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Worksheets

Physics ICGSE Revision List

Total questions: 500

Worksheet time: 9hrs 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the formula for Average Speed?

(a)  

2.

How to caculate Average Velocity?

(a)  

3.

How to caculate acceleration using change in velocity?

(a)  

4.

How to caculate Weight using Mass?

(a)  

5.

State the relationship between Force, Mass and Acceleration?

(a)  

6.

How to caculate Density using Mass?

(a)  

7.

State Hooke's Law

(a)  

8.

How to caculate Pressure?

(a)  

9.

How to caculate Fluid Pressure?

(a)  

10.

How to caculate Work Done?

(a)  

11.

How to caculate Power?

(a)  

12.

Caculate K.E?

(a)  

13.

G.P.E?

(a)  

14.

Efficiency?

(a)  

15.

Moment of Force?

(a)  

16.

Momentum

(a)  

17.

Impulse

(a)  

18.

Centripetal Force?

(a)  

19.

Orbital Period?

(a)  

20.

Boyle's Law

(a)  

21.

Q =?

(a)  

22.

Energy Transferred (Heat)

(a)  

23.

Current (Relating to Charge)

(a)  

24.

Voltage (Relating to Charge)

(a)  

25.

Ohm Law

(a)  

26.

Power (Relating to Voltage)

(a)  

27.

Energy Transferred? (Relates to Voltage)

(a)  

28.

Rtotal (In Series)

(a)  

29.

Total Resistance (Parallel)

(a)  

30.

Is Voltage and Number of Turns directly or inversely proportional to each other

(a)  

31.

Is the relationships for Voltage and Current in a Transformer directly or inversely proportional to each other?

(a)  

32.

Wave Speed?

(a)  

33.

Relationship between Period and Frequency

(a)  

34.

Refractive Index involving angles?

(a)  

35.

Refractive Index involving speed

(a)  

36.

Refractive Index with Critical Angle?

(a)  

37.

What is Alpha Particle?

a)

Electron (0;-1)

b)

Helium Atom (4;2)

c)

rays

d)

Fundamental particle of our world, which is very important for the building of atoms in general

38.

What is Beta particle?

a)

Electron (0;-1)

b)

Helium atom (4;2)

c)

rays

d)

Particle that made up our cells, and our lungs, its very common in our body in general

39.

What is gamma radiation?

a)

Electrons (0;-1)

b)

Helium atom (4;2)

c)

rays

d)

it hurts.

40.

How many milliliters are in a 2 liter?

a)

2

b)

20

c)

200

d)

2000

41.

How many grams are in 5 kilograms?

a)

5

b)

50

c)

500

d)

5000

42.

2000 mg = ? g

a)

5

b)

2

c)

8

d)

6

43.
How many millimeters are in three centimeters? 
a)
300 mm
b)
30 mm
c)
3 mm
d)
16 mm
44.
Convert:
21 min = _______ sec
a)
210
b)
21
c)
1,260
d)
260
45.
_____ mililiters = 4 liters
a)
40
b)
400
c)
4,000
d)
40,000
46.

Which is the unit according to the SI of measurement for temperature.

a)

Kelvin

b)

Celsius

c)

Fahrenheit

d)

Candela

47.

.003m is the same as to

a)

3mm

b)

3nm

c)

3cm

d)

3km

48.

How many kelvin have in -26F

a)

240.92 K

b)

270.15K

c)

-256.12K

d)

-240.92 K

49.

1 μm\mu m is the same as

a)

x10−3mx10^{-3}m  

b)

x10−6mx10^{-6}m  

c)

x10−9mx10^{-9}m  

d)

x10−12mx10^{-12}m  

50.

What is the resultant force?

a)

40 N left

b)

0 N Balalnced

c)

400 N right

d)

40 N right

51.
How will this object move? 
a)
It won't move. 
b)
It will move to the right. 
c)
It will move to the left. 
d)
It will move in both directions. 
52.

What is the resultant/ net force?

a)

30 N left

b)

25 N right

c)

5 N left

d)

55 N right

53.

Which could be an example of an unbalanced force?

a)

A plate sitting on a dining table

b)

A ball at the top of a hill that is not moving

c)

Earth orbiting the Sun

d)

A football that has been thrown to the goal post.

54.
You and your dad are moving the couch from one side to another. Your dad pushes with a force of 35 N to the right and you push with a force of 25 N right. What is the net force on the couch?
a)
60 N right
b)
10 N left
c)
60 n right
d)
50 N left
55.

What is the resultant/ net force?

a)

400 N Up

b)

400 N Down

c)

- 400 N Down

d)

800 N Down

56.

A balanced force is only an object that is not moving.

a)

True

b)

False

57.
Are forces balanced or unbalanced when a car is moving at a constant speed in a straight line?
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
58.
Are forces balanced or unbalanced when a marble rolls down a ramp?
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
59.
Are forces balanced or unbalanced when skateboarding down a ramp?
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
60.

The ability to do work or cause change.

a)

work

b)

force

c)

motion

d)

energy

61.

An object's change in position relative to a reference point.

a)

work

b)

force

c)

motion

d)

energy

62.

Force exerted on an object that causes it to move

a)

work

b)

force

c)

motion

d)

energy

63.

A push or a pull.

a)

work

b)

force

c)

motion

d)

energy

64.

Resistance to change.

a)

power

b)

force

c)

inertia

d)

energy

65.

The rate at which work is done.

a)

power

b)

force

c)

inertia

d)

energy

66.

What does letter A represent

a)

object providing force

b)

object receiving force

c)

gravity

d)

friction

67.

What does letter C represent

a)

object providing force

b)

object receiving force

c)

gravity

d)

friction

68.

What does letter B represent

a)

object providing force

b)

object receiving force

c)

gravity

d)

friction

69.

What does letter D represent

a)

object providing force

b)

unbalanced force

c)

gravity

d)

friction

70.

Which physical quantities appear in the formula for work. Choose more than one

a)

force

b)

time

c)

distance

d)

speed

71.

According to Newton's second law of motion, a/an ________ force will cause an object to move in the direction of the force.

a)

balanced

b)

unbalanced

c)

equal

d)

Yoda

72.

Just after she jumps out of the plane (before the parachute opens). The relative forces will be

a)

Balanced

b)

Unbalanced

73.

Just after she jumps out of the plane (before the parachute opens). The relative forces will be

a)

Weight force is equal to the friction force

b)

Friction force is constant

c)

Weight force is greater that the friction force

d)

Friction force is greater than the weight force

74.

Just after she jumps out of the plane (before the parachute opens). The net force will be

a)

zero

b)

upward

c)

downward

75.

Just after she jumps out of the plane (before the parachute opens). The sky diver will have

a)

a constant speed

b)

a constant acceleration

c)

a constant velocity

76.

After the 60 seconds, the parachutist pulls the cord and opens her parachute.

Explain how the parachute reduces the speed of the parachutist when it is just opened.

a)

The friction force decreases

b)

The weight force decreases

c)

The weight force increases

d)

The friction force increases

77.
Describe the motion at point a. on the graph.
a)
constant speed
b)
accelerating
c)
decelerating
d)
stationary
78.
If this was the journey of a parachutist, what is happening at point e. ?
a)
He is decelerating
b)
He is accelerating
c)
He has reached a faster constant speed
d)
He has reached a lower constant speed. 
79.

The graph shows the vertical speed of a parachutist. At which point did they open the parachute?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

80.

If a skydiver changes from a vertical to a horizontal position during freefall:

a)

His terminal speed would increase

b)

His terminal speed would decrease

c)

His terminal speed would stay the same

81.

When a parachute canopy is opened more drag is created because:

a)

It has a large mass

b)

It has a large surface area

c)

It is travelling at terminal speed

d)

The person is now vertical

82.

If this graph were to show a parachutist jumping from a plane, how would you describe the forces acting at point B.

a)

His weight is bigger than air resistance

b)

Air resistance is bigger than his weight.

c)

His weight and air resistance are balanced.

83.

Identify true statements:

a)

The parachutist has just left the plane

b)

Weight is increasing

c)

There is no drag

d)

Weight is constant

e)

Deceleration

84.

Identify true statements:

a)

Drag is increasing

b)

Velocity is increasing

c)

There is no drag

d)

Weight is increasing

e)

Deceleration

85.

Identify true statements:

a)

Drag is increasing

b)

Velocity is increasing

c)

Terminal velocity

d)

Acceleration

e)

Maximum drag

86.

Identify true statements:

a)

The parachutist opens their parachute

b)

Deceleration

c)

Terminal velocity

d)

Weight is increasing

e)

Drag is constant

87.

Identify true statements:

a)

Drag is decreasing

b)

Velocity is increasing

c)

Drag is increasing

d)

Velocity is decreasing

e)

Weight is constant

88.

Identify true statements:

a)

Drag is increasing

b)

Velocity is increasing

c)

Terminal velocity

d)

Acceleration

e)

Drag is constant

89.

Terminal velocity.

