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cisco b1 ch 3-8, 11

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The process of converting information into the proper form for transmission

a)

Formatting

b)

Encoding

c)

Encapsulation

2.

Which step of the communication process is concerned with properly identifying the address of the sender and receiver?

a)

Formatting

b)

Encoding

c)

Encapsulation

3.

Which three are components of message timing?

a)

Flow control

b)

Sequence numbers

c)

Response timeout

d)
  1. Retransmit time

e)

Access method

4.

Which delivery method is used to transmit information to one or more end devices, but not all devices on the network?

a)

Unicast

b)

Multicast

c)

Broadcast

5.

BGP and OSPF are examples of which type of protocol?

a)

network communication

b)

network security

c)

routing

d)

service discovery

6.

Which two protocols are service discovery protocols?

a)

DNS

b)

TCP

c)

SSH

d)

DHCP

7.

What is the purpose of the sequencing function in network communication?

a)

to uniquely label transmitted segments of data for proper reassembly by the receiver

b)

to determine if data is corrupted during transmission

c)

to ensure data flows at an efficient rate between sender and receiver

d)

to guarantee delivery of data

8.

This protocol is responsible for guaranteeing the reliable delivery of information.

a)

TCP

b)

IP

c)

HTTP

d)

Ethernet

9.

UDP and TCP belong to which layer of the TCP/IP protocol?

a)

application

b)

transport

c)

internet

d)

network access

10.

Which two protocols belong in the TCP/IP model application layer?

a)

EIGRP

b)

DNS

c)

OSPF

d)

ICMP

e)

DHCP

11.

Which protocol operates at the network access layer of the TCP/IP model?

a)

HTTP

b)

IP

c)

DNS

d)

Ethernet

12.

Protocols that provide feedback from the destination host to the source host regarding errors in packet delivery

a)

IPv4

b)

ICMPV6

c)

ICMPv4

d)

IPv6

e)

UDP

13.

A device receives a data link frame with data and processes and removes the Ethernet information. What information would be the next to be processed by the receiving device?

a)

HTTP at the application layer

b)

HTML at the application layer

c)

IP at the internet layer

d)

UDP at the internet layer

e)

TCP at the transport layer

14.

Which services are provided by the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?

a)

File Transfer

b)

Routing Prtocols

c)

Ethernet

d)

IP

e)

Messaging

15.

Standards organizations are usually vendor-neutral.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

This standards organization is concerned with the Request for Comments (RFC) documents that specify new protocols and update existing ones.

a)

Internet Society (ISOC)

b)

Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

c)

Internet Architecture Board (IAB)

d)

Internet Research Task Force (IRTF)

17.

This standards organization is responsible for IP address allocation and domain name management.

a)

Internet Society (ISOC)

b)

Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

c)

Internet Architecture Board (IAB)

d)

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

18.

What types of standards are developed by the Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA)?

a)

electric wiring and connectors

b)

radio equipment and cell towers

c)

video compression and broadbard communications

d)

Voice over IP (VoIP) and satellite communications

19.

Process of dividing a large data stream into smaller pieces prior to transmission

a)

sequencing

b)

duplexing

c)

multiplexing

d)

segmentation

20.

PDU associated with the transport layer

a)

segment

b)

packet

c)

bits

d)

frame

21.

Protocol stack layer that encapsulates data into frames

a)

data link

b)

transport

c)

network

d)

app

22.

Name of the process of adding protocol information to data as it moves down the protocol stack

a)

de-encapsulation

b)

sequencing

c)

segmentation

d)

encapsulation

23.

Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations?

a)

IEEE

b)

MAC

c)

IETF

d)

TCP/IP

e)

IANA

24.

What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

a)

multicast

b)

allcast

c)

unicast

d)

broadcast

25.

In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?

a)

to negotiate correct timing for successful communication

b)

to break large messages into smaller frames

c)

to interpret information

d)

to convert information to the appropriate form for transmission

26.

