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Worksheets

IGCSE 1 & 3

Total questions: 499

Worksheet time: 11hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

-

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

2.

Which of the following measuring tools is used to measure capacity?

a)
b)
c)
3.

What unit of measurement is used in measuring weight?

a)

Kilogram and gram

b)

Liter and mililiter

c)

Meter and centimeter

4.

What unit of measurement is used in measuring length?

a)

Liter and milliliter

b)

Meter and centimeter

c)

Kilogram and gram

5.

What unit of measurement is used in measuring capacity?

a)

Kilogram and gram

b)

Meter and centimeter

c)

Liter and milliliter

6.
Which measurement would you use to measure the following?
the volume of a soda bottle
a)
centimeters
b)
liters
c)
kilograms
d)
grams
7.

how many liters is 1000 mL?

a)

1

b)

10

c)

100

d)

1000

8.

Choose ALL of the tools that you could use to measure weight.

a)
b)
c)
d)
9.

Choose the TWO tools that you could use to measure length.

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

11.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

12.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

13.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

14.

Four students measure a time interval that is known to be 1.734 s.The measurement recorded by each student is shown.Which measurement is the most accurate?

a)

1 s

b)

1.7 s

c)

1.83 s

d)

1.604 s

15.

A student intends to measure accurately the diameter of a wire (known to be approximately 1 mm) and the internal diameter of a pipe (known to be approximately 2 cm).

What are the most appropriate instruments for the student to use to make these measurements [(i) wire, (ii) pipe]?

a)

(i) calipers, (ii) calipers

b)

(i) calipers, (ii) micrometer

c)

(i) micrometer, (ii) calipers

d)

(i) micrometer, (ii) micrometer

16.

What does this image measure

a)

volume

b)

mass

c)

length

d)

density

17.

Which of the following equation represent error in measurement?

a)

Error = Measured Value - True Value

b)

Error = 1 - True Value

c)

Error = True Value + Measured Value

d)

Error = 1 - Measured Value

18.

Which of the following shows a precise but not accurate data?

a)
b)
c)
d)
19.

The imperfection in experimental technique or procedure is an example of .....

a)

Environmental error

b)

Parallax error

c)

Random error

d)

Systematic error

20.

Which of the following shows an accurate but not precise data

a)
b)
c)
d)
21.

The S.I. unit for time is

a)

minute

b)

seconds

c)

hours

d)

days

22.

The S.I. unit for current is

a)

volt

b)

ohms

c)

ampere

d)

watt

23.

The S.I. unit for light intensity is

a)

joule

b)

watt

c)

candela

d)

kelvin

24.

The S.I. unit for length is

a)

yard

b)

meter

c)

foot

d)

inches

25.

The physical quantities other than base quantities are termed as

a)

professional quantities

b)

energetic quantities

c)

dependent quantities

d)

derived quantities

26.

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

a)

displacement

b)

velocity

c)

force

d)

mass

27.

Which of the following is a vector quantity

a)

pressure

b)

force

c)

speed

d)

distance

28.

The S.I. prefix  μ\mu  indicates 

a)

 10−310^{-3}  

b)

 10−210^{-2}  

c)

 10+610^{+6} 

d)

 10−610^{-6}  

29.

The S.I. prefix centi indicates x 10−210^{-2} . Which option below correctly indicates the prefixes milli and giga 

a)

10−3 10^{-3\ } and 10910^9

b)

 10310^3  and  10610^6 

c)

10−910^{-9} and  10910^9 

d)

10−910^{-9} and 10610^6 

30.

Which pair of units are both S.I. base units?

a)

meter, degree celsius

b)

newton, kilogram

c)

ampere, kelvin

d)

joule, seconds

31.

The S.I. prefix hecto indicates x 10210^2 . Which option below correctly indicates the prefixes mega and nano

a)

 10610^6  and  10910^9  

b)

 10−610^{-6}  and  10310^3  

c)

 10^6  and  10−910^{-9}  

d)

 10310^3  and  10−910^{-9}  

32.

What is the least count of a metre scale?

a)

1.0 cm

b)

0.1 cm

c)

0.01 cm

d)

0.001 cm

33.

A vernier calipers can be used to measure a certain quantity. Which quantity can it measure?

a)

temperature

b)

length

c)

pressure

d)

density

34.

A student uses a measuring cylinder to measure the volume of quantity of water.


Which of the following procedures would make her measurement less accurate?

a)

reading the level from the bottom of the meniscus

b)

using the largest measuring cylinder possible

c)

keeping her eyes level with the water surface

d)

making sure the cylinder is perfectly vertical

35.

The diagram shows four identical spheres placed between two wooden blocks on a ruler.


What is the diameter of one sphere?

a)

1.0 cm

b)

2.0 cm

c)

3.0 cm

d)

4.0 cm

36.

A pendulum is swinging. Five students each measure the time it takes to swing through ten complete swings.

Three students measure the time as17.2 s. Another student measures it as 16.9 s, and the fifth student measures it as 17.0 s.

What is the average period of the pendulum?

a)

1.69 s

b)

1.70 s

c)

1.71 s

d)

1.72 s

37.

A student has a stack of 20 identical coins. The figure shows the student measuring the height of the stack using a ruler.

The student correctly determines the height of the stack as 7.7 cm.

Calculate the average thickness of one coin.

a)

15.4 cm

b)

3.85 cm

c)

0.77 cm

d)

0.39 cm

38.

A student has been told to find the density of some liquid paraffin by measuring its mass and its volume.

Which piece of laboratory equipment should she use to measure the volume of the liquid paraffin?

a)

Beaker

b)

Stopwatch

c)

Metre rule

d)

Measuring cylinder

39.

A student has been told to find the density of some liquid paraffin by measuring its mass and its volume.

Which piece of laboratory equipment should she use to find the mass of the liquid paraffin?

a)

Top pan balance

b)

Measuring cylinder

c)

Metre rule

d)

Stopwatch

40.

What is the most accurate and precise method to measure the thickness of a coin?

a)

Use a top pan balance.

b)

Use a micrometer screw gauge.

c)

Use a ruler and look at the scale perpendicularly.

d)

Use the displacement method with water in a measuring cylinder.

41.

The diagram shows the height of a stack of identical coins.

What is the thickness of one coin?

a)

0.20 mm

b)

2.0 mm

c)

0.24 cm

d)

2.0 cm

42.

A student is asked to find the volume of a small irregularly-shaped piece of rock.

He has the following apparatus available.

Which apparatus must the student use to find the volume of the small piece of rock?

a)

balance and rule

b)

rule only

c)

balance and measuring cylinder

d)

measuring cylinder only

43.

Which instrument is used to measure accurately the diameter of a thin metal wire?

a)

30 cm ruler

b)

measuring tape

c)

metre rule

d)

micrometer screw gauge

44.

Water drips from a tap into a measuring cylinder.

The table shows the volume of water in the cylinder every minute for four minutes.

What is the average volume of water collected in the cylinder each minute?

a)

22 cm3

b)

28 cm3

c)

56 cm3

d)

57 cm3

45.

What is the typical accuracy of a metre rule?

a)

0.1 cm

b)

0.01 cm

c)

0.001 cm

d)

0.01 mm

46.

What instrument is used to measure small distances of a few centimeters?

a)

Measuring cylinder

b)

Trundle wheel

c)

Ruler

d)

Tape measure

47.

Which of the following is a vector quantity?

a)

Volume

b)

Weight

c)

Energy

d)

Mass

48.

What is the standard human reaction time for an alert person?

a)

0.1 s

b)

0.25 s

c)

0.5 s

d)

1 s

49.

Which device is typically used to measure the volume of liquids?

a)

Trundle wheel

b)

Tape measure

c)

Ruler

d)

Measuring cylinder

50.

What is the difference between distance and displacement?

a)

Distance has direction, displacement does not

b)

Distance is always greater than displacement

c)

Both are vectors

d)

Distance is a scalar, displacement is a vector

51.

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

a)

Acceleration

b)

Weight

c)

Speed

d)

Displacement

52.

What is the formula to calculate the total time taken in a stopwatch measurement?

a)

Total time = start time / finish time

b)

Total time = finish time - start time

c)

Total time = finish time + start time

d)

Total time = finish time * start time

53.

What is the purpose of taking multiple readings in physics?

a)

To reduce the impact of measurement errors

b)

To make calculations easier

c)

To increase the time taken

d)

To confuse the results

54.

Which of the following describes speed?

a)

Velocity with magnitude only

b)

Distance per unit time with direction

c)

Distance per unit time without direction

d)

Displacement per unit time

55.

What is the resultant vector of a 60 N force to the right and a 100 N force upward?

a)

117 N at 59° from the horizontal

b)

60 N at 30° from the horizontal

c)

160 N at 45° from the horizontal

d)

100 N at 60° from the vertical

56.

What is the primary use of a trundle wheel?

a)

Measuring time

b)

Measuring small distances

c)

Measuring large distances

d)

Measuring volume

57.

Which of the following is true about mass?

a)

It is a vector quantity

b)

It has only magnitude

c)

It changes with location

d)

It is measured in Newtons

58.

What is the correct method to calculate the diameter of a ball-bearing?

a)

Total length divided by the number of ball-bearings

b)

Total length multiplied by the number of ball-bearings

c)

Total length plus the number of ball-bearings

d)

Total length minus the number of ball-bearings

59.

Which of the following is NOT a method for measuring time intervals?

a)

Timer

b)

Stopwatch

c)

Stop-clock

d)

Measuring cylinder

60.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

61.

A tunnel has a length of 50 km. A car takes 20 min to travel between the two ends of the tunnel. What is the average speed of the car?

a)

2.5 km / h

b)

16.6 km / h

c)

150 km / h

d)

1000 km / h

62.
a)

pole 1 and pole 2.

b)

pole 2 and pole 3.

c)

pole 3 and pole 4.

d)

pole 4 and pole 5.

63.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

64.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

65.

A small steel ball is dropped from a low balcony. Ignoring air resistance, which statement describes its motion?

a)

It falls with decreasing acceleration.

b)

It falls with constant acceleration.

c)

It falls with decreasing speed.

d)

It falls with constant speed.

66.