Select the force arrows that apply:

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
90.
If this was the journey of a parachutist, what is happening at point e. ?
a)
He is decelerating
b)
He is accelerating
c)
He has reached a faster constant speed
d)
He has reached a lower constant speed. 
91.
Is a coaster making a turn accelerating?
a)
Of course.
b)
Not actually.
92.
Acceleration equalls to change in velocity...
a)
divided by change in acceleration.
b)
multiplied by change in time.
c)
devided by change in time.
d)
substracted by change in time.
93.
You add 2 m/s to the velocity of an object for each second. What is the acceleration?
a)
+2m/s2
b)
-2m/s
c)
+4m/s2
d)
-1m/s
94.
  A car slows down in positive (+)  direction, it causes...
a)
negative velocity (-v).
b)
positive acceleration (+a).
c)
negative  acceleration (-a).
d)
positive velocity (+v).
95.
With what change in velocity (Δv) equals to?
a)
vf + vi 
b)
vf – vi 
c)
vi – vf
d)
vi+vf
96.
On the following velocity versus time graph, from 0 to 3 seconds the acceleration of the object is:
a)
no acceleration
b)
Positive
c)
Negative
d)
Something undefinied
97.
What does the position versus time graph look like?
a)
A curve like a frown.
b)
A curve like smile.
c)
A linear.
d)
Something undefined.
98.
What does -1 m/s2 of car mean ? The velocity changes by...
a)
-1m/s2  every second
b)
1m/s every second
c)
1m/s2 every second
d)
-1 m/s every second
99.
What is acceleration...?
a)
The rate of change of acceleration.
b)
The rate of change of time.
c)
The rate of change of velocity.
d)
The rate of change of distance.
100.
Select the correct example in which the object is accelerating.
a)
a  stationary ball 
b)
a telephone ringing
c)
a car with constant velocity
d)
a ball rolling uphill
101.
Suppose that an object has an initial velocity of +8 m/s and accelerates in positive direction for one second with an acceleration of  2 m/s2  its final velocity (vf) is... 
a)
+4 m/s
b)
+10m/s
c)
-10m/s
d)
+6m/s
102.
Positive and negative acceleration can cause speed to....
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
either increase or decrease
d)
both increace and decrease
103.
If F is force, k is spring constant and x is extension, Hooke's Law tells us that:
a)
F=k/x
b)
x=Fk
c)
k=Fx
d)
F=kx
104.
Hooke's Law fails when a material reaches its:
a)
breakdown
b)
elastic limit
c)
end of tether
d)
fracture stress
105.

_________ is the unit of Spring Constant

a)

N

b)

N/m

c)

m

106.
A graph of extension against force for an elastic material is:
a)
A downward curve
b)
An upward curve
c)
A straight line from any point on the x and y axis
d)
A straight line from the origin
107.
A stiff material has a:
a)
high spring constant
b)
low spring constant
c)
spring constant of any value
d)
spring constant which is difficult to predict
108.

If the original length of a spring is 20m and its extended length is 30m. What is the extension?

a)

20m

b)

12m

c)

75m

d)

45m

e)

10m

109.

A bungee rope has a spring constant of 5N/m. How much a person must weighs in Newton if we want it to extend (stretch) 10m?

a)

20N

b)

22cm

c)

50N

d)

50cm

e)

21N

110.

What is the spring constant of a bungee rope in N/m if a person weighs 100 N if we want it to extend (stretch) 20m?

a)

5N/m

b)

5N/cm

c)

5N

d)

10N

e)

10N/m

111.

What is the best description of the relationship shown in this graph?

a)

In this graph, the relationship between force and extension is linear.

b)

In this graph, the relationship between force and extension is non-linear.

c)

In this graph, the relationship between force and extension is directly proportional.

d)

In this graph, there is no relationship between force and extension.

112.

An unstretched spring becomes longer when a force is applied to it. Which word describes the additional length of the spring gains?

a)

Expansion

b)

Extension

c)

Stretched

113.

Select a logical prediction for the investigation.

a)

As the force applied to the spring increases, the extension of the spring will decrease.

b)

As the force applied to the spring increases, the extension of the spring will stay the same

c)

As the force applied to the spring increases, the extension of the spring will also increase.

114.

In the diagram, a force is used to stretch a spring. The spring is temporarily deformed when the force is applied. When the force is removed, the spring . . .

a)

returns to its original length.

b)

stays the same length.

115.

For this spring, as the force increases, the extension increases proportionally. What would you expect to happen to the extension if the force was doubled?

a)

The extension would stay the same.

b)

The extension would double

c)

The extension would halve

116.

What happens when the stretching force on an elastic material is released?

a)

The material breaks.

b)

The material remains stretched out.

c)

It does nothing

d)

The material snaps back to its original shape.

117.
Hooke's Law describes the behaviour of which kind of material under tension?
a)
plastic
b)
metals only
c)
elastic
d)
non-metals only
118.

At point P, _______.

a)

the force applied to the spring is equal to its elongation

b)

Hooke's Law ceases to be valid

c)

the spring is can be stretched but still springs back into shape reversibly

d)

the spring constant increases

119.

When comparing spring A to B,

a)

both experience the same maximum force

b)

both experience the same elongation

c)

both store the same amount of elastic potential energy

d)

both have identical spring constants

120.

When comparing spring A to B,

a)

A has a larger spring constant than B so A is a stiffer spring

b)

B has a larger spring constant than A so A is a stiffer spring

c)

A has a larger spring constant than B so B is a stiffer spring

d)

B has a larger spring constant than A so B is a stiffer spring

121.

Elasticity is the property of material that enables an object to return to its original ___________ after the force applied on it is removed.

a)

shape and size

b)

colour and size

c)

type and shape

d)

height and weight

122.

the extension of a spring is ___________ to the force applied on the spring.

a)

directly proportional

b)

inversely proportional

123.
A spring has a spring constant of 5N/cm.  What is its extension when loaded with 15N?
a)
4cm
b)
5cm
c)
3m
d)
3cm
124.

A nut can be loosened more easily with

a)

a short spanner because a larger turning effect can be produced.

b)

a long spanner because a larger turning effect can be produced.

c)

a long spanner because a larger force can be produced.

d)

a short spanner because a larger force can be produced.

125.

Jack has a weight of 300 N and sits 2.0 m from the pivot of see-saw. Jill has a weight of 450 N and sits 1.5 m from pivot. Who will move down?

a)

Jack

b)

Jill

c)

Both of them

d)

None of them

126.
What is the anticlockwise moment acting on this crane?
a)
80,000Nm
b)
100,000Nm
c)
120,000Nm
d)
140,000Nm
127.
A seesaw is unbalanced with two people of different masses sitting equal distances from the center. Which of the following will result in equilibrium?
a)
The larger person moving further away from the center.
b)
Moving the smaller person closer to the center.
c)
Moving the smaller person further from the center.
d)
Making the larger person do nothing.
128.
The easiest way to open a heavy door  is by applying the force
a)
Near the hinges
b)
In the middle of the door
c)
At the edge of the door far from the hinges
d)
At the top of the door
129.

Assuming the system is in equilibrium, calculate the missing distance d

a)

3.4 m

b)

2.8 m

c)

4.4 m

d)

1.6 m

130.

How are weight, mass and g related

a)

W=mg

b)

m=Wg

c)

g=Wm

d)

m=W/g

131.

Which equation relates force, acceleration and mass?
Tick all that are correct

a)

F=ma

b)

F=maF=\frac{m}{a}  

c)

a=Fma=\frac{F}{m}  

d)

a=Fm

132.

What is the equation for moments?

a)

Moment = force x perpendicular distance from pivot

b)

Moment = mass x velocity

c)

Moment = force x distance

d)

Moment = force x parallel distance from pivot

133.

When an object is in equilibrium, which equation is true?

a)

Clockwise moment = anticlockwise moment

b)

Clockwise moment + anticlockwise moment = 0

c)

Clockwise moment / anticlockwise moment = 0

d)

Clockwise moment + anticlockwise moment = resultant force

134.
The adjacent hoop has a diameter of 1 meter, what are the coordinates of its centre of mass
a)
1,1
b)
0.5,1
c)
0.5,0.5
d)
1,0.5
135.
why is the car on the left unstable?
a)
Its centre of mass is high
b)
it has a narrow base
c)
it has a high height
d)
all of the above
136.
the mass of the right side is ------ compared to the left side.
a)
more
b)
less
c)
equal
d)
None of the above
137.

A simple method to find centre of gravity of a body is usage of

a)

stop watch

b)

plumbline

c)

pendulum

d)

gauge

138.

If we suspend lamina at different positions, its center of gravity will still lie along the

a)

Plumb line

b)

Line of force

c)

Line of weight

d)

Gravity line

139.

Center of gravity is usually located where

a)

more weight is concentrated

b)

less weight is concentrated

c)

less mass is concentrated

d)

more mass is concentrated

140.
Why is it harder for the boy in Image B to get down the hill?
a)
Motion
b)
Friction
c)
Work
d)
Displacement
141.
What is the moment acting on the seesaw?
a)
1.6Nm
b)
15Nm
c)
16N
d)
4Nm
142.

The diagram shows a beam. Without any weights, the beam balances at its centre.

Three weights are hung as shown.

At which point does a load of 2 N balance the beam?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

143.

The figure below shows a man lifting a heavy rock using a steel bar. He pushes downwards on the end of the bar with a force F.


Which pivot positions allows the force F to be as small as possible?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

144.
A basketball with a mass of 0.60 kg is accelerated with a force of 10.8 N. If resisting forces are ignored, what is the acceleration of the basketball to the nearest m/s2?
a)
16 m/s2
b)
17 m/s2
c)
18 m/s2
d)
19 m/s2
145.

What is something that prevents heat, electricity, sound, light...to pass through it?

a)

insulator

b)

conduction

c)

heat transfer

d)

conductor

146.

What is something that readily conducts heat, electricity, sound...

a)

insulator

b)

conduction

c)

thermal equilibrium

d)

conductor

147.

the transfer of heat in a fluid (gas or liquid) by means of up & down movements called convection currents

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

148.

the transfer of heat through a vacuum (empty space)

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

149.

the transfer of heat through a medium (material) by direct contact of molecules

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

150.

What is the total energy of particles in a substance; more particles=more energy?

a)

conductor

b)

radiator

c)

thermal energy

d)

heat transfer

151.

How does heat move?

a)

from cold to hot

b)

from hot to cold

152.

What is the concept in which two objects in contact with each other transfer heat until they are equal?

a)

thermal equilibrium

b)

thermal energy

c)

thermal equality

d)

thermal heat

153.