What are two benefits of using a layered network model?

a)

It assists in protocol design

b)

It ensures a device at one layer can function at

the next higher layer

c)

It speeds up packet delivery

d)

It prevents designers from creating their own model

e)

It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.

27.

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

a)

specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication

b)

providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur

c)

dictating the content of the message sent during communication

d)

specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication

28.

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

a)

source MAC address

b)

destination MAC address

c)

destination port number

d)

source IP address

e)

destination IP address

29.

Which two protocols function at the internet layer?

a)

PPP

b)

ICMP

c)

BOOTP

d)

IP

e)

POP

30.

Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications between end devices?

a)

network

b)

transport

c)

application

d)

session

e)

presentation

31.

What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?

a)

encapsulation

b)

flow control

c)

decoding

d)

access control

32.

What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

a)

It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery

b)

It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame

c)

It is segmented into smaller individual pieces

d)

It is encapsulated into a TCP segment

33.

A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

a)

Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

b)

HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet

c)

Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

d)

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

34.

A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

a)

network layer

b)

data link layer

c)

physical layer

d)

presentation layer

35.

What type of cable is used to connect a workstation serial port to a Cisco router console port?

a)

crossover

b)

coaxial

c)

rollover

d)

straight-through

36.

Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?

a)

They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection

b)

They allow for full-duplex connectivity

c)

They increase the speed at which the data can travel

d)

The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading

37.

Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

a)

requiring proper grounding connections

b)

wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding

c)

designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference

d)

avoiding sharp bends during installation

e)

twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together

38.

A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?

a)

The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.

b)

The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance requirements.

c)

The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.

d)

The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.

39.

Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?

a)

crossover

b)

straight-through

c)

rollover

d)

console

40.

What is the definition of bandwidth?

a)

the speed at which bits travel on the network

b)

the amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time

c)

the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time

41.

What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

a)

cladding

b)

immunity to electrical hazards

c)

cancellation

d)

woven copper braid or metallic foil

42.

A wireless LAN is being deployed inside the new one room office that is occupied by the park ranger. The office is located at the highest part of the national park. After network testing is complete, the technicians report that the wireless LAN signal is occasionally affected by some type of interference. What is a possible cause of the signal distortion?

a)

the number of wireless devices that are used in the wireless LAN

b)

the elevated location where the wireless LAN was installed

c)

the large number of trees that surround the office

d)

the microwave oven

43.

What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?

a)

exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media

b)

performing error detection on received frames

c)

controlling access to media

d)

transmitting bits across the local media

44.

Which characteristic describes crosstalk?

a)

the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point

b)

the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting

c)

the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires

d)

the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths

45.

What is indicated by the term throughput?

a)

the measure of the usable data transferred across the media

b)

the capacity of a particular medium to carry data

c)

the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver

d)

the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time

e)

the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP

46.

Which standards organization oversees development of wireless LAN standards?

a)

IEEE

b)

TIA

c)

IANA

d)

ISO

47.

What is the binary representation for the decimal number 173?

a)

10100101

b)

10101101

c)

10110101

d)

10100111

48.

Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?

a)

236.17.12.10

b)

236.17.12.6

c)

234.16.12.10

d)

234.17.10.9

49.

How many binary bits exist within an IPv6 address?

a)

64

b)

256

c)

48

d)

128

e)

32

50.

What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 232?

a)

11101000

b)

11110010

c)

10011000

d)

11000110

51.

Which IPv4 address format was created for ease of use by people and is expressed as 201.192.1.14?

a)

binary

b)

dotted decimal

c)

hexadecimal

d)

ASCII

52.

What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F?

a)

87

b)

93

c)

63

d)

77

53.

How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

a)

32

b)

64

c)

256

d)

128

54.

What identifier is used at the data link layer to uniquely identify an Ethernet device?

a)

UDP port number

b)

IP address

c)

MAC address

d)

TCP port number

e)

sequence number

55.

What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?

a)

TCP/IP protocol stack

b)

attached Ethernet cable

c)

RJ-45 port

d)

MAC address

56.