Which speed/ time graph applies to an object at rest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

67.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

68.
a)

10 m

b)

20 m

c)

100 m

d)

200 m

69.
a)

150 m

b)

300 m

c)

600 m

d)

1200 m

70.
a)

4.0 s

b)

6.0 s

c)

10 s

d)

16 s

71.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

72.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

73.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

74.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

75.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

76.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

77.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

78.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

79.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

80.

Scott travels north 5 miles and then goes west 3 miles before coming straight back south 2 miles. What is his distance?

a)

10 miles

b)

7 miles

c)

8 miles

d)

6 miles

81.

Billy runs 400 meters to Andy's house, turns around, and runs 400 meters back home. What is Billy's displacement?

a)

0 meters

b)

400 meters

c)

800 meters

d)

1600 meters

82.

Jerry walked from home to school, then from the school to the park. What is his total distance?

a)

2 km

b)

5 km

c)

8 km

d)

10 km

83.

Jerry walked from home to school, then from the school to the park. What is his total displacement?

a)

2 km

b)

5 km

c)

8 km

d)

10 km

84.

The standard (SI) unit for measuring distance is the ________ .

a)

mile

b)

foot

c)

kilometer

d)

meter

85.

From the figure, what is the displacement?

a)

20 meters

b)

25 meters

c)

15 meters

d)

25 meters NE

86.
Liza is swimming laps from one end of a 50 meter pool to the other. Going from one end to the other is considered one lap. If she swims four complete laps, which statement is TRUE?
a)
Her distance and displacement are both zero.
b)
Her distance is zero, but her displacement is 200 meters.
c)
Her distance is 200 meters, but her displacement is zero.
d)
Her distance and displacement are both 200 meters.
87.

The change in an objects position from the final position to initial position.

a)

displacement

b)

distance

c)

motion

d)

reference point

88.
In 2015, Shea-Z ran 1600 m in 9 minutes, in 2017 his speed was 160 m/min.  In which year was Shea-Z's speed best?
a)
2017, because he ran it in less time
b)
2015, because his speed was 178 m/min
c)
2017, because his speed was 160 m/min
d)
Neither, his speed was the same both years
89.
A jet airliner flies 4100 km from New York City to San Francisco in 4.25 hours.  What is its average speed?
a)
964.71 km/hr
b)
96.47 km/hr
c)
17,425 km/hr
d)
174.25 km/hr
90.
Bill jogs 400 meters to Andy's house, turns around, and runs 400 meters back home.  He does so in 267 seconds.  What is Bill's average speed?
a)
about 3 m/s
b)
about 1.5 m/s
c)
0
d)
about 4 m/s
91.
What is the formula to calculate speed?
a)
S = t/d
b)
S = d/t
c)
S = d x t
d)
S = t x d
92.
A train travels 25 km in .5 hrs. How fast is the train going?
a)
25 miles/hr
b)
5 miles/hr
c)
125 km/hr
d)
50 km/hr
93.
What is happening at D?
a)
Stationary
b)
Accelerating
c)
Fast steady speed; moving away from the starting position
d)
Slower steady speed; moving away from the starting position
94.
What is happening at A?
a)
Stationary
b)
Accelerating
c)
Slower steady speed; moving away from the starting position
d)
Steady speed; returning to start position
95.
Which runner won the race?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
96.
How long did it take this object to travel 10 m?
a)
0 s
b)
10 s
c)
15 s
d)
20 s
97.
What is this graph showing?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration (speeding up)
c)
Deceleration (slowing down)
d)
No motion
98.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
99.
How many times does this object STOP moving?
a)
None
b)
Once
c)
Twice
d)
Three times
100.
How fast is the object traveling between points B and C?
a)
1 km/hr
b)
0 km/hr
c)
There is no way to tell from this graph
d)
0.9 km/hr
101.

What is speed with a specific direction?

a)

Average Speed

b)

Velocity

c)

Vectors

d)

Time

102.

A measure of how fast something moves in a given amount of time.

a)

Speed

b)

Distance

c)

Time

d)

Velocity

103.

Which of these choices is the formula for average speed?

a)
b)
c)
104.
What is happening in this graph from point B to C?
a)
The object is going down a hill.
b)
The object is returning to its starting location.
c)
The object is slowing down.
d)
The object is staying still.
105.
What is velocity?
a)
the quickness of an object
b)
the location of an object
c)
acceleration
d)
speed in a specific direction
106.

Which formula is used to find average velocity?

a)

v‾=vf−vo2\overline{v}=\frac{v_f-v_o}{2}

b)

v‾=vf+vo2\overline{v}=\frac{v_f+v_o}{2}

c)

v‾=vf+vo\overline{v}=v_f+v_o

d)

v‾=vf+vo\overline{v}=v_f+v_o

107.

A bike starting at rest reaches a final velocity of 8.0 m/s. What is the cyclist's average velocity?

a)

0 m/s

b)

16 m/s

c)

2.0 m/s

d)

4.0 m/s

108.

A car travels at a constant speed of 15.0m/s for 20.0 seconds. How far does it travel?

a)

300. m

b)

35.0 m

c)

5.0 m

d)

500 m

109.

A bicyclist averages 4m/s, as she steadily slows to a stop. What was her initial velocity?

a)

0 m/s

b)

8 m/s

c)

2.0 m/s

d)

4.0 m/s

110.
Jack has a rock. The rock has a mass of 14g and a volume of 2cm3. What is the density of the rock?
a)
7 mL
b)
7 g/cm3
c)
28 g/cm3
d)
1/7 g/cm3
111.
What is the volume of Object X?
a)
10.0 cm3
b)
15.0 cm3
c)
20.0 cm3
d)
25.0 cm3
112.
What is the density of water?
a)
0 g/ml
b)
1 g/ml
c)
10 g/ml
d)
100 g/ml
113.

A car moves along a level road.

The diagram shows all of the horizontal forces acting on the car.

Which statement is correct?

a)

The car is slowing down.

b)

The car is speeding up.

c)

The car is moving at a constant speed.

d)

The car is moving backwards.

114.

Which force and distance produce the smallest moment about a pivot?

a)

a 6.0 N force at a perpendicular distance of 4.0m from the pivot

b)

a 7.0 N force at a perpendicular distance of 6.0 m from the pivot.

c)

a 10 N force at a perpendicular distance of 4.0 m from the pivot

d)

a 12 N force at a perpendicular distance of 3.0 m from the pivot.

115.

The diagram shows a tug-of-war between team X and team Y. The arrows show the forces exerted by the teams on the rope.

What is the size of the resultant force on the rope and in which direction does the resultant force act?

a)

size of resultant force = 75 N; direction of resultant force = to the left

b)

size of resultant force = 75 N; direction of resultant force = to the right.

c)

size of resultant force = 725 N; direction of resultant force = to the left

d)

size of resultant force = 725 N; direction of resultant force = to the right.

116.

An object of mass 50 kg accelerates from a velocity of 2 m/s to a velocity of 10 m/s in the same direction. What is the impulse provided to cause this acceleration?

a)

250 Ns

b)

400 Ns

c)

850 Ns

d)

2500 Ns

117.

A T-shaped girder is placed on the ground in position X. it is then turned over to position Y. What happens to the force on the ground and what happens to the pressure on the ground?

a)

force increases, pressure increases

b)

force increases, pressure remains the same

c)

force remains the same, pressure increases

d)

force remains the same, pressure remains the same

118.

A cyclist travels down a hill from rest at point X, without pedalling. The cyclist applies his breaks and the cycle stops at point Y. which energy changes have taken place between X and Y?

a)

Gravitational potential -> kinetic -> thermal (heat)

b)

Gravitational potential -> thermal (heat) -> kinetic

c)

kinetic -> gravitational potential -> thermal (heat)

d)

kinetic -> thermal (heat) -> gravitational potential

119.

A skier walks from the bottom of a ski slope to the top and gains 10,000J of gravitational potential energy. She skis down the slope. At the bottom of the slope, her kinetic energy is 2000J. How much energy is dissipated in overcoming friction and air resistance as the skier moves down the slope?

a)

2000J

b)

8000J

c)

10,000J

d)

12,000J

120.

Which energy source is one that is used to boil water to make steam in power stations?

a)

energy from tides

b)

energy from waves

c)

hydroelectric energy

d)

nuclear energy

121.

Which energy source is renewable and reliably available at all times?

a)

coal

b)

geothermal

c)

nuclear

d)

wind

122.

The diagram shows a ball hanging on a string. The ball swings from point W to point Z and back to point W.

Which statement about the ball is correct?

a)

The kinetic energy of the ball is greatest at point W.

b)

The kinetic energy of the ball is greatest at point X

c)

The kinetic energy of the ball is greatest at point Y.

d)

The kinetic energy of the ball is the same at all points of the swing.

123.

Diagram 1 shows a measuring cylinder containing water.

Five identical steel balls are now lowered into the measuring cylinder. Diagram 2 shows the new water level in the cylinder.

What is the volume of each steel ball?

a)

6 cm3

b)

14 cm3

c)

30 cm3

d)

70 cm3

124.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

125.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

126.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

127.

A solar panel is used to recharge a battery. The solar panel produces 0.80 W of electrical power.

The panel is 20% efficient.

What is the power input of the sunlight onto the solar panel?

a)

0.16 W

b)

4.0 W

c)

8.0 W

d)

16 W

128.

Weight is _________.

a)

the quantity of matter in an object.

b)

the measure of an object's inertia.

c)

the force exerted by gravity on an object's mass.

d)

equal to the mass of an object.

129.

Weight is constant.

a)

True

b)

False

130.
The force of gravity acting on an object is the object's ______.
a)
mass
b)
matter
c)
weight 
d)
friction 
131.
The amount of matter in an object is 
a)
pressure
b)
weight
c)
mass
d)
force
132.
The scientific unit of weight is
a)
Kg
b)
N
c)
pounds
d)
Kgm/s
133.
The scientific unit for mass is
a)
Kg
b)
N
c)
pounds
d)
ounces
134.
If an object has more mass, then it will
a)
weigh more.
b)
weigh less.
c)
weigh the same as an object with less mass.
d)
always have more volume than an object with less mass.
135.
A person would weigh less on on the Moon than on the Earth because . . .
a)
Moon has more mass, and therefore more gravity
b)
Moon has less mass, and therefore more gravity
c)
Moon has more mass, and therefore less gravity
d)
Moon has less mass and therefore less gravity
136.