What is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the individual particles in an object?

a)

heat

b)

volume

c)

kineticism

d)

temperature

154.

What is energy caused by the internal movement of molecules; measured in joules?

a)

conduction

b)

heat

c)

radiation

d)

insulator

155.

Sunbathing is an example of...

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

156.

Burning your feet on the hot sand is an example of...

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

157.

Feeling the warm breeze from the ocean is an example of...

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

158.

Cooking pizza in the microwave is an example of...

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

159.

Steam rising from hot soup is an example of...

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

160.

Cooking pancakes on a griddle is an example of...

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

161.

There are four main processes in changing of phase, and they are

a)

Melting

b)

Boiling

c)

Condensation

d)

All the above

162.

Latent heat is

a)

the heat absorbed or released at a boiling process during a change of phase

b)

the heat absorbed or released at a constant temperature during a change of phase

c)

the heat absorbed or released at a constant temperature during a change of phase of 1 kg object

d)

the heat absorbed or released by an object to increase or decrease its temperature by 1 degree Celcius

163.

the symbol for specific latent heat is

a)

c

b)

L

c)

Q

d)

m

164.

Water molecules have the greatest kinetic energy in

a)

Ice at 0 ⁰C

b)

Water at 90 ⁰C

c)

Water at 373 K

d)

Steam at 150 ⁰C

165.
The amount of energy required to raise the temperature 1ºC for every kilogram is called____?
a)
Thermal Energy
b)
Specific Heat
c)
Temperature
d)
Kinetic Energy
166.
What is the equation to measure change in Thermal Energy?
a)
Q=mc∆t
b)
Q=mc
c)
Q= ∆mct
d)
m=QC
167.
Water has a specific heat of 4184 J/KgºC.  Wood has a specific heat of 1760 J/KgºC.  What material needs more energy to raise the temperature 1ºC
a)
Wood
b)
Water
c)
Both are the same
168.
A material was cooled from 100ºC to 40ºC.  What is the temperature change?
a)
60ºC
b)
40ºC
c)
-60ºC
d)
-40ºC
169.
How does heat flow?
a)
Always from cold to warm
b)
Always from warm to cold
c)
Both warm to cold & cold to warm
d)
It depends on the temperature
170.
If I heat up 2 pans of water one has 100 mL in it and one has 1000mL. Which one heats up the fastest?
a)
100 mL
b)
1000 mL
c)
They both heat up at the same speed
d)
They cool down.
171.

How much energy is needed to raise the temperature of 5.0 grams of lead from 25°C to 35°C? [specific heat (c) = 0.129 J/(g•°C)]

a)

6.45 J/(g•°C)

b)

6.45 J

c)

16.1 J/(g•°C)

d)

d.16.1 J

172.

Which of the following best explains why the sand at the beach is hotter than the water?

a)

Sand has a higher specific heat than water.

b)

Sand has a lower specific heat than water.

c)

There is more water than sand at the beach.

d)

There is more sand than water at the beach.

173.
What would be the effect on the particles if more heat is supplied to the system?
a)
They would slow down
b)
They would stop moving
c)
They would speed up
d)
There would be no effect
174.
There are four cups of hot cocoa. The cup sizes are shown. The temperature of the cocoa in each cup is 25 degrees celsius. Which cup has the MOST thermal energy?
a)
Large cup (Trenta)
b)
Small cup (Tall)
c)
Venti
d)
All three are the same temperature so they have same thermal energy
175.
The specific heat(c) of copper is 0.39 J/g °C. What is the temperature change(∆t) when 100 Joules of heat(Q) is added to 20 grams?
a)
12.82 °C
b)
24.12°C
c)
351 °C
176.
Energy of motion is which type of energy?
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
c)
Sound
d)
Gravitational
177.
What type of energy is in this picture?
a)
Kinetic
b)
Potential
c)
Chemical
d)
Sound
178.
When plants convert the sun's energy into food, which type of energy is it?
a)
kinetic
b)
chemical
c)
thermal
d)
radiant
179.
What kind of energy is represented in this picture?
a)
Thermal
b)
Potential
c)
Nuclear
d)
Mechanical
180.
What kind of energy does this device use?
a)
Chemical
b)
Electrical
c)
Thermal
d)
Chemical
181.
What kind of energy is represented in the picture?
a)
Thermal
b)
Chemical
c)
Sound
d)
Nuclear
182.
A battery converts what type of energy to another?
a)
sound to kinetic
b)
light to heat
c)
mechanical to electrical
d)
chemical to electrical
183.
The glow sticks produce light for a short amount of time. The light from the glow stick is a conversion from what to what?
a)
thermal to light
b)
gravitational to potential
c)
radiant to electrical
d)
chemical to light
184.
Wind turbines and windmills convert what energy to another?
a)
Kinetic to electric
b)
Gravitational potential to electric
c)
Mechanical to potential
d)
Thermal to sound
185.
Work is:
a)
A transfer of energy by a force to move and object
b)
Something you get paid for
c)
Something you take home
d)
Makes you sweat
186.
What machine changes electrical energy into light and sound energy?
a)
battery
b)
lightbulb
c)
alarm clock
d)
apple
187.
On a roller coaster, where is maximum potential energy?
a)
At the bottom of a big hill
b)
When going around a corner
c)
When going upside down
d)
At the top of a big hill
188.
On a roller coaster, where is maximum kinetic energy?
a)
At the bottom of a big hill
b)
When going around a corner
c)
When going upside down
d)
At the top of a big hill
189.
The formula for work is:
a)
d = r x t
b)
p = m x v
c)
f = m x a
d)
w = d x f
190.
Energy that is stored in bonds between atoms is:
a)
Mechanical energy
b)
Chemical energy
c)
Kinetic energy
d)
Nuclear energy
191.
Energy caused by the movement in the particles of matter. It is a form of kinetic energy.
a)
Nuclear energy
b)
Sound energy
c)
Light energy
d)
Thermal energy
192.
Energy that comes from the nucleus of an atom. A form of potential energy.
a)
chemical energy
b)
Nuclear energy
c)
Sound energy
d)
Electrical energy
193.
According to which law of energy, energy can't be created or destroyed?
a)
First law of motion
b)
The law of tacos
c)
Laws of Energy
d)
law of conservation of energy
194.
The purpose of the panels is to change solar energy into ____________.
a)
light energy
b)
electrical energy
c)
chemical energy
d)
mechanical energy
195.
What machine changes chemical energy into heat, light and sound energy
a)
blender
b)
firecracker
c)
lightbulb
d)
apple
196.
Roger Federer’s tennis ball has a mass of 0.3 kg. If he holds the ball above the ground at a height of 2.0 m to serve, what is its gravitational potential energy (GPE)?
a)
5.88 J
b)
0.6 J
c)
6.67 J
d)
0.15 J
197.
You serve a volleyball with a mass of 2 kg. The ball leaves your hand with a speed of 30 m/s. What is the KE of the ball?
a)
900 J
b)
1800 J
c)
60 J
d)
30 J
198.
Which of the following has the GREATEST IMPACT on the kinetic energy of an object?
a)
Mass 
b)
Velocity
c)
Height
d)
The acceleration due to gravity
199.
The acceleration of an object due to gravity on Earth is...
a)
8.9 m/s2
b)
9.8 m/s2
c)
It depends on the mass of an object
d)
Equal to its kinetic energy
200.
A skydiver jumps from a plane and is halfway through her descent. At this point in time she has...
a)
Kinetic Energy
b)
Gravitational Potential Energy
c)
Both Kinetic and Gravitational Potential Energy
d)
She has no energy
201.
Energy due to motion is ____________ energy. 
a)
Potential 
b)
Energy
c)
Kinetic
d)
Friction
202.
__________ is stored energy. 
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
c)
None of the above 
d)
All of the above 
203.
Gravitational potential energy depends on the ________ and ________ of the object. 
a)
Height and mass
b)
Friction and movement
c)
Mass and Movement
d)
Height and Friction 
204.
The faster an object moves, the ________ kinetic energy it has. 
a)
more
b)
less
c)
none of the above
d)
all of the above 
205.
At which point is potential energy greatest?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
206.
At which point is kinetic energy greatest? 
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
207.
In order to INCREASE the potential energy of an object, you need to:
a)
put the object lower to the ground
b)
raise the object higher
208.
Energy is measured using which unit?
a)
Grams
b)
Meters
c)
Watts
d)
Joules
209.
____________ is the ability to cause change. 
a)
Energy 
b)
Force 
c)
Friction
d)
Motion
210.
When a pendulum swings, at which point is kinetic energy highest: 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
211.
When a pendulum swings, at which point is potential energy at its greatest
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
212.
Energy is the ability to do _____________ or cause change.
a)
work
b)
rest
c)
experiments
d)
science
213.
The equation for potential energy. 
a)
PE = m + h
b)
PE = mh
c)
PE = mgh
d)
PE = gh
214.
The equation for kinetic energy. 
a)
KE = mv2
b)
KE = 1/2 mv2
c)
KE = mv
d)
KE = 1/2 mv
215.
Calculate the potential energy of a 5 kg weight lifted 1.5 meters into the air. 
a)
750 J
b)
7.5 J
c)
75 J
d)
3.3 J
216.
What is the kinetic energy of a 1 kg pie being thrown at 4 m/s? 
a)
8 J
b)
4 J
c)
5 J
d)
16 J
217.