Which two engineering organizations define open standards and protocols that apply to the data link layer?

a)

Internet Society (ISOC)

b)

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

c)

Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)

d)

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

e)

International Telecommunication Union (ITU)

57.

What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

a)

Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.

b)

Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.

c)

The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.

d)

Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network

58.

What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

a)

CSMA/CA

b)

token passing

c)

CSMA/CD

d)

priority ordering

59.

A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that provides a high level of redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every node is attached to every other node on the network?

a)

hierarchical

b)

bus

c)

ring

d)

mesh

e)

star

60.

Which statement describes the half-duplex mode of data transmission?

a)

Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction at a time.

b)

Data that is transmitted over the network can only flow in one direction.

c)

Data that is transmitted over the network flows in both directions at the same time.

d)

Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction to many different destinations simultaneously

61.

Which is a function of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer?

a)

to identify which network layer protocol is being used

b)

to accept segments and package them into data units that are called packets

c)

to provide data link layer addressing

d)

to define the media access processes that are performed by the hardware

62.

Which data link layer media access control method does Ethernet use with legacy Ethernet hubs?

a)

token passing

b)

determinism

c)

CSMA/CD

d)

turn taking

63.

What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer?

a)

LLC

b)

network access

c)

physical

d)

MAC

e)

internet

64.

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media?

a)

application

b)

data link

c)

transport

d)

physical

65.

What type of physical topology can be created by connecting all Ethernet cables to a central device?

a)

bus

b)

ring

c)

star

d)

mesh

66.

What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model?

a)

It fragments data packets into the MTU size.

b)

It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames.

c)

It determines the path to forward packets.

d)

It provides media access control and performs error detection.

e)

It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table.

67.

Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary?

a)

the use of Gigabit Ethernet speeds

b)

the development of half-duplex switch operation

c)

the virtually unlimited availability of IPv6 addresses

d)

the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches

e)

the use of CSMA/CA

68.

Which two characteristics describe Ethernet technology?

a)

It uses unique MAC addresses to ensure that data is sent to the appropriate destination.

b)

It uses a ring topology.

c)

It typically uses an average of 16 Mbps for data transfer rates.

d)

It is supported by IEEE 802.5 standards.

e)

It is supported by IEEE 802.3 standards

69.

What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?

a)

They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU.

b)

They have a 32-bit binary value.

c)

They must be globally unique.

d)

They are only routable within the private network.

70.

What is the special value assigned to the first 24 bits of a multicast MAC address transporting an IPv4 packet?

a)

01-5E-00

b)

FF-FF-FF

c)

01-00-5E

d)

FF-00-5E

71.

What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a unicast destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

a)

It will forward the frame to the next host.

b)

It will remove the frame from the media.

c)

It will discard the frame.

d)

It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

72.

Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address that is contained in the frame?

a)

router

b)

hub

c)

repeater

d)

switch

73.

Which network device has the primary function to send data to a specific destination based on the information found in the MAC address table?

a)

modem

b)

switch

c)

router

d)

hub

74.

Which function or operation is performed by the LLC sublayer?

a)

It communicates with upper protocol layers

b)

It adds a header and trailer to a packet to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU.

c)

It performs data encapsulation

d)

It is responsible for media access control

75.

What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch? 

a)

The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network.

b)

The frame is dropped.

c)

The frame is sent to the default gateway.

d)

The frame is returned to the originating network device.

76.

What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table?

a)

the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames

b)

the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets

c)

the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames

d)

the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets

77.

What type of address is 01-00-5E-0A-00-02?

a)

an address that reaches one specific host

b)

an address that reaches every host inside a local subnet

c)

an address that reaches every host in the network

d)

an address that reaches a specific group of hosts

78.

Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

a)

The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.

b)

The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.

c)

A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.

d)

MAC addresses are implemented by software.

79.

What are the two sizes (minimum and expected maximum) of an Ethernet frame?

a)

1518 bytes

b)

56 bytes

c)

128 bytes

d)

64 bytes

e)

1024 bytes

80.