You have a ball with a weight of 76N. What is the mass of the ball?

a)

76N

b)

76kg

c)

7.6kg

d)

7.6N

137.

What would be the weight of a 10 kg object on earth?

a)

1 N

b)

10 N

c)

0.1 N

d)

100 N

138.
The tool used to measure the mass of a substance or object is a ______________.
a)
balance
b)
graduated cylinder
c)
ruler
d)
thermometer
139.
Which lab tool might you use to measure the volume of a liquid?
a)
electric scale
b)
bunsen burner
c)
test tube
d)
graduated cylinder
140.
What is the volume of Object X?
a)
10.0 cm3
b)
15.0 cm3
c)
20.0 cm3
d)
25.0 cm3
141.
What is the volume of 150 grams of lead if it has a density of 11.3 g/cm3?
a)
13.3 g
b)
13.3 cm3
c)
.075 g
d)
1695 cm3
142.
Which box has a higher density?  
a)
Box A
b)
Box B
c)
cannot be determined
d)
they are the same
143.
Why do some substances float on water?
a)
they are warmer than water
b)
they are cooler than water
c)
they are more dense than water
d)
they are less dense than water
144.
Helium balloons rise on earth because
a)
helium is less dense than air
b)
helium is more dense than air
c)
helium is cooler than air
d)
helium is warmer than air
145.
What is the density of water?
a)
0 g/ml
b)
1 g/ml
c)
10 g/ml
d)
100 g/ml
146.
Put the liquids in order from most dense to least dense?
a)
4, 3, 2, 1
b)
1, 2, 3, 4
c)
3, 4, 2, 1, 
d)
4, 3, 1, 2
147.
A mechanical pencil has the density of 3.000 g/cm3.  The volume of the pencil is 15.8 cubic centimeters.  What is the mass of the pencil?
a)
47.4 g
b)
50 g
c)
0.190  g
d)
5.27 g
148.
What is the formula for density?
a)
density = mass x volume
b)
density = mass / volume
c)
density = mass + volume
d)
density = mass - volume
149.
Why do ice cubes float in a  glass of water?
a)
the ice cubes are more dense than the water
b)
the water is more dense than the ice cubes
c)
the water is more dense than the glass
d)
the ice is more dense than the glass
150.

is an absolute or primary reference or measurement.

a)

Volume

b)

Standard

c)

Precise

d)

Immerse

151.

When several readings are close together when measuring the same value.

a)

Precise

b)

Volume

c)

Displace

d)

Immerse

152.

Should agree closely with a standard or agrees when a correction has been applied.

a)

Standard

b)

Immerse

c)

Calibrated

d)

Meniscus

153.

The space occupied by an object.

a)

Meniscus

b)

Precise

c)

Standard

d)

Volume

154.

Curved upper surface of a liquid.

a)

Standard

b)

Calibrated

c)

Volume

d)

Meniscus

155.

Moving something to another place so water is moved out of the way (upwards) when an object is lowered into it.

a)

Displace

b)

Immerse

c)

Meniscus

d)

Volume

156.

To cover something in a fluid (usually water) so that the object is submerged.

a)

Volume

b)

Displace

c)

Immerse

d)

Standard

157.

The quantity of matter a body is composed of.

a)

Mass

b)

Plumb bob

c)

Weight

d)

Digital

158.

The ratio of mass to volume for a substance.

a)

Mass

b)

Density

c)

Weight

d)

Period

159.

The downward force of gravity that acts on an object because of its mass.

a)

Mass

b)

Density

c)

Weight

d)

Period

160.

Display has hands (or a needle) and is often not very precise.

a)

Digital

b)

Plumb bob

c)

Period

d)

Analogue

161.

Display shows numbers and is often precise.

a)

Analogue

b)

Digital

c)

Plumb Bob

d)

Period

162.

A mass (usually led) hanging from a string to define a vertical line.

a)

Analogue

b)

Digital

c)

Plumb Bob

d)

Period

163.

The time for one complete oscillation or wave; the time it takes an object to return to its original position.

a)

Analogue

b)

Digital

c)

Plumb Bob

d)

Period

164.

Which statement BEST describes the relationship between the weight and mass of an object?

a)

If mass increases, weight will decrease.

b)

Doubling mass reduces weight by half.

c)

An increase in mass will not affect weight.

d)

If mass increases, weight will increase.

165.

A spring scale is used to measure weight. Which of the following does it measure?

a)

The force of gravity on an object.

b)

The amount of matter in an object.

c)

The composition of an object.

d)

The average density of an object.

166.

What happens to the mass and weight of an object that is launched into space, where the pull of gravity is less?

a)

The mass decreases while the weight stays constant.

b)

The mass stays constant while the weight decreases.

c)

The mass stays constant while the weight increases.

d)

The mass increases while the weight decreases.

167.

Nick is preparing a solution and needs to measure the mass of some copper sulfate. Which one of the objects should he use to measure MASS?

a)

Electric Scale

b)

Ruler

c)

Triple Beam Balance

d)

Graduated Cylinder

168.

Jen is explaining the difference between weight and mass to her sister. In comparing the two, which of the following could Jen use to CORRECTLY describe the weight of an object?

a)

Weight is the same everywhere in space.

b)

Weight is how much matter is in an object.

c)

Weight is the amount of gravitational pull on an object.

d)

Weight is not impacted by the force of gravity.

169.
a)

15 cm3

b)

50 cm3

c)

150 cm3

d)

180 cm3

170.

Density is a physical property of matter and can be used to classify substances. Density is calculated by which of the following?

a)

d=v/m

b)

d=m/v

c)

d=w/v

d)

d=m/w

171.
a)

303.4 g

b)

370.4 g

c)

373.0 g

d)

373.4 g

172.
a)

2.5 g/cm3

b)

25 g/cm3

c)

250 g/cm3

d)

2,500 g/cm3

173.

Based on the data for the four samples, determine which of the following substances has the greatest density.

a)

Sample 1: volume = 15 cm3, mass =30 g

b)

Sample 2: volume = 20 cm3, mass = 66 g

c)

Sample 3: volume = 3 cm3, mass = 12 g

d)

Sample 4: volume = 48 cm3, mass = 100 g

174.

7. The diagram shows a measuring cylinder used to measure the volume of a small stone. What is the volume of the stone?

a)

(A) 8 cm3

b)

(B) 9 cm3

c)

(C) 14 cm3

d)

(D) 26 cm3

175.

The diagram shows four identical spheres placed between two wooden blocks on a ruler.

What is the diameter of one sphere?

a)

1.0 cm

b)

2.0 cm

c)

3.0 cm

d)

4.0 cm

176.

A cube of aluminum has a volume of 9cm3 and weighs 81 g. What is its density?

a)

9 g/ cm3

b)

.11 g/cm3

c)

729 g/cm3

177.

Acceleration: is the rate of change in

a)

velocity

b)

speed

c)

displacement

d)

direction

178.

As the ball falls towards the ground, its velocity

a)

zero

b)

decreases

c)

at rest

d)

increases

179.

Which of the following objects is accelerating?

a)

A car driving in a northwest at a constant speed of 35 mph.

b)

A car driving southwest at a constant speed of 35 mph.

c)

A car driving in a circle at a constant speed of 35 mph.

Back

d)

A car driving south at a constant speed of 45 mph.

180.

The SI unit for acceleration is

a)

mph

b)

ft/sec

c)

m/s2

d)

m/s

181.

A box sliding down an inclined plane attains a speed of 27 m/s in 3 seconds from rest.  Find the acceleration.

a)
30 m/s
b)
24 m/s2
c)
9 m/s2
d)
81 km/hr
182.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

183.
Which runner won the race?
a)
Albert
b)
Bob
c)
Charlie
184.

The graph shows the distance a student walks down a hall over time. During which time interval was the student moving the fastest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

185.

At what point is the speed the greatest?

a)

C-D

b)

B-C

c)

A-B

d)

D-E

186.

After the 60 seconds, the parachutist pulls the cord and opens her parachute.

Explain how the parachute reduces the speed of the parachutist when it is just opened.

a)

The friction force decreases

b)

The weight force decreases

c)

The weight force increases

d)

The friction force increases

187.

The graph shows the vertical speed of a parachutist. At which point did they open the parachute?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

188.

A parachutist of mass 75 kg jumps from a plane at a height of 4 000 m above sea level.

The parachutist falls through a distance of 2 400 m during the first 60 seconds. Calculate the average speed of the parachutist during this time.

a)

20 ms-1

b)

40 ms-1

c)

67 ms-1

d)

80 ms-1

189.

Explain why the skydiver will eventually stop accelerating

a)

The air resistance continues to increase as long as the velocity increases. When the air resistance reaches the same value as the weight there will be no resultant force, hence no acceleration (F=ma)

b)

The air resistance continues to decrease as long as the velocity increases. When the air resistance is larger than the weight there will be no resultant force, hence no acceleration (F=ma)

c)

The air resistance stays the same so the velocity increases. There will be no resultant force, hence no acceleration (F=ma)

d)

The air resistance continues to increase as long as the velocity increases. When the air resistance reaches the same value as the weight there will be an increase in acceleration

190.
What is the acceleration of a 50 kg object pushed with a force of 500 newtons? To solve this problem you must do - 
a)
500 ÷ 50
b)
50 ÷ 500
c)
500 x 50
191.

If a 10 kilogram object accelerates suddenly at 15 m/s2, how much force was applied to the object?

a)

150 Newtons

b)

15 Newtons

c)

150 kilograms

d)

100 kilograms

192.

What is the unit for force?

a)

kg

b)

N

c)

m/s^2

d)

N/m

193.
A basketball with a mass of 0.60 kg is accelerated with a force of 10.8 N. If resisting forces are ignored, what is the acceleration of the basketball to the nearest m/s2?
a)
16 m/s2
b)
17 m/s2
c)
18 m/s2
d)
19 m/s2
194.
Unbalanced forces make an object:
a)
Come to rest
b)
move at constant velocity
c)
accelerate
d)
explode
195.
Who wins the tug of war with what net force?
a)
The person on the left with 20 N
b)
The person on the left with 80 N
c)
The people on the right with 20 N
d)
The people on the right with 100 N
196.