What kind of energy is in a stretched rubber band?

a)

Elastic Potential

b)

Kinetic

c)

Gravitational Potential

218.
Energy can not be created or destroyed, only converted from one form to another.
a)
true
b)
false
219.

At which position does the child on the swing have the most gravitational potential energy?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

220.
Which type of energy increases when you compress a spring?
a)
elastic potential energy
b)
kinetic energy
c)
radiant energy
d)
sound energy
221.
The mass of an object ___________ as it moves away from the center of Earth
a)
stays the same
b)
decreases
c)
increases
d)
doubles
222.
The weight of an object _________ as it moves away from the center of Earth.
a)
increases
b)
stays the same
c)
triples
d)
decreases
223.
A measure of how much matter an object has is--
a)
weight
b)
gravity
c)
mass
d)
volume
224.
Why would you weigh less on the moon compared to Earth?
a)
less air
b)
less sunlight
c)
more gravitational pull
d)
less gravitational pull
225.

If the temperature change in an aluminum cylinder is 2oC, when a bottle falls 1 m., what would be the temperature if it fell 3 times higher?

a)

it would be the same

b)

6oC

c)

9oC

d)

30oC

226.

If the temperature change in an aluminum cylinder is 2oC when it is used to stopped a spinning wheel, what would be the change in temperature if the wheel were spinning twice as fast?

a)

it would be the same

b)

4oC

c)

8oC

d)

16oC

227.

When you increase your depth under water, the water pressure on your body

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

228.
Which of the following would increase the pressure on a system?
a)
Increase the Temperature
b)
Pump in more gas
c)
Decrease the volume
d)
All of these
229.
What decreases as you go up in the atmosphere?
a)
Altitude
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Meteors
d)
Air Pressure
230.

How do you Calculate Pressure

a)

Force(N)/Area(m2)

b)

Force(kg)/Area(mi2)

c)

Area(m2)/Force(N)

231.

Why won't you sink in mud if you wear boots?

a)

Because the surface area is larger creating less pressure.

b)

Has air in it to keep you floating.

c)

Because the mud won't want you.

232.

Diagram shows the design of a dam. Why does the thickness of the dam increase with its depth?

a)

The design of this structure is stronger.

b)

Water pressure increases with depth.

c)

The cost of construction is lower.

d)

Water pressure acts uniformly in all directions.

233.

What is pressure?

a)

The amount of force exerted on a surface

b)

The surface area of an object

c)

The weight of an object

234.
What is the unit of measurement for pressure?
a)
pascal
b)
grams
c)
milliters
d)
meters
235.
A fluid can be...
a)
a gas
b)
a liquid
c)
a liquid or a gas
d)
a solid
236.
Fluids can also include__ and__. 
a)
solids and liquids
b)
solids and gases
c)
liquids and gases
d)
liquids
237.
What is the equation used to calculate pressure?
a)
pressure= force/mass
b)
pressure =mass/volume
c)
pressure=area/force
d)
pressure=force/area
238.
What is the unit of measurement for pressure?
a)
pascal
b)
grams
c)
milliters
d)
meters
239.
Look at the pressure triangle. How do we calculate the area?
a)
f ÷ a
b)
f x p
c)
p x f
d)
f ÷ p
240.
What is the instrument that measures air pressure called?
a)
Graduated cylinder
b)
Barometer
c)
Force scale
d)
Anemometer
241.
Which of these animals would probably cause the greatest pressure on the ground?
a)
A fat cow with big feet
b)
A fat cow with small feet
c)
 A calf with big feet
d)
A calf with small feet
242.
Where would you find the largest pressure?
a)
At the bottom of the ocean
b)
At the top of Mt Everest
c)
Close to ground on the Scotch oval
d)
In a rockpool on the Great Barrier Reef
243.
Which of the statements is true?
a)
The bottom of the boot exerts more pressure than the shoe as a result of an increase in surface area.
b)
The bottom of the shoe exerts more pressure than the boot as a result of an decrease in surface area.
c)
The bottom of the shoe exerts the same pressure as the bottom of the boot.
244.

what is the product of force and displacement?

a)

work

b)

power

c)

energy

245.

what is the unit of work?

a)

Newton

b)

Joule

c)

Watt

d)

meter

246.

what is the formula needed to solve for work?

a)

W=F Δ\Delta x

b)

W=F/undefined x

c)

F=Wundefined x

247.

if you push a cart with a force of 60 N for 2 m... how much work have you done

a)

120 J

b)

30 J

c)

120 N

d)

30 N

248.

If 40N of force is applied to Rollo Koster's 10 kg cart over a distance of 50 meters, how much work is done?

a)

8000J

b)

8000N

c)

4000J

d)

2000J

249.
Which of the following is the best example of work being done. 
a)
doing homework
b)
lifting a box
c)
pushing a stationary box
d)
holding a box
250.
In which of these cases is work being done? 
a)
A student sleeps
b)
A student pushes a locked door that does not move
c)
a student carries his chair into another room
d)
A student sits on the carpet
251.

Ahmed is out with his friends. Misfortune occurs and Ahmed and his friends find themselves getting a workout. They apply a cumulative force of 1000 N to push the car 200 m out of the sand. Determine the work done on the car.

a)

2 x 105 J

b)

2.70 x 104 J

c)

3.2 x 10-4 J

d)

3.54 x 105 J

252.

Two people push on a wall with 100 N. The wall doesn’t move. How much work is done?

a)

100J

b)

100N

c)

0J

d)

0N

253.

A student lifts 100 N of books 1 m to his shoulder. He walks forward 10 m to the stairs and goes up 3 m. He walks 20 m forwards to class. How much work has been done to the books?

a)

No work is done

b)

100J

c)

300J

d)

400J

254.

Two people lift a heavy box a distance of 15 m. They use ropes, each of which make an angle of 15 degrees with the vertical. Each person exerts a force of 225 N. How much work is done by the ropes

a)

3.29 x 103 J

b)

6.5 x 103 J

c)

4.0 x 104 N

d)

2.45 x 102 J

255.

An airplane passenger carries a 215-N suitcase up the stairs , a displacement of 4.20 m vertically and 4.60 m horizontally. How much work does the passenger do on the suitcase.

a)

903 J

b)

989 J

c)

976 J

d)

945 J

256.

A sailor pulls a boat a distance of 30.0 m along a dock using a rope that makes a 25 degree angle with the horizontal. How much work does the rope do on the boat if its tension is 255 N?

a)

7.65 x 103 J

b)

6.93 x 103 J

c)

7.65 x 103 N

d)

5.23 x 103 J

257.

A mover loads a 185-kg refrigerator into a moving van by pushing it at a constant speed up a 10.0 m , friction free ramp at an angle of inclination of 11 degrees. How much work is done by the mover on the refrigerator?

a)

1.86 x 103 J

b)

3.45 x 102 J

c)

3.46 x 103 J

d)

1.78 x 104 J

258.

What is the common formula for work?

a)

W=F v cos (angle between the direction of motion and the force)

b)

W=F d cos (angle between the direction of motion and the force)

c)

W=F m cos (angle between the direction of motion and the force)

d)

W=F t cos (angle between the direction of motion and the force)

259.
A child pulls a balloon for 12 m with a force of 1N at an angle of 60 degrees.  How much work does the child do on the balloon?
a)
-10J
b)
-6J
c)
6J
d)
12J
260.

In which case is work being done?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

261.

What is the work done on a 0.90 kg model airplane moves at a constant speed of 19 m/s on a circle that is 1 m off the ground?

a)

8.82 J

b)

162 J

c)

8.82 J

d)

0 J

262.

Joel and Jerry push against a car that has stalled, trying unsuccessfully to get it moving. Jerry stops after 10 min, while Joel is able to push for 5.0 min longer. Compare the work they do on the car.

a)

Joel does 75% more work than Jerry.

b)

Joel does 50% more work than Jerry.

c)

Jerry does 50% more work than Joel.

d)

Joel does 25% more work than Jerry.

e)

Neither of them does any work.

263.

ln the Empire State Building Run-Up, competitors race up the 1576 steps (86 flights) of the Empire State Building, climbing a total vertical distance of 320 m. How much work does a m 74 kg racer do?

a)

2.321 × 105 Joules

b)

2.326 × 105 Joules

c)

2.318 × 105 Joules

d)

2.317 × 105 Joules

264.

If a 74 kg racer took 798 s to climb the 320 m, how power did she developed?

a)

291 Watts

b)

281 Watts

c)

317 Watts

d)

313 Watts

265.

This weight lifter raised 105 kg to a height of approximately 2.31 m in 9 seconds. How much power did he developed?

a)

264 Watts

b)

1029 Watts

c)

2,377 Watts

d)

4,009 Watts

266.

Three cars (car F, car G, and car H) are moving with the same speed and slam on their brakes. The most massive car is car F, and the least massive is car H. If the tires of all three cars have identical coefficients of kinetic friction with the road surface, which car travels the longest distance to skid to a stop?

a)

They all travel the same distance in stopping.

b)

Car F

c)

Car G

d)

Car H

267.

A construction worker uses a pulley and a rope to raise an 85 kg person to a height of 2 m in 6 s. How much did he do?

a)

1,670 J

b)

833 J

c)

278 J

d)

417 J

268.

A construction worker uses a pulley and a rope to raise an 85 kg person to a height of 2 m in 6 s. How much power is he supplying?

a)

1,670 W

b)

833 W

c)

278 W

d)

417 W

269.

Two people are lifting the same weight as shown in the animation. If they both do 10 reps, who will do the most work?

a)

Bro A

b)

Bro B

c)

They both will do the same work

d)

Can't tell without knowing the weight they are lifting

270.

Two people are lifting the same weight as shown in the animation. If they both do 10 reps, who will supply the most power?

a)

Bro A

b)

Bro B

c)

They both will do the same work

d)

Can't tell without knowing the weight they are lifting

271.

Two movers applied a total force of 350 N to push chest up a ramp into a truck. If the work that they did 1,400 J, calculate the height of the ramp?

a)

4 m

b)

3 m

c)

2 m

d)

1 m

272.