Which two functions or operations are performed by the MAC sublayer?

a)

It performs the function of NIC driver software.

b)

It handles communication between upper and lower layers.

c)

It adds a header and trailer to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU.

d)

It adds control information to network protocol layer data.

e)

It is responsible for Media Access Control.

81.

Which command can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table?

a)

tracert

b)

netstat -s

c)

show ip route

d)

netstat -r

82.

What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

a)

source and destination MAC

b)

source and destination application protocol

c)

source and destination IP address

d)

source and destination port number

83.

How does the network layer use the MTU value?

a)

The network layer depends on the higher level layers to determine the MTU.

b)

To increase speed of delivery, the network layer ignores the MTU.

c)

The network layer depends on the data link layer to set the MTU, and adjusts the speed of transmission to accommodate it.

d)

The MTU is passed to the network layer by the data link layer.

84.

Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?​

a)

The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet handling.

b)

IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPv4 which is based on 32-bit hierarchical addressing.

c)

Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities.

d)

The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space.

85.

Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of IPv4?

a)

IPv4 has a 32-bit address space.

b)

All IPv4 addresses are assignable to hosts.

c)

An IPv4 header has fewer fields than an IPv6 header has.

d)

IPv4 natively supports IPsec

86.

When a router receives a packet, what information must be examined in order for the packet to be forwarded to a remote destination?

a)

dest MAC address

b)

source IP address

c)

source MAC address

d)

dest IP address

87.

A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will the packet be sent?

a)

The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the response from the gateway, it may be sent to the destination host.

b)

The packet will be sent only to the default gateway.

c)

The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.

d)

The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default gateway it will be sent directly to the destination host.

88.

Which IPv4 address can a host use to ping the loopback interface?

a)

127.0.0.1

b)

126.0.0.0

c)

127.0.0.0

d)

126.0.0.1

89.

When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, how is missing data detected and retransmitted if necessary?

a)

The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are sent are received.

b)

Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if connection-oriented transport services are not available.

c)

Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data received and can request retransmission from the upper-level protocols on the sending host.

d)

Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request retransmission.

90.

What was the reason for the creation and implementation of IPv6?

a)

to relieve IPv4 address depletion

b)

to allow NAT support for private addressing

c)

to make reading a 32-bit address easier

d)

to provide more address space in the Internet Names Registry

91.

Which information is used by routers to forward a data packet toward its destination?

a)

source IP address

b)

source data-link address

c)

dest IP address

d)

dest data-link address

92.

Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?

a)

Packet Length

b)

Time-to-Live

c)

Dest Address

d)

Flag

93.

Which field in an IPv6 packet is used by the router to determine if a packet has expired and should be dropped?

a)

No Route to Destination

b)

Hop Limit

c)

TTL

d)

Address Unreachable

94.

What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?

a)

/27

b)

/28

c)

/25

d)

/26

95.

How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26 mask?

a)

192

b)

190

c)

64

d)

62

e)

254

96.

Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?

a)

255.255.255.128

b)

255.255.255.240

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

255.255.255.224

97.

A network administrator subnets the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets with /26 masks. How many equal-sized subnets are created?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

64

d)

4

e)

1

98.

Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

a)

Subnets may only be submitted one additional time.

b)

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.

c)

Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

d)

Each subnet is the same size.

99.

Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

a)

to identify faulty frames

b)

to identify the broadcast address of the destination network

c)

to identify the host address of the destination host

d)

to identify the network address of the destination network

100.

How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?

a)

32

b)

30

c)

254

d)

16

e)

62

101.

Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address?

a)

logical portion

b)

subnet portion

c)

host portion

d)

network portion

e)

physical portion

102.

What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

a)

multicast address

b)

broadcast address

c)

host address

103.

What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

a)

to determine the subnet to which the host belongs

b)

to mask the IP address to outsiders

c)

to uniquely identify a host on a network

d)

to identify whether the address is public or private