What is the net force?

a)

3 N

b)

3 N, right

c)

17 N, right

d)

3 N, left

197.

What is the unit to MEASURE force?

a)

Kilogram

b)

Meter

c)

Pounds

d)

Newton

198.
If these teams are pulling with the same amount of force what will happen?
a)
The boy in blue will win.
b)
They will not move at all.
c)
The boy in red will win.
d)
Both will fall down.
199.
Calculate the Net Force. 
a)
60N, Left 
b)
40N, Right 
c)
0N
d)
60N, Right
200.
What force holds the planets in motion around the sun?
a)
Magnetic
b)
Electrical
c)
Gravitational
d)
Air Resistance
201.
Jupiter has about 317 times more mass than Earth. What can you infer from this fact? 
a)
That Jupiter’s gravitational force is much weaker than on Earth’s gravitational force.
b)
That Jupiter’s gravitational force is much stronger than Earth’s gravitational force.
c)
That Jupiter’s and Earth’s gravitational forces are equal.
d)
Mass has no effect on the gravitational force between two objects
202.
This type of force resist motion between two surfaces that are pressed together
a)
contact
b)
gravity
c)
friction
203.

If both forces are going in the same direction you should______ those forces

a)

Add

b)

Subtract

c)

Divide

d)

Multiply

204.

When forces are going in the opposite direction of each other you should do what do find the net force

a)

Subtract

b)

Add

c)

Divide

d)

Multiply

205.
What is the force that pulls us towards the Earth?
a)
gravity
b)
weight
c)
friction
d)
mass
206.
Name two quantities that are vectors.
a)
force and speed
b)
speed and acceleration
c)
force and acceleration
d)
mass and weight
207.
What is 'drag' another name for?
a)
dressing up
b)
air resistance
c)
friction
d)
weight
208.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
209.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
210.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
211.
In a tug of war the left team pulls with a force of 200N. The right team pulls with a force of 150N.What is the resultant force?
a)
50N to the left.
b)
350N to the left.
c)
350N to the right.
d)
50N to the right.
212.
The force that opposes the motion of two surfaces sliding past each other is called ___________.
a)
acceleration
b)
inertia
c)
friction
d)
unbalanced
213.

Calculate the net force

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

0

214.

calculate the force applied to a 5 kg shopping cart if it accelerates at 3 m/s2

a)

15

b)

1.67

c)

0.6

d)

1.57

215.

The acceleration due to gravity near the surface of Earth is equal to

a)

9.8 m/s

b)

9.8 kg x m/s

c)

9.8 N

d)

9.8 m/s2

216.

A negative acceleration means that your object is  

a)

constant

b)

speeding up

c)

at rest

d)

slowing down

217.

Which statement correctly describes the effects of placing a heavy load in a car?

a)

It is easier to accelerate the car and easier to bring the car to rest.

b)

It is easier to accelerate the car but more difficult to bring the car to rest.

c)

It is more difficult to accelerate the car and more difficult to bring the car to rest.

d)

It is more difficult to accelerate the car but easier to bring the car to rest.

218.

A mass of 6.0 kg rests on the surface of a planet. On this planet, g = 20 N/kg.


What is the weight of the object?

a)

0.30 N

b)

0.60 N

c)

60 N

d)

120 N

219.
If F is force, k is spring constant and x is extension, Hooke's Law tells us that:
a)
F=k/x
b)
x=Fk
c)
k=Fx
d)
F=kx
220.
Hooke's Law fails when a material reaches its:
a)
breakdown
b)
elastic limit
c)
end of tether
d)
fracture stress
221.
A spring has a spring constant of 5N/cm.  What is its extension when loaded with 15N?
a)
4cm
b)
5cm
c)
3m
d)
3cm
222.
What Quantity can you calculate from the graph and give the magnitude of that quantity.  
a)
distance 4.5 m
b)
Force 15 N
c)
spring constant 20 N/m
d)
spring constant 200 N/m
223.
Put the liquids in order from most dense to least dense?
a)
4, 3, 2, 1
b)
1, 2, 3, 4
c)
3, 4, 2, 1, 
d)
4, 3, 1, 2
224.
Frank has an eraser. It has a mass of 4g, and a volume of 2cm3. What is its density?
a)
8 g/cm3
b)
2 g/cm3
c)
1/2 g/cm3
d)
24 g/cm3
225.
What is the formula for density?
a)
density = mass x volume
b)
density = mass / volume
c)
density = mass + volume
d)
density = mass - volume
226.
What is the volume of Object X?
a)
10.0 cm3
b)
15.0 cm3
c)
20.0 cm3
d)
25.0 cm3
227.

A mass of 6.0 kg rests on the surface of a planet. On this planet, g = 20 N/kg.


What is the weight of the object?

a)

0.30 N

b)

0.60 N

c)

60 N

d)

120 N

228.

Which choice describes speed and velocity?

a)

Speed: scalar | Velocity: scalar

b)

Speed: scalar | Velocity: vector

c)

Speed: vector | Velocity: scalar

d)

Speed: vector | Velocity: vector

229.

An object is on the surface of the Earth. Which statement describes the weight of the object?

a)

the quantity of material that the object contains

b)

the quantity of space that the object takes up

c)

the gravitational force acting on the object

d)

the object's resistance to a change in its motion

230.

A resultant force of 4.0N acts on an object of mass 0.50 kg for 3.0 seconds.

What is the change in velocity caused by this force?

a)

4.0 m / s

b)

6.0 m / s

c)

12 m / s

d)

24 m / s

231.

Which property of an object cannot be changed by a force?

a)

mass

b)

motion

c)

shape

d)

size

232.

A ball is dropped from a table-top. Air resistance may be ignored.

Which row describes the velocity and the acceleration of the ball at point X

a)

acceleration = constant; velocity = constant

b)

acceleration = constant; velocity = increasing

c)

acceleration = increasing; velocity = constant

d)

acceleration = increasing; velocity = increasing

233.
What is the moment acting on the seesaw?
a)
1.6Nm
b)
15Nm
c)
16N
d)
4Nm
234.

When the velocity of the car is constant, the force of friction on it is

a)

zero

b)

greater than the driving force

c)

smaller than the driving force

d)

the same size as the driving force

235.

Which are the units for acceleration

a)

m/s

b)

m/s2

c)

s/m

d)

m/s3

236.

The cyclist accelerates at 1.4 m/s2.

The mass of the cyclist and bicycle is 60 kg.

Calculate the resultant force.

(a)  

237.
What is 'drag' another name for?
a)
dressing up
b)
air resistance
c)
friction
d)
weight
238.
Name two quantities that are vectors.
a)
force and speed
b)
speed and acceleration
c)
force and acceleration
d)
mass and weight
239.
What are balanced forces?
a)
forces of the same size, in opposite directions
b)
the same size in the same direction
c)
forces in opposite directions
d)
forces at right angles to each other
240.
What is the name for a single force on an object with the same effect as all the forces combined?
a)
big
b)
total
c)
resultant
d)
sum
241.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
242.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
243.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
244.
In a tug of war the left team pulls with a force of 200N. The right team pulls with a force of 150N.What is the resultant force?
a)
50N to the left.
b)
350N to the left.
c)
350N to the right.
d)
50N to the right.
245.

The unit of force is...

a)

m/s

b)

m

c)

N

d)

kg

246.

What is the resultant force?

a)

40 N, Left

b)

0 N, Balanced

c)

400 N, Right

d)

40 N, Right

247.

What is the resultant force?

a)

400 N, Up

b)

400 N, Down

c)

800 N, Up

d)

800 N, Down

248.

What is the resultant force?

a)

17 N, Left

b)

6N, Right

c)

11N , Left

d)

12N, Left

249.

What is the resultant force?

a)

40N, Left

b)

40N, Right

c)

0N, Balanced

d)

75N, Right

250.
What is the anticlockwise moment acting on this crane?
a)
80,000Nm
b)
100,000Nm
c)
120,000Nm
d)
140,000Nm
251.
What is the moment acting on the seesaw?
a)
1.6Nm
b)
15Nm
c)
16N
d)
4Nm
252.
A seesaw is unbalanced with two people of different masses sitting equal distances from the center. Which of the following will result in equilibrium?
a)
The larger person moving further away from the center.
b)
Moving the smaller person closer to the center.
c)
Moving the smaller person further from the center.
d)
Making the larger person do nothing.
253.

Two masses of mass 10.0 and 6.0 kg are hung from massless strings at the end of a light rod. The rod is virtually weightless. A pivot (fulcrum) is placed off center and the system is free to rotate. If the 6.0 kg mass is 4.0 m away from the pivot, how far away is the 10.0 kg mass if the system is not rotating?

a)

0.42 m

b)

2.4 m

c)

4.8 m

d)

4.2 m

254.
What is the moment produced by the 15 N?
a)
15 Nm (clockwise)
b)
150 Nm (anti - clockwise)
c)
1.5 Nm (anti - clockwise)
d)
0.15 Nm (clockwise)
255.
The easiest way to open a heavy door  is by applying the force
a)
Near the hinges
b)
In the middle of the door
c)
At the edge of the door far from the hinges
d)
At the top of the door
256.
A wrench is used to tighten a nut. A 15N perpendicular force is applied 50cm away from the axis of rotation, and moves a distance of 10 cm as it turns. What is the torque applied to the wrench?
a)
7.5 Nm
b)
1.5 Nm
c)
750 Nm
d)
150 Nm
257.

Assuming the system is in equilibrium, calculate the missing distance d

a)

3.4 m

b)

2.8 m

c)

4.4 m

d)

1.6 m

258.

The diagram shows a beam. Without any weights, the beam balances at its centre.

Three weights are hung as shown.

At which point does a load of 2 N balance the beam?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

259.

A nut can be loosened more easily with

a)

a short spanner because a larger turning effect can be produced.

b)

a long spanner because a larger turning effect can be produced.

c)

a long spanner because a larger force can be produced.

d)

a short spanner because a larger force can be produced.

260.