The same force F pushes in three different ways on a box moving with a velocity v, as the drawings show. Rank the work done by the force F in ascending order (smallest first):

a)

A, B, C

b)

A, C, B

c)

B, A, C

d)

C, B, A

e)

C, A, B

273.

A person and an elevator are lifted at a constant velocity for by a cable to a height of 35 m and does 412,000 J of work in the process. What is the tension in the cable?

a)

11,800 N

b)

12,000 N

c)

42,000 N

d)

9,800 N

274.

750 J of work is done on a car jack to raise a car by 0.15 m. Calculate the upward exerted on the car.

a)

5,000 N

b)

113 N

c)

50 N

d)

11,300 N

275.

If this person supplies 81.2 W of power and does 637 J of work to do 5 reps, how much time does he take to do 5 reps?

a)

7.8 s

b)

8.0 s

c)

9.0 s

d)

5.8 s

276.

A motor produces 500.0 W of power in 15 s. How

much work is done?

a)

7,500 J

b)

33 J

c)

765 J

d)

8,000 J

277.

What is the maximum mass a crane can lift to a height of 10.5 m in 120 s, if the crane’s motor produces 3,500 W of power?

a)

4,080 kg

b)

2,700 kg

c)

3,123 kg

d)

3,000 kg

278.

If he weighs 700 N and climbs at a constant speed to the top of an 8 m vertical rope in 10 s. The average power expended by the him to overcome gravity is most nearly

a)

1.1 Watts

b)

87.5 Watts

c)

560 Watts

d)

875 Watts

e)

5,600 Watts

279.

Units of Power include which of the following?

I. Watt

II. Joule per second

III. Kilowatt-hour

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II, and III

280.

What makes electromagnets different from regular magnets?

a)

they can be switched off and on

b)

they use less energy

c)

they are more user-friendly

d)

they do not pollute the environment

281.

What is the device shown?

a)

Solenoid

b)

Electromagnet

c)

Generator

d)

Motor

282.

What happens when a compass is moved near a strong magnet?

a)

it points north

b)

it points toward the magnet

c)

it spins in circles

d)

it doesn't move

283.

The Right Hand Rule says that if you hold a wire in your right hand and point your thumb in the direction of the ______ current, the direction that your fingers curl is the direction of the _______.

a)

Positive, Magnetic Field

b)

Positive, Current

c)

Negative, Magnetic Field

d)

Negative, Current

284.

Does adding loops of wire to a solenoid increase or decrease its strength?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Both

d)

Neither

285.

___, ____, and ____ are magnetic metals.

a)

Iron, Nickel, Cobalt

b)

Copper, Chromium, Gadolinium

c)

Aluminum, Iron, Copper

d)

Cobalt, Mercury, Sodium

286.

What is the device shown?

a)

Electromagnet

b)

Solenoid

c)

Generator

d)

Motor

287.

Which kind of circuit only has one path for electricity to flow?

a)

Series

b)

Parallel

c)

Series and Parallel

288.

Which kind of circuit has more than one path for electricity to flow?

a)

Series

b)

Parallel

c)

Series and Parallel

289.

If a bulb is not working in a series circuit, what happens to the other bulbs?

a)

none will work

b)

the rest will work

290.

If a bulb is not working in a parallel circuit, what happens to the other bulbs?

a)

none will work

b)

the rest will work

291.

When a current flows through a wire, it creates a _______ around the wire.

a)

magnetic field

b)

magnetic pole

c)

compass

d)

attraction

292.

Which would NOT increase the strength of the magnetic field around a solenoid?

a)

Adding more coils of wire

b)

Adding an iron core

c)

Connecting it to a battery

d)

Reversing its orientation

293.

Which three materials would allow you to build an electromagnet?

a)

Battery, Wire, Nail

b)

Battery, Tape, Paper

c)

Wire, Nail, Paper Clip

d)

Sandpaper, Tape, Wire

294.

All of the following would cause a series circuit to stop working EXCEPT _______.

a)

Open switch

b)

Burned out bulb

c)

A cut wire

d)

Closed switch

295.

An electric current does NOT exist in ______ circuit.

a)

a closed

b)

a series

c)

a parallel

d)

an open

296.
A series circuit has ____ path(s) that the electric current can take. 
a)
One
b)
Two 
c)
Three 
d)
Four
297.
this is the symbol for a _____?
a)
switch
b)
light 
c)
battery
d)
wires
298.
In a parallel circuit, if one connection is broken, all of the connections stop working.
a)
True
b)
False
299.

What is this symbol?

a)

Ammeter

b)

Wire

c)

Bulb

d)

Voltmeter

300.
What kind of circuit is this?
a)
Series
b)
Consecutive
c)
Parallel
d)
Training
301.
When you flip a light switch on and off you are closing and opening a circuit.
a)
true
b)
false
302.
What is a Parallel circuit? 
a)
Has only one path 
b)
Has more than one path 
c)
Allows energy to travel through easily 
d)
Has only one light bulb
303.

What is this symbol?

a)

Closed Switch

b)

Resistor

c)

Cell

d)

Battery

304.

1. Which switch or switches must be closed to make the lamps light?

a)

Only switch a

b)

Only switch b

c)

Switches a and b

d)

Switches a , b and c

305.

What is this symbol?

a)

Wire

b)

Bulb

c)

Buzzer

d)

Ammeter

306.

If L2 is unscrewed from its holder, what will happen to L1?

a)

It will stay lit

b)

It will go out

c)

It will get dimmer

d)

It will disappear

307.

What is this Symbol?

a)

Motor

b)

Voltmeter

c)

Ammeter

d)

Buzzer

308.

Is this a Series or Parallel Circuit?

a)

Series

b)

Parallel

309.

Current is...

a)

how fast the electrons are moving

b)

the flow of electrical charge

c)

the power source

d)

the amount of energy gained/lost across two points

310.

Voltage is...

a)

the power

b)

the flow of electrical charge

c)

the amount of energy gained or lost across two points

d)

what opposes the flow of current

311.

Every circuit MUST have...

a)

A Power Source, Energy User and a Switch

b)

An Energy User, Switch and a Conducting Pathway

c)

A Power Source, Conducting Pathway and a Bulb

d)

A Power Source, Conducting Pathway and an Energy User

312.

In a Series Circuit the Current...

a)

is the same at every point

b)

is shared between the energy users

313.

In a Series circuit the Voltage is...

a)

the same at every point

b)

split between the energy users

314.

In a Parallel circuit the current is

a)

the same at every point

b)

split between the branches

315.

In a parallel circuit the voltage...

a)

remains the same

b)

is shared between the branches

316.
Current is measured in what unit?
a)
ohms
b)
volts
c)
watts
d)
amps
317.
Power is measured in what unit?
a)
amps
b)
volts
c)
watts
d)
ohms
318.
Resistance is measured in what unit?
a)
ohms
b)
amps
c)
watts
d)
volts
319.
What does the Greek letter Ω,  (i.e. Omega) represent?
a)
amps
b)
volts
c)
watts
d)
ohms
320.
what is the power of a lamp whose current is 6 A and the voltage across it is 120 V?
a)
120 W
b)
720 W
c)
16 W
d)
10 W
321.

What is an equation for electrical Equation for Power?

a)

Power = Potential Difference x Current (P=IV)

b)

Power = Potential Difference / Current (P=V/I)

c)

Power = Current / Potential Difference (P=I/V)

322.

How much charge flows through a wire in 80s if the current is a constant 5.4A?

a)

432C

b)

360C

c)

524C

d)

344C

323.
If the current through a circuit is 2 A and the resistance of a light bulb in the circuit is 10 Ohms, what is the voltage difference across the light bulb?
a)
5 V
b)
12 V
c)
0.2 V
d)
20 V
324.

What is this circuit symbol for?

a)

Thermistor

b)

Ammeter

c)

Variable Resistor

d)

Piece of wire

325.

Potential difference is the same as...?

a)

Voltage

b)

Current

c)

Power

d)

Coulombs

326.

What does voltage mean?

a)

The amount of energy per unit charge

b)

The amount of power per unit charge

c)

The amount of electrons per second

d)

The amount of seconds per charge

327.

What is the equation for energy transferred in a circuit?

a)

E=IVtE=IVt

b)

E=ItVE=\frac{I}{tV}

c)

E=IVtE=\frac{IV}{t}

d)

E=tIVE=\frac{t}{IV}

328.

State the equation that links power current and resistance

a)

power = current x resistance

b)

resistance = power / current

c)

power = (current)2 x resistance

d)

power = current x (resistance)2

329.

State the equation that links change, potential difference and energy

a)

Potential difference = energy x charge

b)

charge = potential difference x change

c)

energy = potential difference / charge

d)

energy = potential difference x charge

330.

State the equation that links charge , current and time

a)

Charge = current x time

b)

charge = current / time

c)

current = charge x time

d)

current = time / charge

331.

State the equation that links potential difference, current and resistance

a)

resistance = current / potential difference

b)

current = resistance x potential difference

c)

potential difference = current x resistance

d)

potential difference = current / potential difference

332.

State the units of energy

a)

Joules

b)

Watts

c)

Ohms

d)

Coulombs

333.

State the units of charge

a)

Coulombs

b)

Ohms

c)

Watts

d)

Joules

334.

What is the resistance of a bulb if a current of 0.5 A flows through it when there is a voltage of 12 V across it?

a)

24 Ω

b)

6 Ω

c)

24 A

d)

6 A

335.

State the SI units of time

a)

watts

b)

minutes

c)

hours

d)

seconds

336.

What is a beta particle made of?

a)

One proton

b)

A helium particle

c)

One electron

d)

One proton and one neutron

337.

Which of these processes describes a nuclear fusion reaction?

a)

A nucleus absorbs energy to produce lighter nuclei.

b)

A nucleus splits to produce energy and lighter nuclei

c)

Two nuclei bind together to produce energy and heavier nuclei.

d)

Two nuclei bind together to produce energy and a lighter nuclei.

