping destination

31.

What is the default administrative distance of RIP?

a)

110

b)

100

c)

120

d)

90

32.

Which command is used to enable RIP routing process?

a)

router eigrp

b)

router bgp

c)

router rip

d)

router ospf

33.

What is the metric used by RIP?

a)

Hop Count

b)

Delay

c)

Bandwidth

d)

Load

34.

Which command is used to prevent RIP updates from going out an interface?

a)

default-information originate

b)

no ip routing

c)

show ip route

d)

passive-interface

35.

What is the purpose of the 'default-information originate' command in RIP?

a)

Propagate default routes

b)

Enable RIP routing process

c)

Prevent RIP updates

d)

Display real-time RIP updates

36.

Which type of routing protocol is RIP?

a)

Path Vector

b)

Distance Vector

c)

Hybrid

d)

Link State

37.

What is the frequency of RIP updates?

a)

60 seconds

b)

15 seconds

c)

30 seconds

d)

45 seconds

38.

What is the default port number used by RIP?

a)

520

b)

161

c)

123

d)

80

39.

Which command is used to associate a network with a RIP routing process?

a)

network

b)

ip address

c)

subnet mask

d)

routing table

40.

What is the disadvantage of automatic summarization in RIP?

a)

Faster lookup in routing table

b)

Supports discontiguous networks

c)

Does not support discontiguous networks

d)

Reduces routing table size

41.

What is the purpose of a dynamic routing protocol?

a)

To limit the number of routers in a network

b)

To increase network security

c)

To discover remote networks

d)

To manually update routing tables

42.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of static routing?

a)

Easy to configure

b)

Can backup multiple interfaces/networks on a router

c)

No extra resources are needed

d)

Automatically updates routing table

43.

How are dynamic routing protocols classified?

a)

By the type of data they transmit

b)

By the number of routers in a network

c)

By the physical location of routers

d)

By the characteristics they possess

44.

What is the purpose of a metric in routing protocols?

a)

To increase network security

b)

To encrypt routing information

c)

To determine the best path to a destination

d)

To limit the number of routers in a network

45.

What is the administrative distance of a route used for?

a)

To identify the number of hops in a route

b)

To determine the bandwidth of a network

c)

To specify the preference of a particular route

d)

To calculate the cost of a route

46.

Which type of routing protocol does not send subnet mask in routing updates?

a)

Link state routing protocols

b)

Classless routing protocols

c)

Distance vector routing protocols

d)

Classful routing protocols

47.

What is the purpose of convergence in routing protocols?

a)

To determine the best path to a destination

b)

To ensure all routers' routing tables are consistent

c)

To distribute packets among multiple paths

d)

To calculate the administrative distance of a route

48.

Which metric is used by OSPF and IS-IS routing protocols?

a)

Cost

b)

Delay

c)

Bandwidth

d)

Hop count

49.

What is the advantage of load balancing in routing protocols?

a)

Increases network security

b)

Limits the bandwidth usage

c)

Reduces the number of routers in a network

d)

Distributes packets among multiple paths

50.

What components are included in a routing table?

a)

Hop count, Load, Reliability

b)

Bandwidth, Cost, Delay

c)

IP address, Subnet mask, Gateway

d)

Route source, Administrative distance, Metric

51.

What are the characteristics of distance vector routing protocols?

a)

Link state, Triggered updates, Topology table

b)

Periodic updates, Neighbors, Broadcast updates

c)

Load balancing, VLSM, Route summarization

d)

Routing loops, Holddown timers, Split horizon

52.

Which routing protocol is an example of a distance vector protocol?

a)

OSPF

b)

RIP

c)

EIGRP

d)

BGP

53.

What is the meaning of 'Distance Vector' in routing protocols?

a)

The speed of data transmission

b)

The distance to the final destination

c)

The distance to the nearest router

d)

The number of routers in a network

54.

What is the purpose of the TTL field in an IP header?

a)

To prioritize certain packets over others

b)

To prevent packets from endlessly traveling on a network

c)

To encrypt the data packets

d)

To determine the type of data being transmitted

55.

Which routing protocol uses the Split Horizon rule to prevent routing loops?

a)

RIP

b)

OSPF

c)

BGP

d)

EIGRP

56.

What is the condition in which a packet is continuously transmitted within a series of routers without reaching its destination?

a)

Packet fragmentation

b)

Network congestion

c)

Routing loop

d)

Broadcast storm

57.

Which routing protocol is a Cisco proprietary protocol?

a)

OSPF

b)

RIP

c)

BGP

d)

EIGRP

58.

What is the purpose of holddown timers in routing protocols?

a)

To increase the speed of data transmission

b)

To prevent any changes to a route for a specified period of time

c)

To prioritize certain routes over others

d)

To establish neighbor adjacencies

59.

What is the main difference between RIPv1 and RIPv2?

a)

RIPv1 includes the entire routing table in updates, while RIPv2 does not

b)

RIPv1 uses triggered updates, while RIPv2 uses periodic updates

c)

RIPv1 supports VLSM, while RIPv2 does not

d)

RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol, while RIPv2 is a classful routing protocol

60.

What are the criteria used to compare routing protocols?

a)

Broadcast updates, Triggered updates, Holddown timers

b)

Topology changes, Route summarization, Load balancing

c)

Packet loss, Bandwidth consumption, CPU resources

d)

Time to convergence, Scalability, Resource usage

61.

(a)   refers to all the principles of conduct that should govern life in a group of people.

62.

(a)   is defined as a procedure for accomplishing a certain task.

63.

(a)   is reached when all network routers have the

same network information.

64.

Distance vector routing protocol is a vector, or (a)   , traffic should be directed.

65.

(a)   is a layer 2 proprietary protocol.

66.

(a)   is used to discover all of the hops along the path between 2 points.

67.

(a)   is the process of combining a number of static routes into a single static route.

68.

(a)   is the service provider.

69.

(a)   is a command used to configure a static route.

70.

RIP is a (a)   routing protocol.

71.

A command used to view real time RIP routing updates.

(a)  

72.

RIP characteristics, (a)   is included, which is hop counts.

73.

Class C address range (a)   .

74.

The (a)   is used to inform or warn users about the switch.

75.

(a)   command is used to view a routing table.