The figure below shows a man lifting a heavy rock using a steel bar. He pushes downwards on the end of the bar with a force F.


Which pivot positions allows the force F to be as small as possible?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

261.

A boy of weight 600N sits on the see-saw as shown at a distance of 1.5m from the pivot. What is the force F required at the other end to balance the see-saw?

a)

450 N

b)

350 N

c)

4.5 N

d)

200 N

262.

What is the unit of moment f force?

a)

N

b)

m

c)

Nm

d)

N/m

263.
Moment is a quantity that tells turning effect of a force about turning point. 
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
264.

What condition must be met if an object is to be in equilibrium?

a)

force on it must be balanced

b)

force on it mus be unbalanced

c)

resultant force more than 10 N

d)

resultant turning effect more than 10

265.
What happens when two forces act in the same direction?
a)
They cancel each other out.
b)
The stronger one prevails.
c)
Their strengths are added.
d)
Their sum divided by the two is the total force.
266.
What is the correct equation for calculating a perpendicular distance? 
a)
perpendicular distance = force x moment 
b)
perpendicular distance = force / moment 
c)
perpendicular distance = moment / force
267.

Calculate the unknown force X!

a)

4.0 N

b)

6.0 N

c)

10 N

d)

12 N

268.

At what distance should a 2N load placed from the pivot so that the see saw won't move?

a)

0.2m

b)

0.5m

c)

0.45m

d)

0.42m

269.

State the principle of moments.

a)

When a system is in equilibrium, the sum of the total clockwise moment is equal to the sum of the total anti-clockwise moment about the same pivot.

b)

When a system is in equilibrium, the sum of the total clockwise moment is greater the sum of the total anti-clockwise moment about the same pivot.

c)

When a system is in equilibrium, the sum of the total clockwise moment is less than the sum of the total anti-clockwise moment about the same pivot.

d)

When a system is in equilibrium, the sum of the total clockwise moment is equal to the sum of the total anti-clockwise moment about the different pivot.

270.

What is the unit of force?

a)

Meter

b)

Newton

c)

Newton meter

d)

Centimeter

271.

Moment is a measure of the turning effect of a force.

a)

True

b)

False

272.

Pivot is the point about which a force is turned by an object.

a)

True

b)

False

273.

Principle of moments states that an object is balanced when clockwise moments are equal to anticlockwise moments.

a)

True

b)

False

274.

Moment = force / distance from pivot

a)

True

b)

False

275.

The greater the force, the greater its turning effect.

a)

True

b)

False

276.

The further the force is from the pivot, the greater its turning effect.

a)

True

b)

False

277.

The bigger the moment of a force, the smaller its turning effect.

a)

True

b)

False

278.

What is the moment acting on the left side of the pivot?

a)

2 Nm

b)

20 Nm

c)

200 Nm

d)

0.2 Nm

279.

What is the moment acting on the right side of the pivot?

a)

2 Nm

b)

20 Nm

c)

200 Nm

d)

0.2 Nm

280.

The beam is balanced.

a)

True

b)

False

281.

A force of 4 N acts on a lever 2 m from the pivot. What is the moment?

a)

8 Nm

b)

6 Nm

c)

2 Nm

d)

3 Nm

282.

One way to increase the turning force on a spanner is to:

a)

Use a shorter spanner

b)

Use a longer pivot

c)

Use a longer spanner

283.

James weighs 200 N and sits 1 m from the pivot. Jane weighs 100 N. How far from the pivot must Jane be to balance the beam?

a)

0.5 m

b)

1 m

c)

2 m

d)

4 m

284.

A cat weighing 50 N is 1 m from the pivot. How far away does a mouse weighing 0.5 N have to be to balance the beam?

a)

1 m

b)

10 m

c)

100 m

d)

1000 m

285.

A force exerts a moment of 2 Nm. What is the distance of the force from the pivot?

a)

2 m

b)

4 m

c)

1 m

d)

0.5 m

286.

A force exerts a moment of 2 Nm. What is the distance of the force from the pivot?

a)

1 m

b)

0.5 m

c)

0.2 m

d)

0.25 m

287.
The momentum of an object depends upon the object's ___________&_____________.  
a)
size and shape
b)
mass and speed
c)
mass and veloctiy
d)
mass and energy
288.
The equation to calculate momentum is
a)
p=mv
b)
p=1/2mv2
c)
p=mgh
d)
p=mg
289.
Which has more momentum: a car stopped at a red light or a bike moving at 15 mph?
a)
car
b)
bike
c)
they are equal
d)
cannot determine using the info provided
290.
Momentum is a ____________________ quantity
a)
science
b)
scalar
c)
vector
d)
energy
291.
In any collision (crash) the ______ is ALWAYS constant
a)
Total Momentum
b)
total speed
c)
total Velocity
d)
Energy
292.
When two objects collide, the Pbefore is ____________ the Pafter.
a)
more than 
b)
less than 
c)
equal to
d)
unrelated to
293.
When the speed of an object is doubled, its momentum
a)
remains unchanged in accord with the conservation of momentum.
b)
doubles
c)
quadruples
d)
decreases
294.
What is the unit for momentum?
a)
m/sec
b)
kg/sec
c)
kg/m
d)
kg m/sec
295.
A 50 kg ball rolls down the street at 5 m/s. Calculate the momentum of the ball. 
a)
55 kg*m/s
b)
100 kg*m/s
c)
250 kg*m/s
d)
500 kg*m/s
296.

Two skaters begin at rest. Skater 1 has a smaller mass than Skater 2. After they push off each other,...

a)

Skater 1 experiences a greater change in momentum

b)

Skater 2 experiences a greater change in momentum

c)

Skater 1 has a greater speed than Skater 2

d)

Skater 1 experiences a greater force

297.

Which of the following has the MOST momentum?

a)

rolling ping-pong ball

b)

rolling bowling ball

c)

rolling soccer ball

d)

rolling basketball

298.

If an object has a momentum of 40 kgm/s and a mass of 60 kg, what is it's velocity?

a)

2400 m/s

b)

1.5 m/s

c)

240 m/s

d)

.67 m/s

299.

A 5 N force is applied to a 3 kg ball to change its velocity from +9 m/s to +3 m/s. The impulse on the ball is ______ N s.

a)

-2.5

b)

-10

c)

-18

d)

-45

300.
A 0.250 kg cart moving at 0.400 m/s has how much momentum?
a)
0.1 kg-m/s
b)
1 kg-m/s
c)
10 kg-m/s
d)
100 kg-m/s
301.
Softer landings tend to
a)
increase impact force
b)
increase force
c)
increase collision time
d)
increase change in momentum
302.
The difference between a car hitting a wall vs. a car hitting a hay stack is
a)
the Impulse on the car hitting the wall is greater
b)
the change in momentum of the car hitting the wall is greater
c)
the force on the car hitting the hay stack is greater
d)
the collision time of the car hitting the hay stack is greater
303.
A runner has a momentum of 670 kg m/s and is travelling at a velocity of 9 m/s. What is his mass?
a)
6030 kg
b)
0.0134 kg
c)
74.4 kg
d)
80 kg
304.
The units for Impulse are
a)
N/s
b)
N.s
c)
N
d)
m/s
305.
Cart A is pulled with a 2 Newton force for 2 seconds, and Cart B is pulled with a 1 Newton force for 3 seconds.  Which cart experiences the greatest impulse?
a)
Cart B
b)
Cart A
c)
they are the same
306.
A boy kicks a football with a force of 20 N, the time the force acts for is 0.3 s.
Calculate the impulse on the ball.
a)
1 N.s
b)
6 N.s
c)
66 N.s 
d)
None of these
307.
The purpose of crumble zones on a car is to
a)
decrease time of impact.
b)
increase force of impact.
c)
increase the time of impact.
d)
decrease the impulse during impact.
308.

In an isolated system, the net ____ on that system is zero.

a)

external force

b)

internal force

c)

time interval

d)

displacement

309.
The impulse-momentum theorem states that
a)
the impulse on an object is equal to the change in momentum it causes 
b)
the force on a moving object is equal to the magnitude of the impulse.
c)
the impulse on an object is greater than the change in momentum it causes 
d)
the impulse on an object is less than the change in momentum it causes
310.
A constant force of 4.5 N acts on a 7.2-kg object for 10.0 s. What is the     change in the object's velocity? 
a)
6.3 m/s
b)
3.2 m/s
c)
1.2 m/s 
d)
4.33 m/s
311.
If an air bag changes a 60 kg person's speed from 40.0 m/s to     0.0 m/s, what impulse must act on the person? 
a)
 2400 kg.m/s
b)
1.5 kg.m/s
c)
0.67 kg.m/s
d)
1500 kg.m/s
312.
The velocity of a 975-kg car is changed from 12.0 m/s to 27.0 m/s in 15s by an external, constant force. What is the magnitude of the force? 
a)
9.75×102 N
b)
1.46×104 N
c)
9.75×103 N
d)
975 kg·m/s
313.
A force acted upon an object for 3 s as shown in the graph below.
 What is the magnitude of the impulse on the object?
a)
3
b)
4.5
c)
6
d)
9
314.
what is the objects momentum for 8 m/s
a)
6
b)
8
c)
10
d)
12
315.
what is the object's velocity for momentum of 6 kg.m/s?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
8
316.

can a bullet have the same momentum as a truck?