338.

Of the main types of radiation emitted from naturally radioactive isotopes, which is the hardest to block?

a)

Alpha deca

b)

Gamma Decay

c)

Beta decay

d)

They are all blocked using the same method

339.
What is emitted during Beta Radiation?
a)
A high-energy Electron.
b)
Protons.
c)
Neutrons.
d)
Nuclei
340.
TRUE or FALSE: gamma changes the atomic number.
a)
True
b)
False
341.
What is emitted during Alpha Radiation?
a)
A helium nuclei.
b)
A helium atom
c)
Gamma Rays.
d)
Positrons
342.
What is radioactive decay?
a)
The spontaneous breakdown of an atomic nucleus resulting in only energy release
b)
The spontaneous breakdown of an atomic nucleus resulting in only matter release
c)
The spontaneous breakdown of an atomic nucleus resulting in a release of energy and matter
d)
The decay of the use of radios and the increased use of televisions.
343.
Which type of nuclear radiation is being emitted here?
a)
Alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma 
d)
none
344.
When does radioactive decay occur?
a)
When the nucleus of an isotope is unstable
b)
When the nucleus of an isotope is stable
c)
When the electrons of an isotope are spinning
d)
When the electrons of an isotope are shared with another isotope
345.
Isotopes of the same element have different ____________. 
a)
 numbers of protons  
b)
numbers of electrons
c)
 symbols 
d)
numbers of neutrons
346.
This is an example of...
a)
Fission  reaction
b)
Fusion reaction
c)
Decomposition reaction
d)
Decay
347.
Complete the nuclear equation and determine the type of decay that is occurring in this reaction. 
a)
alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma
d)
none
348.
How many protons does gold atom have?
a)
197
b)
79
c)
118
d)
276
349.
What is the mass of an alpha particle?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
350.
What is the definition of an isotope?
a)
An atom with different electron number to proton number
b)
An atom with different proton number from neutron number
c)
An atom with different number of protons from the periodic table
d)
An atom with a different number of neutrons from the periodic table
351.

Neutrons ......

a)

has positive electric charge with equal magnitude to that of an electron.

b)

has no net electric charge.

c)

has negative electric charge.

d)

orbiting the nucleus.

352.

What kind of force holds the nucleus together?

a)

Strong Nuclear Force

b)

Weak Nuclear Force

c)

Gravitational Force

d)

Electromagnetic Force

353.

What is the number of neutrons in Cesium?

a)

55 neutrons

b)

76 neutrons

c)

84 neutrons

d)

106 neutrons

e)

139 neutrons

354.

The atomic number of a given element is

equivalent to which of the following?

a)

Proton number in the nucleus

b)

Neutron number in the nucleus

c)

Sum of the protons and neutrons in the

nucleus

d)

Sum of the protons, neutrons and electrons

355.

If there are 146 neutrons in 238U, how many neutrons

are found in the nucleus of 235U?

a)

141

b)

143

c)

145

d)

147

356.
What is the SI unit used to measure force? 
a)
pounds 
b)
grams 
c)
newtons 
d)
friction
357.
As distance between two objects increase the pull of gravity 
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
358.
The force of gravity acting on an object is the object's ______.
a)
mass
b)
matter
c)
weight 
d)
friction 
359.
The amount of matter in an object is 
a)
pressure
b)
weight
c)
mass
d)
force
360.
Which of the following never changes no matter where in the universe?
a)
weight
b)
force
c)
mass
d)
pounds
361.
A person would weigh less on on the Moon than on the Earth because . . .
a)
Moon has more mass, and therefore more gravity
b)
Moon has less mass, and therefore more gravity
c)
Moon has more mass, and therefore less gravity
d)
Moon has less mass and therefore less gravity
362.
If Earth's mass was cut in half, what would happen to your mass?
a)
increase because gravitational force increases
b)
decrease because gravitational force decreases
c)
decrease because gravitational force increases
d)
nothing, mass is not affected by gravitational force
363.
What does this tool measure?
a)
weight
b)
meters
c)
mass
d)
force
364.

The force of gravity on Jupiter is a little more than 2 times the gravitational force on Earth.

If an object has a mass of 10 kg and a weight of 100 N on Earth, what would be the object's approximate mass and weight on Jupiter?

a)

10 kg and 100 N

b)

20 kg and 200 N

c)

100 kg and 1000 N

d)

10 kg and 200 N

365.
Venus, Mercury, Earth, and Mars are what type of planet?
a)
Gas Giants
b)
Ice Giants
c)
Terrestrial Planets
d)
Exterior Planets
366.
Which choice shows the correct order of the planets?
a)
Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
b)
Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Pluto
c)
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
d)
Saturn, Venus, Mars, Mercury, Jupiter, Neptune Mercury, Uranus
367.
What planet is it?
a)
Jupiter
b)
Saturn
c)
Uranus
d)
Venus
368.
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are what type of planets?
a)
Gas Giants
b)
Ice Giants
c)
Terrestrial Planets
d)
Exterior Planets
369.
The curved path in which a planet, satellite, or spacecraft moves in a circle around another object.  The path one object takes around another.
a)
rotate
b)
orbit
c)
moon
d)
revolve
370.
True or False
The planets are all equally distanced from each other.
a)
True
b)
False
371.

The distance light can travel in one year is ______________

a)

15,000 kilometers

b)

1 light-year

c)

15 Astronomical Units

d)

6,000 miles

372.

What unit of measurement is used to calculate distance in our universe?

a)

astronomical units

b)

kilometers

c)

light years

d)

parsecs

373.

True or False: The universe is expanding.

a)

True

b)

False

374.
How many high tides does a place have each day?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
2
375.
What causes tides?
a)
gravity
b)
wind
c)
spring
d)
neap
376.
What type of tide will occur at 9:30 a.m.?
a)
low 
b)
high 
c)
none
d)
high and low
377.
The bulge of water on the side of the Earth closest to the moon produces ___________.
a)
high tide
b)
low tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
378.
The Earth's axis is tilted _____ degrees.
a)
23.5
b)
25.3
c)
30.2
d)
24
379.
At position A, which hemisphere would have summer?
a)
Northern hemisphere
b)
Southern hemisphere
380.
What happens when the area in which you live tilts away from the sun?
a)
It is summer.
b)
It is spring.
c)
It is winter.
d)
It is fall.
381.
Why is the Equator warmest?
a)
Because it is closest to the sun.
b)
Because it receives the most direct sunlight
c)
Because no clouds form here.
d)
Because it is far from the sun
382.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 1?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
383.
What does the rotation of the earth cause us to experience?
a)
seasons
b)
year
c)
day & night
d)
eclipse
384.
How long does it take the earth to revolve once around the sun?
a)
12 hours
b)
24 hours
c)
30 days
d)
365.25 days
385.

If an object mass =20 Kg on the Earth, what would be it's weight on Earth given that the gravitational field strength on Earth is 10N/kg?

a)

20N

b)

200 kg

c)

0.2 kg

d)

200 N

386.

In A.C generator,by increasing the no. of turns in the coil,

a)

Decrease the Electromotive force (EMF)

b)

Electromotive force (EMF) remains the same

c)

Increases the Electromotive force (EMF)

d)

Electromotive force (EMF) becomes zero

387.

If the coil is placed perpendicular to field lines then the number of lines passing through the coil is:

a)

Minimum

b)

Maximum

c)

Zero

d)

May be maximum or minimum

388.

AC generator converts:

a)

Mechanical energy to electrical energy

b)

Electrical energy to mechanical energy

c)

Heat energy to mechanical energy

d)

Chemical energy to electrical energy

389.

The direction of induced emf or current is indicated by:

a)

Fleming’s left-hand rule

b)

Fleming’s right-hand rule

c)

Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction

d)

Ampere’s swimming rule

390.

In an a.c. generator, a coil with N turns, all of the same area A and total resistance R, rotates with frequency ω in a magnetic field B the maximum value of emf generated in the coil is:

a)

NABR

b)

NABω

c)

NABRω

d)

NAB

391.

When a coil is held stationary in magnetic field, the induced current in it:

a)

continuously changes

b)

randomly changes

c)

remains zero

d)

becomes maximum

392.

What is true of AC GENERATOR?

a)

It works on the principle of electromagnetic induction

b)

The mechanical energy of the rotation is converted into electrical energy

c)

A pair of slip rings are used in the AC generator

d)

All the above

393.

What determines the frequency of a.c. produced by a generator?

a)

Speed of rotation of coil

b)

The number of rotations of coil in one-second

c)

Both speed of rotation and number of rotation of coil in one-second

d)

None of these

394.

What does the index finger show you in the Fleming’s right-hand rule?

a)

Direction of current

b)

Motion of wire

c)

Direction of electric field

d)

Direction of magnetic field

395.

The Fleming's right-hand rule is used when ....

a)

motion causes current

b)

current causes motion

c)

current causes potential difference

d)

motion causes magnetic field

396.

In the picture shown, what will be the direction of the current in wire MN?

a)

Upward

b)

Downward

c)

Into the paper

d)

Out of the paper

397.

In a generator armature makes one full revolution, it goes through ………….. degrees of mechanical rotation.

a)

0

b)

90

c)

270

d)

360

398.

The AC voltage waveform is in the positive direction for some period of time and in the negative direction for some period of time. What is the name given to this waveform?

a)

Alternating wave

b)

Inverted wave

c)

Hertz wave

d)

sine wave

399.

In the diagram shown ,if the coil is moving anti-clockwise, mention the direction of the current on the left wire.

a)

Upward

b)

Downward

c)

Into the paper

d)

Out of the paper

400.