a)

yes

b)

no

317.
What is the object's mass? 
a)
1 kg
b)
2 kg
c)
1.5 kg
d)
2.5 kg
318.
A biker with a mass of 75 kg moves along the path with a constant velocity of 5 m/s. What is the biker's momentum?
a)
25 m/s
b)
375 m/s
c)
25 kg m/s
d)
375 kg m/s
319.
A 2800 kg truck moving at 19 m/s collides with a stationary 1000 kg passenger car, and the two stick together.  Assuming that they are free to move afterward, what is the momentum of the truck + car object after the collision?
a)
14,000 kg*m/s
b)
14 kg*m/s
c)
72,000 kg*m/s
d)
53,000 kg*m/s
320.
A model rocket with an initial mass of 4.0 kg is launched horizontally by burning and expelling 530 g of fuel with a velocity of 100 m/s.  What is the velocity of the rocket after the fuel is expelled?  (Assume the propellant is expelled instantaneously.)
a)
15 m/s
b)
0.65 m/s
c)
13 m/s
d)
66 m/s
321.
Ball A has a mass of 8.0 kg.  Ball B has twice the mass of ball A.  The two balls collide and stick together in a perfectly inelastic  collision.  After the collision the combined balls are at rest.  If the velocity of ball A before the collision was 7.3 m/s , what was the velocity of ball B before the collision?
a)
3.6 m/s
b)
-7.3 m/s
c)
15 m/s
d)
-3.6 m/s
322.
A 1300 kg car sliding on frictionless ice at 25 m/s hits a stationary 2400 kg minivan.  The two vehicles are locked together after impact on the ice.  What is their speed after impact?
a)
0.0 m/s
b)
8.8 m/s 
c)
25 m/s
d)
14 m/s
323.
While playing pool, the white cue ball strikes the 8 ball. Before the collision, the cue ball's velocity was 10 m/s and the 8 ball was at rest. If both ball's have a mass of 0.15 kg and the cue ball's velocity after the collision is 2 m/s, what is the 8 ball's velocity?
a)
2 m/s
b)
8 m/s
c)
-2 m/s
d)
1.5 m/s
324.
In a physics experiment, two carts of mass 1.5 kg each are rolled towards each other.  The orange cart has a velocity of 2 m/s and the blue cart has a velocity of -1m/s.  The carts stick together when they collide.  Calculate their final speed.
a)
0.5 m/s
b)
1.0 m/s
c)
0.33 m/s
d)
0.67 m/s
325.
Two football players with mass 75 kg and 100 kg run directly toward each other with speeds of 6 m/s and 8 m/s respectively. If they grab each other as they collide, the combined speed of the two players just after the collision would be:
a)
2 m/s 
b)
3.4 m/s 
c)
4.6 m/s 
d)
7.1 m/s
326.
A large box slides across a frictionless surface with a velocity of 12 m/s and a mass of 4 kg,  collides with a smaller box with a mass of 2 kg that is stationary.  The boxes stick together. What is the velocity of the two combined masses after collision?
a)
0 m/s
b)
4 m/s
c)
8 m/s
d)
12 m/s
327.
A 120 kg lineman moving at -2 m/s tackles an 80 kg fullback moving at +8 m/s. If the fullback's velocity after they collide is +2 m/s, what is the lineman's velocity?
a)
2 m/s
b)
8.7 m/s
c)
4.7 m/s
d)
6 m/s
328.
A 3,000 kg truck moving at +10 m/s hits a 1,000 kg parked car which moves off at +15 m/s. What is the velocity of the truck?
a)
10 m/s
b)
0 m/s
c)
5 m/s
d)
2 m/s
329.

What is kinetic energy?

a)

moving energy

b)

potential energy

c)

stored energy

d)

renewable energy

330.

The energy in which store increases as a car moves faster?

a)

Gravitational Potential Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

c)

Thermal Energy

d)

Kinetic Energy

331.

The energy in which store decreases as a candle burns? 

a)

Chemical energy store

b)

Kinetic energy store

c)

Nuclear energy store

332.

The energy in which store increases as an elastic band is stretched? 

a)

Gravitational Potential

b)

Chemical

c)

Elastic

d)

Kinetic

333.

_________________ is when energy is transferred because a force moves an object through a distance. 

a)

Elastic

b)

Mechanically

c)

By radiation

d)

By heating

334.

_______________ is when energy is transferred due to charge flowing around a circuit. 

a)

Electrically

b)

Kinetic

c)

Mechanically

d)

By radiation

335.

________ is when energy is transferred between areas that have different temperatures. 

a)

By radiation

b)

By heating

c)

Mechanically

d)

Nuclear

336.

When you eat fruits and vegetables, the energy is stored as ...

a)

a. thermal energy

b)

b. food energy

c)

c. electrical energy

d)

d. chemical energy

337.
Energy due to motion is ____________ energy. 
a)
Potential 
b)
Energy
c)
Kinetic
d)
Friction
338.
a.  Energy stored in the nucleus of an atom.
a)
A. Sound Energy
b)
B. Potential Energy
c)
C. Nuclear Energy
d)
D. Thermal energy
339.

Food, fuels and batteries have energy in this energy store

a)

Chemical

b)

Thermal

c)

Gravitational Potential

d)

Elastic

340.

A stretched rubber band has energy in this energy store

a)

Magnetic

b)

Electrostatic

c)

Elastic

d)

Nuclear

341.

Two negatively charged particles which are close together have energy in this energy store

a)

Electrostatic

b)

Magnetic

c)

Nuclear

d)

Elastic

342.

Energy which is transferred by a force moving an object through a distance

a)

Mechanically

b)

Electrically

c)

By Radiation

d)

By Heating

343.

Energy which is transferred by charges moving due to a potential difference (voltage)

a)

Mechanically

b)

Electrically

c)

By Radiation

d)

By Heating

344.

Shooting an arrow from a bow converts ____ into kinetic energy.

a)

Elastic potential energy

b)

Chemical energy

c)

Gravitational potential energy

d)

Thermal energy

345.

A ____ converts chemical energy into kinetic energy?

a)
b)
c)
d)
346.
Look at the diagram. Which point does the ball have the maximum potential energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
347.
Look at the diagram. At which point does the ball have the maximum kinetic energy?
a)
B
b)
C
c)
D
d)
E
348.
A cell phone battery dies.  It gets plugged into an electrical outlet to recharge. Which of the following energy transformations occur during the charging?
a)
mechanical to chemical
b)
electrical to solar
c)
chemical to light
d)
chemical to electrical
349.
Tarzan is swinging through the jungle looking for Jane. He is constantly moving back and forth..his kinetic energy is being changed to 
a)
electrical
b)
chemical
c)
potenital
d)
nuclear
350.
Energy is the ability to do  ___________.
a)
Nothing
b)
Work
c)
Energy
d)
Change
351.
A car moving down the road is an example of
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
352.
The sun’s energy used by green plants to produce food is an example of light energy being converted to what other form of energy?
a)
kinetic energy
b)
heat energy
c)
mechanical energy
d)
chemical 
353.
Electrical Energy is transferred to _____ Energy.
a)
Thermal
b)
Solar
c)
Electrical
d)
None
354.

Which statement is correct

a)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed

b)

Energy can be destroyed but not created

c)

Energy is always created but never destroyed

d)

Energy cannot be created but never destroyed

355.
Calculate the PE of a 2 kg cat perched 10 meters above the ground. 
a)
20 J
b)
200 J
c)
2.04 J
d)
200 W
356.
Calculate the work needed to raise a 3 kg cat up to a height of
4 m.
a)
12 J
b)
0 J
c)
120 J
d)
1.22 J
357.
When my velocity triples, my kinetic energy increases by ______ times.
a)
9
b)
 3 
c)
1.5
d)
4.5
358.
Calculate the Kinetic Energy (KE) of a girl whose mass is 50 kg who is moving at 4 m/s.
a)
200 J
b)
800 J
c)
400 J
d)
100 J
359.
Belly-Flop Bernie dives from atop a tall flagpole into a swimming pool below. His potential energy at the top is 10,000J. What is his kinetic energy when his potential energy reduces to 9.7J?
a)
9.81J
b)
10,000J
c)
9.7J
d)
9,990.3J
360.
What is the work done when a 20-N force pushes a cart 3.5 m?
a)
70J
b)
6.8J
c)
23.5J
d)
17.5J
361.
As a pendulum swings from its highest to lowest position, what happens to its kinetic and potential energy? 
a)
Both the potential energy and kinetic energy decrease
b)
The potential energy decreases while the kinetic energy increases 
c)
The kinetic energy decreases while the potential energy increases 
d)
Bothe the potential energy and kinetic energy increase 
362.
While a boulder is on the top of a hill it has what type of energy? 
a)
Mechanical
b)
Kinetic
c)
Potential 
d)
Reactive 
363.

An arrow in a bow had 70J of PE. Assuming no loss of energy to heat, how much KE will it have after it has been shot?

a)

0J

b)

35J

c)

50J

d)

70J

364.

The formula for power is

a)

power = force × timepower\ =\ force\ \times\ time

b)

power = change energytimepower\ =\ \frac{change\ energy}{time}

c)

power = change speeddistan⁡cepower\ =\ \frac{change\ speed}{dis\tan ce}

d)

power = 12mv2power\ =\ \frac{1}{2}mv^2

365.

Unit for power is

a)

Watts (W)

b)

Joules

c)

Amperes

d)

voltage

366.

Equation for kinetic energy

a)

Kinetic energy = 12mv2Kinetic\ energy\ =\ \frac{1}{2}mv^2

b)

Kinetic energy = 12mv3Kinetic\ energy\ =\ \frac{1}{2}mv^3

c)

Kinetic energy = 12mvKinetic\ energy\ =\ \frac{1}{2}mv^{ }

d)

Kinetic energy = mv2Kinetic\ energy\ =\ mv^2

367.

Equation for gravitational potential energy (GPE)

a)

GPE = m×g×ΔhGPE\ =\ m\times g\times\Delta h

b)

GPE = m×Δg×hGPE\ =\ m\times\Delta g\times h

c)

GPE =Δm ×g×hGPE\ =\Delta m\ \times g\times h

d)

GPE=F×g×hGPE=F\times g\times h

368.
Link between force, work done and distance
a)
work done = force x distance
b)
work done = distance / force
c)
work done = force / distance
d)
work done = force x work
e)
work done = force / work
369.

Link between energy transferred and work done

a)

energy transferred = work done

b)

energy transferrred = 1/2 work done

c)

energy transferred = work done2

d)

energy transferred = 1 / work done

e)

energy transferred = 4/3 π x work done3

370.
Efficiency equation
a)
efficiency = useful output / total input
b)
efficiency = total output / total input
c)
efficiency = total input / total output
d)
efficiency = total input / useful output
e)
efficiency = useful output / useful input
371.

The unit of work is

a)

watt

b)

hertz

c)

joule

d)

pascal

372.

Each of the boxes shown is pulled for 10 m across a level, frictionless floor by the force given. Which box experiences the greatest change in its kinetic energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

373.

Starting from rest, a marble first rolls down a steeper hill, then down a less steep hill of the same height. Ignoring friction, for which is it going faster at the bottom?

a)

Faster at the bottom of the steeper hill

b)

Faster at the bottom of the less steep hill

c)

Same speed at the bottom of both hills

d)

Can’t say without knowing the mass of the marble

374.

Four students run up the stairs in the time shown. Which student has the largest power output?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

375.

A major league pitcher can throw a baseball with a kinetic energy of 150 J. How much work must the pitcher do to the ball to give it that much KE?

a)

150 J

b)

0

c)

Can’t tell without knowing the mass of the ball

376.

A rock has 10 J of potential energy on top of a roof. If it is dropped and lands with only 8 joules of kinetic energy, how much work did air resistance do on the rock?

a)

-18 J

b)

-10 J

c)

-8 J

d)

-2 J

377.

In the equation PE = mgh, what does the “g” mean?

a)

Acceleration due to gravity

b)

Force of gravity

c)

Weight of the object

378.

What is the unit for power?

a)

what

b)

watt

c)

joule

d)

Jewel-Osco

379.

Which requires more work – a person walking up stairs or a person running up stairs?

a)

walking

b)

running

c)

they require equal work

d)

no work is required for either because the movement is vertical

380.

Which requires more power – a person walking up stairs or a person running up stairs?

a)

walking

b)

running

c)

they require equal power output

d)

no power is required at all

381.

How much work is done on a 200-kg crate that is hoisted 2 m in a time of 4 s?

a)

400 J

b)

1000 J

c)

1600 J

d)

4000 J

382.

How much power is required to raise a 200-kg crate a vertical distance of 2 m in a time of 4 s?

a)

400 W

b)

1000 W

c)

1600 W

d)

4000 W

383.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

384.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

385.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

386.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

387.

Electricity can be obtained from different energy resources. Which energy resource is used to obtain electricity without producing heat to boil water?

a)

coal

b)

geothermal

c)

hydroelectric

d)

nuclear

388.

If the mass of the cart is 15kg, how much is the potential energy of the cart?

a)

0J

b)

1.2J

c)

6J

d)

58.8J

389.

What are fossil fuels?

a)

energy producers that comes from radioactive elements

b)

a natural product that can be changed into other energy forms to do work

c)

energy resources that formed from buried plants and animals that lived a very long time ago

d)

resources that are replaced faster than they are used

390.

All of the following are fossil fuels EXCEPT

a)

oil

b)

water

c)

coal

d)

natural gas

391.

Where does nuclear energy come from?

a)

Electric generators

b)

radioactive elements

c)

fossil fuels

d)

geothermal energy

392.

Which of these originally got their energy from the sun? Choose all that are correct.

a)

Coal

b)

Nuclear power

c)

Tidal

d)

Wave

e)

HEP

393.

Which of these energy resources is the most reliable?

a)

Coal power

b)

Solar

c)

Wave

d)

Wind

394.

The law of conservation of energy states:

Choose 2

a)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed

b)

Only transformed from one type to another

c)

Energy can be created but not destroyed

d)

Energy cannot be transformed

395.

I throw my pen vertically up with 15J of kinetic energy. How much gravitational potential energy does it have at the top?

Assume no air resistance.

a)

0J

b)

15J

c)

0 - 15J

d)

Impossible to calculate

396.
What is the equation for calculating power?
a)
distance / time
b)
work x time
c)
work / time
d)
force x distance
397.

Which of these is the best answer to "state a disadvantage of coal energy"?

a)

Makes pollution

b)

Produces carbon dioxide which causes global warming

c)

Ugly to look at

d)

Expensive to run, lots of jobs

398.

Is "expensive" enough detail for an answer?

a)

No - be specific

b)

Yes - give me the mark

399.

Around Tongariro, there is a large HEP network that produces 4% of NZ's electricity.

Which of these are disadvantages of using HEP?

a)

Causes land to be flooded

b)

Can affect river levels and wildlife on rivers e.g. Whio ducks

c)

Expensive

d)

Ugly

e)

Produces carbon dioxide

400.
How much work is done in holding a 15 N sack of potatoes while waiting in line at the grocery store for 3 minutes?
a)
15 J
b)
45 J
c)
0 J
d)
5 J
401.
What is the difference between calculating power and work?
a)
Power takes into account the time it takes to complete a task
b)
Work takes into account the time it takes to complete a task
c)
Power is force/area
d)
Work is force/area
402.

The roller coaster car has a mass of 500 kg. It is pulled from position 1 to 2 (30 m) by a motor. At the top of the ride the vertical distance top to bottom is 20 m. The motor pulls the car with a 4000 N force. Calculate the work done getting the car to the top of the ride.

a)

100 000J

b)

120 000J

c)

800 000J

d)

90 000J

403.

Bob (80 kg) uses 180 N of force to get him up the slope. The vertical distance is 2 m and the diagonal is 10 m. Calculate the work he does.

a)

1600 J

b)

160 J

c)

3600 J

d)

1800 J

404.

On a force versus change in position graph, the area under the curve is a representation of:

a)

force

b)

position

c)

KE

d)

PE

e)

Work

405.
Is this an example of work? 
A waiter carries a tray full of meals above his head by one arm straight across the room at constant speed. 
a)
True
b)
False
406.

An 80 N rope tension force is used to slowly pull a wagon 50 m up a hill. Calculate the work done by the rope if it pulls parallel to the hill

a)

-4000 J

b)

4000 J

407.
Which situation is work not done?
a)
lifting a 20 pound box off the floor
b)
holding a 20 pound box above the floor
c)
sliding a 20 pound box across the floor
d)
sliding a 20 pound box up an inclined plane
408.
What type of energy is in this picture?
a)
Kinetic
b)
Potential
c)
Chemical
d)
Sound
409.
What kind of energy does this device use?
a)
Chemical
b)
Electrical
c)
Thermal
d)
Chemical
410.
A battery converts what type of energy to another?
a)
sound to kinetic
b)
light to heat
c)
mechanical to electrical
d)
chemical to electrical
411.
Energy that is stored in bonds between atoms is:
a)
Mechanical energy
b)
Chemical energy
c)
Kinetic energy
d)
Nuclear energy
412.

What type of energy transformation takes place when you plug in a lamp and turn it on?

a)

electrical to radiant

b)

electrical to mechanical

c)

chemical to radiant

d)

mechanical to thermal

413.

Energy Efficiency is calculated by useful energy (Energy Out) divided by energy consumed (Energy In) , expressed as a percentage

a)

False

b)

True

414.

The SI Unit for Energy is

a)

Joule

b)

Newton

c)

Calorie

d)

Watt

415.

What percent energy is wasted by a machine if the energy input is 262 J and the energy output is 131 J?

a)

5%

b)

50%

c)

100 J

416.

What is the work output of a machine that has a work input of 2,800 Joules and an efficiency of 90%?

a)

25200 J

b)

2520 J

c)

0.0082J

417.

A weight-lifter raises a 2000N weight through a vertical height of 2.0m in 0.80s. What useful power does he develop in doing this?

a)

800 W

b)

700W

c)

4000W

d)

5000W

418.
In physics, we define work as this
a)
force x time
b)
force x distance
c)
force / time
d)
force / distance
419.
In physics, power is identified as this
a)
force x distance
b)
distance / time
c)
work / time
d)
time / work
420.
Jack pushes a lawnmower with a force of 25N and performs 250 J of work. How far did he push the mower?
a)
1 meter
b)
1 kilometer
c)
10 meters
d)
none of these
421.
A mason raises a 2,000 N bag of cement from the floor to over his head (2.0 meters) in 4 seconds. What is his average power input?
a)
1,000 W
b)
2,000 W
c)
500 W
d)
100 W
422.
A 600 N hiker climbs a hill 100 meters high. How much work does he do?
a)
60,000 J
b)
32 J/s
c)
600 J
d)
8 W
423.
A 200 W conveyor is used to raise boxes of cupcakes up a 10 meter building. If it takes 10 seconds to move a cake, how much do the boxes weigh?
a)
20 N
b)
200 N
c)
2,000 N
d)
2 N
424.
A boy applies a force of 100 N for a distance of 10 M, how much work does he perform?
a)
1,000 J
b)
100 J
c)
10,000 J
d)
100,000 J
425.
A boy applies a force of 100 N for a distance of 10 M, how much work does he perform?
a)
1,000 J
b)
100 J
c)
10,000 J
d)
100,000 J
426.
A girl pushes a sled across the snow with a force of 25 N. If she does 250 J of work, how far does she push the sled?
a)
1 M
b)
10 M
c)
10 W
d)
10 N/s
427.
If you perform 1,000 J of work moving a mattress 5 M, how much does it weigh?
a)
50 J
b)
20 N
c)
200 N
d)
6 W
428.
How far will 350 J of work raise a 70 N block of chocolate?
a)
5 M
b)
25 M
c)
100 N
d)
5 W
429.

select two correct answers that show:

Average speed?

a)

s = d/t

b)

v = s/t

c)

speed = distance/time

d)

velocity = speed/time

430.

Acceleration?

a)

a = (v-u)/t

b)

d = s/t

c)

v = s/t

d)

F= m/a

431.

v = Δϰ/Δt?

a)

average speed

b)

force needed

c)

average velocity

d)

acceleration

432.

Which formulae shows the relationship between Force, mass and acceleration?

a)

W = mxg

b)

F = mxa

c)

p=mxv

d)

ρ=mxV

433.

Which formulae shows the rate in change of mometum?

a)

F= mxa

b)

F= mxv - mxu / t

c)

F= mxg

d)

F= Fxχ

434.

Formula for Power?

a)

ΔE = Fxd

b)

KE = 1/2mxv2

c)

W = ΔE/t

d)

GPE = mxgxh

435.

ΔE = Fxd?

a)

work = force x distance

b)

Power = Work/ time

c)

Pressure = height x density x gravity

d)

Kinetic energy = 1/2 mass x velocity²

436.

Which is the correct formula for energy efficiency?

a)

Efficiency = total input energy / useful energy output x 100

b)

Efficiency = total input energy / useful energy output / 100

c)

Efficiency = total input energy / useful energy output / 100

d)

Efficiency = useful energy output / total input energy. x100

437.