In an AC generator, the contacts are made from a soft but highly conductive material, usually carbon, and are called....

a)

Coils

b)

Armatures

c)

Slip Rings

d)

Brushes

401.

The electricity generated from the power plant is ……

a)

Alternating Current

b)

Direct Current

c)

Delayed Current

d)

Eddy Current

402.

Super-heated steam is used to turn ………..

a)

Transformer

b)

Battery

c)

Turbine

d)

Toothed Gear

403.

What is the name of the effect caused by the wire when it is moved across a magnetic field?

a)

Induced magnetism

b)

Electromagnetic induction

c)

Electromagnetism

d)

Turning effect of coil

404.

Electric current from a generating plant is:

a)

direct current transmitted at high voltages, but usually used at low voltages

b)

alternating current transmitted at low voltages, but usually used at high voltages.

c)

alternating current transmitted at high voltages, but usually used at low voltages.

d)

direct current transmitted at low voltages, but usually used at high voltages.

405.

In an AC generator, the wire loop which is mounted so that it rotates within a magnetic field is called the.......

a)

Coil

b)

Armature

c)

Slip Rings

d)

Brushes

406.

Which of the following is the basic SI unit for electric charge?

a)

ampere

b)

coulomb

c)

ohm

d)

volt

407.

There is a current of 0.24 A through a lamp for 40 minutes.

How much charge passes through the lamp?

a)

576 C

b)

9.6 C

c)

0.60 C

d)

0.01 C

408.

When a resistor is connected across a battery of 2.8 V there is a current of 0.35 A.

What is the resistance of the resistor?

a)

8.00 Ω

b)

1.02 Ω

c)

0.98 Ω

d)

0.13 Ω

409.

A car headlamp when connected to a 12 V battery converts energy at a rate of 50 W.

How much energy is converted when it is switched on for 5 minutes?

a)

2 J

b)

120 J

c)

300 J

d)

15 000 J

410.

A current of 2.0 A passes through a component of resistance 24 Ω.

What is the rate of energy transfer?

a)

6 W

b)

12 W

c)

48 W

d)

96 W

411.

The diagram shows part of a circuit.

What is the current X ?

a)

0.6 A

b)

2.0 A

c)

4.8 A

d)

6.2 A

412.

The diagram shows a junction in a circuit.

What is the current Y ?

a)

+ 0.2 A

b)

- 0.2 A

c)

+ 1.8 A

d)

- 1.8 A

413.

The diagram shows a circuit. The current in the circuit is 0.8 A. What is the e.m.f of the cell E2?

a)

0.56 V

b)

0.80 V

c)

2.80 V

d)

4.80 V

414.

A student is to measure the resistance of a lamp. Which circuit should he use?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

415.

The diagram shows a network of resistors. What is the total resistance between points P and Q?

a)

1.8 Ω

b)

4.0 Ω

c)

8.7 Ω

d)

18.0 Ω

416.
The velocity of light in vacuum is _______ m/s
a)
3x108
b)
3x1012
c)
3x106
d)
3x1010
417.
How does light behave as it enters these mediums?
a)
continue its path as straight line.
b)
bends toward the normal
c)
bends away from the normal
d)
reflects
418.
Swimming pools and the ocean look shallower than they really are due to:
a)
reflection 
b)
dispersion
c)
refraction
d)
total internal reflection
419.
A ray of light traveling from air into crown glass strikes the surface at an angle of 30 degrees. What is the angle of refraction? (air n=1, crown glass n=1.532)
a)
39.7 degrees
b)
19.2 degrees
c)
59.1 degrees
d)
12.3 degrees
420.
Light has the lowest velocity in which medium?
flint glass n=1.70
barium glass n=1.60
crown glass n=1.523
water n=1.33
diamond n=2.45
a)
diamond
b)
water
c)
flint glass
d)
barium glass
421.

What we call the final ray coming out of the glass slab?

a)

Incident ray

b)

Refracted Ray

c)

Reflected ray

d)

Emergent Ray

422.

Which colour bends the maximum in the prism?

a)

Violet

b)

Indigo

c)

Red

d)

Green

423.

Optical fibre based on the principle of

a)

total internal reflection.

b)

total internal refraction.

c)

diffraction.

d)

interference.

424.

A ray of light approaches a jar of honey at an angle of 30°. If the angle of refraction is 19.5°,what is the refractive index of honey?

a)

1.49

b)

1.50

c)

1.05

d)

1.51

425.

A student placed a pencil in a cup of water. The pencil appears broken because light-

a)

light travelling from water to air bends away from the normal making the pencil under water look closer to the surface

b)

light travelling from water to air bends towards the normal making the pencil under water look further away

c)

light travelling from air to water bends towards the normal making the pencil under water look higher up

d)

light travelling from air to water bends away from the normal making the pencil under water look closer to the surface

426.

What is the unit of force?

a)

Meter

b)

Newton

c)

Newton meter

d)

Centimeter

427.

Moment is a measure of the turning effect of a force.

a)

True

b)

False

428.

Pivot is the point about which a force is turned by an object.

a)

True

b)

False

429.

Principle of moments states that an object is balanced when clockwise moments are equal to anticlockwise moments.

a)

True

b)

False

430.

Moment = force / distance from pivot

a)

True

b)

False

431.

The greater the force, the greater its turning effect.

a)

True

b)

False

432.

The further the force is from the pivot, the greater its turning effect.

a)

True

b)

False

433.

The bigger the moment of a force, the smaller its turning effect.

a)

True

b)

False

434.

What is the moment acting on the left side of the pivot?

a)

2 Nm

b)

20 Nm

c)

200 Nm

d)

0.2 Nm

435.

What is the moment acting on the right side of the pivot?

a)

2 Nm

b)

20 Nm

c)

200 Nm

d)

0.2 Nm

436.

The beam is balanced.

a)

True

b)

False

437.

A force of 4 N acts on a lever 2 m from the pivot. What is the moment?

a)

8 Nm

b)

6 Nm

c)

2 Nm

d)

3 Nm

438.

One way to increase the turning force on a spanner is to:

a)

Use a shorter spanner

b)

Use a longer pivot

c)

Use a longer spanner

439.

James weighs 200 N and sits 1 m from the pivot. Jane weighs 100 N. How far from the pivot must Jane be to balance the beam?

a)

0.5 m

b)

1 m

c)

2 m

d)

4 m

440.

A cat weighing 50 N is 1 m from the pivot. How far away does a mouse weighing 0.5 N have to be to balance the beam?

a)

1 m

b)

10 m

c)

100 m

d)

1000 m

441.

A force exerts a moment of 2 Nm. What is the distance of the force from the pivot?

a)

2 m

b)

4 m

c)

1 m

d)

0.5 m

442.

A force exerts a moment of 2 Nm. What is the distance of the force from the pivot?

a)

1 m

b)

0.5 m

c)

0.2 m

d)

0.25 m

443.

A car moves along a level road.

The diagram shows all of the horizontal forces acting on the car.

Which statement is correct?

a)

The car is slowing down.

b)

The car is speeding up.

c)

The car is moving at a constant speed.

d)

The car is moving backwards.

444.

Which force and distance produce the smallest moment about a pivot?

a)

a 6.0 N force at a perpendicular distance of 4.0m from the pivot

b)

a 7.0 N force at a perpendicular distance of 6.0 m from the pivot.

c)

a 10 N force at a perpendicular distance of 4.0 m from the pivot

d)

a 12 N force at a perpendicular distance of 3.0 m from the pivot.

445.

A resultant force of 4.0N acts on an object of mass 0.50 kg for 3.0 seconds.

What is the change in velocity caused by this force?

a)

4.0 m / s

b)

6.0 m / s

c)

12 m / s

d)

24 m / s

446.

The diagram shows a tug-of-war between team X and team Y. The arrows show the forces exerted by the teams on the rope.

What is the size of the resultant force on the rope and in which direction does the resultant force act?

a)

size of resultant force = 75 N; direction of resultant force = to the left

b)

size of resultant force = 75 N; direction of resultant force = to the right.

c)

size of resultant force = 725 N; direction of resultant force = to the left

d)

size of resultant force = 725 N; direction of resultant force = to the right.

447.

Which property of an object cannot be changed by a force?

a)

mass

b)

motion

c)

shape

d)

size

448.

An unstretched spring obeys Hooke’s law and has a length of 10 cm. A load with a mass of 2.0 kg is hung from it, and its length becomes 14 cm.

The load is now increased to 6.0 kg, and the new length of the spring is Y. The limit of proportionality is not reached.

What is Y?

a)

22 cm

b)

26 cm

c)

30 cm

d)

42 cm

449.

A spring is suspended from a stand. Loads are added and the extensions are measured.

Which graph shows the result of plotting extension against load?

a)
b)
c)
d)
450.

A ball is dropped from a table-top. Air resistance may be ignored.

Which row describes the velocity and the acceleration of the ball at point X

a)

acceleration = constant; velocity = constant

b)

acceleration = constant; velocity = increasing

c)

acceleration = increasing; velocity = constant

d)

acceleration = increasing; velocity = increasing

451.

The diagram shows the speed-time graph for a car.

Which area represents the distance travelled while the car is accelerating?

a)

X

b)

X + Y

c)

Y

d)

Y - X

452.
What is the moment acting on the seesaw?
a)
1.6Nm
b)
15Nm
c)
16N
d)
4Nm
453.

A wooden bar is pivoted at its centre so that it can rotate freely. Two equal forces F are applied to the bar.

In which diagram is the turning effect greatest?

a)
b)
c)
d)
454.

A hole is drilled in a square tile. The diagram shows the tile hanging freely on a nail.

Where is the centre of mass of the tile?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

455.

A balloon and a mass are attached to a rod that is pivoted at P.

The balloon is filled with helium, a gas less dense than air, so that it applies an upward force on the rod.