Select the two that show Refractive index of a material

a)

Refractive index = speed of light in vacuum x speed of light in material

b)

Refractive index = speed of light in vacuum / speed of light in material

c)

n = v1 / v2

d)

n = v1 x v2

438.

Select the two that show the relationship between wave speed, frequency and wavelength

a)

c = f x λ

b)

Wave speed = frequency x wavelength

c)

Wave speed = frequency / wavelength

d)

c = f / λ

439.

Two formulae that show the relationship between Current, charge and time

a)

Current = charge x time

b)

current = charge / time

c)

I = Q x t

d)

I = Q / t

440.

Which will calculate the Power (W) in a circuit?

a)

V = I x R

b)

P = I x V

c)

ΔE = I x V x t

d)

I = Q / t

441.

Which is the correct formula for Energy Transferred in a circuit?

a)

ΔE = I x V x t

b)

ΔE = I / V x t

c)

ΔE = I x V / t

d)

ΔE = I x V

442.

Is this..........

a)

Alpha decay

b)

Beta decay

443.

Is this ......

a)

Alpha decay

b)

Beta decay

444.

Which formulae shows Hooke's Law?

a)

F= mg

b)

F= ma

c)

F = kx

d)

GPE = mgh

445.

What does the relationship between mass, gravity and height show?

a)

Resistance in a circuit

b)

Current in a circuit

c)

Gravitational Potential Energy

d)

Extension of a spring

446.

What is the unit of Work?

a)

Newtons

b)

Joules

c)

Metres

d)

Kg

447.

What is the relationship between moment, force and distance? SELECT TWO CORRECT ANSWERS

a)

M = F x d

b)

M = F / d

c)

d = M x F

d)

F = M/d

448.

What do ohms measure?

a)

Current

b)

potential difference

c)

resistance

d)

power

449.

What is the definition for the word amplitude?

a)

The number of complete waves that pass per second

b)

The distance from the peak of one wave to the peak of an adjacent wave.

c)

The distance from the equilibrium position of a peak plus the same distance from a trough.

d)

The maximum distance from the equilibrium position of any point on a wave

450.

what is the name given to the effect that allows wavefronts to reach point X, shown in the diagram?

(a)  

451.

Which 2 points on the wave are exactly one wavelength apart?

a)

P and S

b)

Q and R

c)

Q and S

d)

P and R

452.

Water waves travel from deeper water to more shallow water. This causes them to refract.


Which property always remains the same when refraction occurs?

a)

Wavelength

b)

Frequency

c)

Amplitude

d)

Speed

453.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

454.

What is the unit for wavelength?

(a)  

455.

What is the unit for frequency?

(a)  

456.

What is the unit for velocity?

(a)  

457.

what is the formula for finding the wavelength of a wave?

a)

v = f λ

b)

λ / v = f

c)

v f = λ

d)

λ / f = v

458.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

459.

Sound waves travel at a speed of 1500m/s through a substance. Their wavelength is 5.0 cm. What is their frequency?

(a)  

460.
a)

It doubles

b)

It halves

c)

It remains the same

d)

It becomes four times as large

461.

a)

The speed of wave increases.

b)

The speed of wave decreases.

c)

The frequency increases.

d)

The frequency decreases.

462.

a)

Decrease the speed of waves (but keep the wavelength the same).

b)

Increase the speed of the waves (but keep the wavelength the same).

c)

Make the gap smaller

d)

Make the gap bigger

463.

What is a frequency?

a)

the number of wave crests passing a point in one second.

b)

the numbers of waves in total.

c)

the height of the waves times each second.

d)

the speed of waves over time.

464.

Velocity = (a)   x lambda

465.

What is the wavelength?

a)

The distance from one wave peak to another

b)

number of wave crests passing a point in one second

c)

the height of the wave peak

d)

the energy that the waves carry

466.

Sound waves are (a)   waves

467.

light waves are (a)   waves

468.

the vibrations of longitudinal waves are (a)   to the direction in which the waves are travelling.

469.

the vibrations of transverse waves are (a)   to the direction in which the waves are travelling.

470.

what is the arrow pointing to?

a)

compression

b)

rarefaction

471.

when plane waves reflect from a straight barrier, the angle of each reflected wave is (a)   to the angle of each incident wave to the barrier.

472.

Diffracted waves spread out ______ if the gap is wider.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

the same

473.

The narrower the gap, the ____ the diffracted waves are spread out.

a)

more

b)

less

474.

The word diffraction means...

a)

dispersing of waves

b)

reflecting of waves

c)

refraction of waves

d)

spreading of waves

475.
A wave source produces 3000 crests every minute. The wave has a speed of 300m/s. What is the wavelength of the wave?
a)
0.10m
b)
0.17m
c)
6.0m
d)
10.0m
476.
An object is placed in front of a converging lens of focal length 15 cm. Which row describes the image of the object?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
477.
The water wave shown has a frequency of 4.0 Hz. What is the speed of the wave?
a)
3.0 cm/s
b)
12 cm/s
c)
48 cm/s
d)
72 cm/s
478.
Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller
a)
Infrared waves
b)
Radio waves
c)
Ultraviolet waves
d)
Visible light
479.

The speed of light in air is 3.0 x 10^8 m/s. The critical angle for light in a transparent plastic material placed in air is 37°. What is the speed of light in the plastic material?

a)
1.8 x 10^8 m/s
b)
2.4 x 10^8 m/s
c)
3.8 x 10^8 m/s
d)
5.0 x 10^8 m/s
480.

A sound wave travels from air into water. Which row describes what happens to the frequency and the wavelength of the wave?

a)

Frequency: decreases; Wavelength: increases

b)

Frequency: decreases; Wavelength: stays the same

c)

Frequency: stays the same; Wavelength: decreases

d)

Frequency: stays the same; Wavelength: increases

481.

The horn of a ship makes a sound. The captain on the ship hears an echo from a cliff 4.0 s later. When the speed of sound is 340m/s, what's the distance between the cliff and the ship?

a)

170 m

b)

340 m

c)

680 m

d)

1360 m

482.

The diagrams represent water waves in a tank. Which diagram represents a wave that changes speed?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

D

d)

483.

A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed. What causes the ripples to refract?

a)

The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water

b)

The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water

c)

The ripples hit the wall of the tank

d)

The ripples pass through a narrow gap

484.
An eclipse of the Sun happens when the Moon comes between the Earth and the Sun. Which statement is correct?
a)

Infrared radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and ultraviolet radiation.

b)

Ultraviolet radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and infrared radiation.

c)

Visible light from the Sun disappears before ultraviolet radiation and infrared radiation

d)

Infrared radiation, ultraviolet radiation and visible light from the Sun all disappear at the same moment.

485.
A passing boat causes a floating object on a lake to bob up and down 18 times in 12s. The wavelength of the wave created by the boat is 48 cm. What is the velocity of these water waves?
a)
32cm/s
b)
72cm/s
c)
576cm/s
d)
864cm/s
486.
An intruder alarm sensor detects that a person is warmer than his surrounding. Which type of electromagnetic wave does the sensor detects?
a)
infared
b)
radio
c)
ultraviolet
d)
visible light
487.
A dolphin sends out a sound wave. An echo returns 0.010s later from a fish which is 7.5m from the dolphin. What is the speed of the sound wave in water?
a)
0.075m/s
b)
0.15m/s
c)
750m/s
d)
1500m/s
488.
A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at the passing waves. She notices that five complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s. What is the frequency of this wave?
a)
0.25 Hz
b)
4.0 Hz
c)
15 Hz
d)
100 Hz
489.
Which describes what is transferred by a wave?
a)
Energy and Matter
b)
Just energy
c)
Just matter
d)
Neither energy nor matter
490.

What is the frequency of a wave?

a)

The number of waves passing a fixed point per second.

b)

The number of peaks added to the number of troughs passing a fixed point per second.

c)

The time taken for one wave to pass a fixed point.

d)

The time taken for the displacement to change from maximum to minimum.

491.

What is meant by the term wave front?

a)

the distance between successive peaks of a wave

b)

the distance between the trough and the peak of a wave

c)

a line joining points along the peak of a wave

d)

a line joining the trough and the peak of a wave

492.

A ripple tank is used to demonstrate refraction of plane water waves.

Waves in deep water have a wavelength of 1.2 cm and a speed of 9.6 cm / s.

The wavelength of the waves in shallow water is 0.8 cm.

What is the speed of the waves in the shallow water?

a)

6.4 cm / s

b)

8.0 cm / s

c)

9.6 cm / s

d)

14.4 cm / s

493.

The diagram shows waves travelling on the sea.

Which points are one wavelength apart?

a)

P and R

b)

Q and S

c)

Q and T

d)

S and T

494.

The diagram shows the variation of the displacement of a wave with distance from the source.

 What is the amplitude of the wave?

a)

2.0 cm

b)

4.0 cm

c)

20 cm

d)

40cm

495.

The diagram shows a wave moving into shallower water.

The wavelength of the waves is reduced because 

a)

both the frequency and the speed decrease.

b)

both the frequency and the speed increase.

c)

only the frequency increases.

d)

only the speed decreases.

496.

The diagram shows a water wave in a ripple tank.

The wave has a speed of 12 cm / s at R.

The wave crosses a boundary PQ where the distance between crests changes from 3.0 cm to 1.5 cm.

What is the speed of the wave at S?

a)

3.0 cm / s

b)

6.0 cm / s

c)

12 cm / s

d)

24 cm / s

497.

Which diagram correctly represents water waves travelling from deep water to shallow water?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

498.

The diagram shows part of a spring that is shaken from side to side to produce a wave.

The distance between successive peaks is 0.60 m and the frequency is 2.5 Hz.

How long does it take for a wave to travel 3.0 m along the spring? 

a)

0.20 s

b)

0.50 s

c)

2.0 s

d)

5.0 s

499.

The dipper in a ripple tank vibrates at a frequency of 4.0 Hz and the resulting wave pattern is photographed.

The distance between the two crests shown is 20 cm.

What is the speed of the wave? 

a)

4 cm / s

b)

5 cm / s

c)

16 cm / s

d)

20 cm / s

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