The rod is horizontal and stationary.

Which action causes the rod to rotate clockwise?

a)

Move both the balloon and mass 10 cm to the left.

b)

Move both the balloon and mass 10 cm to the right.

c)

Move both the balloon and mass to the 25 cm mark

d)

Move the balloon to the 20 cm mark and the mass to the 30 cm mark.

456.
Link between velocity, momentum and mass
a)
momentum = velocity x mass
b)
momentum = mass / velocity
c)
momentum = velocity / mass
d)
momentum = mass x momentum
e)
momentum = velocity / momentum
457.
Link between pressure, force and area
a)
pressure = force / area
b)
pressure = force x area
c)
pressure = area / force
d)
pressure = force x pressure
e)
pressure = area / pressure
458.

Link between moment, force and (perdindicular) distance (to pivot)

a)

moment = force x distance

b)

moment = force / distance

c)

moment = distance / force

d)

moment = force / moment

e)

momentum = forks x distant ants

459.
Link between force, mass and acceleration
a)
force = mass x acceleration
b)
force = acceleration / mass
c)
force = mass / acceleration
d)
force = mass x force
e)
force = acceleration / force
460.

A ball of mass 0.50 kg falls and hits the floor at 10 m / s.

It rebounds at speed 8.0 m / s, as shown.

The collision between the ball and the floor lasts for 0.50 s.

What is the average force acting on the ball during the collision?

a)

2.0 N upwards

b)

2.0 N downwards

c)

18 N upwards

d)

18 N downwards

461.

A gas molecule strikes the wall of a container. The molecule rebounds with the same speed.

What happens to the kinetic energy and what happens to the momentum of the molecule?

a)

Kinetic energy changes; momentum changes

b)

Kinetic energy changes; momentum stays the same.

c)

Kinetic energy stays the same; momentum changes

d)

Kinetic energy stays the same; momentum stays the same.

462.

A tennis ball of mass 0.060 kg travels horizontally at a speed of 25 m/s. The ball hits a tennis racket and rebounds

horizontally at a speed of 40 m/s.

The ball is in contact with the racket for 50 ms.

What force does the racket exert on the ball?

a)

0.018 N

b)

0.078 N

c)

18 N

d)

78 N

463.

Six wavefronts are shown in the diagram. What is the wavelength of the wave?

a)

5 cm

b)

6 cm

c)

7.5 cm

d)

30 cm

464.

What is the reflected wave of the incident wave below?

a)
b)
c)
d)
465.

Which of the following quantities of the wave will be changed during reflection? (Can choose more than one answer)

a)

Wave speed

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

d)

Period

e)

Travelling direction

466.

Which of the following quantities of the wave MUST be changed during refraction? (Can choose more than one answer)

a)

Wave speed

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

d)

Period

e)

Travelling direction

467.

Which of the following quantities of the wave MUST keep the same during refraction? (Can choose more than one answer)

a)

Wave speed

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

d)

Period

e)

Travelling direction

468.

Water waves below travels from deep region to shallow region. What is the refracted waves of the water waves?

a)
b)
c)
d)
469.

Diffraction occurs if the water waves travels through __________.

a)

Shallow region

b)

A gap between barriers

c)

A floating ball on the water surface

470.

The diagram shows the diffraction of water waves. If the gap becomes smaller, which diagram correctly shows the new diffracted waves?

a)
b)
c)
d)
471.

The diagram shows the diffraction of water waves. If the more water is added to the water tank, which diagram correctly shows the new diffracted waves?

a)
b)
c)
d)
472.

This mug is __________________

a)

opaque because light can pass through it.

b)

transparent because light cannot pass through it.

c)

opaque because light cannot pass through it.

d)

transparent because light can pass through it.

473.

This glass is __________________ .

a)

opaque because light can pass through it.

b)

transparent because light cannot pass through it

c)

opaque because light cannot pass through it

d)

transparent because light can pass through it

474.

Choose which of the following is refraction of wave?

a)
b)
c)
475.

During refraction, which of the properties will change?

a)

Frequency

b)

Wavelength

c)

Amplitude

476.

Waves equation relates which properties?

a)

speed

b)

wavelength

c)

frequency

d)

Amplitude

477.

Which is term corresponds to a surface that travels with a wave and is perpendicular to the direction in which the wave travels?

a)

transverse

b)

wavefront

c)

rays

478.

Sound waves of frequency 2.0kHz travel through a substance at a speed of 800m/s. What is the wavelength of the waves?

a)

0.40m

b)

2.5m

c)

400m

d)

1600m

479.

The frequency of a wave is doubled. The speed of the wave does not change. What happens to the wavelength of the wave?

a)

It becomes four times as large.

b)

It does not change.

c)

It doubles.

d)

It halves.

480.

What is the number of wavefronts per second that pass a fixed point?

a)

the amplitude of the wave

b)

the frequency of the wave

c)

the speed of the wave

d)

the wavelength of thewave

481.

What is the frequency of a wave?

a)

the distance that a wavefront travels every second

b)

the distance from one wavefront to the next

c)

the number of wavefronts produced per second

d)

the time taken for a wavefront to pass a certain point

482.

Light enters a glass block at an angle of incidence of 46°. The light refracts at an angle of refraction of 26°. What is the refractive index of the glass?

a)

0.57

b)

0.61

c)

1.64

d)

1.77

483.

A plane mirror is fitted to a wall. Which statement about the image formed by the mirror is correct?

a)

The image is real.

b)

The image is left to right (laterally inverted).

c)

The image is smaller than the object.

d)

The image is upside down.

484.

Which group contains only electromagnetic waves?

a)

light waves, radio waves, γ-rays

b)

light waves, radio waves, sound waves

c)

light waves, sound waves, γ-rays

d)

radio waves, sound waves, γ-rays

485.

How do infra-red waves differ from ultraviolet waves?

a)

Infra-red waves are longitudinal.

b)

Infra-red waves have a lower speed in vacuo (in a vacuum).

c)

Infra-red waves have lower frequencies.

d)

Infra-red waves have smaller wavelengths.

486.

Which list shows electromagnetic waves in order of increasing frequency?

a)

visible light, X-rays, γ-rays

b)

visible light, γ-rays, X-rays

c)

X-rays, γ-rays, visible light

d)

γ-rays, X-rays, visible light

487.

Which statement about ultraviolet waves is correct?

a)

They are used in television remote controllers.

b)

They can be detected by the human eye.

c)

They travel as longitudinal waves.

d)

They have the same speed in a vacuum as radio waves.

488.

The diagrams show water waves that move more slowly after passing into shallow water. Which diagram shows what happens to the waves?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

489.

The wave reaches point P. What is the name of the effect that causes the wave to reach point P?

a)

diffraction

b)

dispersion

c)

reflection

d)

refraction

490.

The diagram represents circular wavefronts coming from point S. The wavefronts strike a barrier and are reflected so that they appear to come from point S1.

a)
b)
c)
d)
491.

A water wave moves quickly in deep water. The wave now enters shallow water and its speed decreases. Which row shows what happens to the frequency of the wave, and what happens to thewavelength of the wave?

a)

Frequency: decreases. Wavelength: decreases.

b)

Frequency: decreases. Wavelength: does not change.

c)

Frequency: does not change. Wavelength: decreases.

d)

Frequency: does not change. Wavelength: does not change.

492.

The diagram shows a water wave passing through a gap in a harbour wall. The wavefronts curveround the wall and reach a small boat in the harbour. What is the name of this curving effect, and how can the gap be changed so that the wavefronts do not reach the boat?

a)

name of effect: diffraction. change to the gap: make the gap slightly bigger.

b)

name of effect: diffraction. change to the gap: make the gap slightly smaller.

c)

name of effect: refraction. change to the gap: make the gap slightly bigger.

d)

name of effect: refraction. change to the gap: make the gap slightly smaller.

493.

Which waves are longitudinal?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

494.

Waves travel more quickly on the surface of water when the water is deep. A stone is dropped at point X into a pool of varying depth. The diagram shows the first wavefront on the surface of the pool. The region between X and which labelled point is likely to be the deepest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

495.

The diagram shows the surface of water in a ripple tank. A wave travels in the direction of the arrow towards a gap in a barrier. What happens to the wave as it passes through the gap, and what happens to the shape of the wavefronts after passing through the gap?

a)

what happens at the gap: diffraction. shape after passing through the gap: curved.

b)

what happens at the gap: diffraction. shape after passing through the gap: straight.

c)

what happens at the gap: refraction. shape after passing through the gap: curved.

d)

what happens at the gap: refraction. shape after passing through the gap: straight.

496.

A boy throws a small stone into a pond. Waves spread out from where the stone hits the waterand travel to the side of the pond. The boy notices that eight waves reach the side of the pond in a time of 5.0s. What is the frequency of the waves?

a)

0.20Hz

b)

0.63Hz

c)

1.6Hz

d)

40Hz

497.

Water waves can be used to show reflection, refraction and diffraction. For each of these, which row shows whether or not the speed of the water waves changes?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

498.

A vertical stick is dipped up and down in water at P. In two seconds, three wave crests are produced on the surface of the water. Which statement is correct?

a)

Distance X is the amplitude of the waves.

b)

Distance Y is the wavelength of the waves.

c)

Each circle represents a wavefront

d)

The frequency of the waves is 3Hz.

499.

Sound waves of frequency 2.0kHz travel through a substance at a speed of 800m/ s. What is the wavelength of the waves?

a)

0.40m

b)

2.5m

c)

400m

d)

1600m

500.

A student investigates a radioactive source that emits only alpha-particles. Without any source

nearby, the detector shows a low reading. The source and thick cardboard are placed near the detector, as shown:


What is the reading on the detector now, and why?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

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IGCSE 1 & 3

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IGCSE 1 & 3

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9th - 12th Grade