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NAFS EXAMS - MR KHALED - EIGHT PART

Total questions: 494

Worksheet time: 7hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is one condition that is necessary for a hurricane to form?

a)

Warm ocean water

b)

A strong cold front

c)

Cold ocean water

d)

A strong warm front

2.

A class visits a beach area and wants to measure the speed of the wind coming ashore. What is the most appropriate tool to measure wind speed?

a)

Meter Stick

b)

Anemometer

c)

Psychrometer

d)

Thermometer

3.

A hot plate, a large beaker of water, and grains of rice are used in a class demonstration. When the water begins to boil, the rice moves in a circular pattern. the model demonstrates--

a)

Conduction

b)

Radiation

c)

Convection

d)

Subduction

4.

How are warm fronts represented on a weather map?

a)

Triangles

b)

Half-Circles

c)

Capital Letters

d)

Not Here

5.

An area of low pressure forms in the warm ocean water of the Gulf of Mexico. What could happen as a result of these conditions.

a)

Sunny skies

b)

Tsunami

c)

Blizzard

d)

Hurricane

6.

All of the following contribute to the formation of ocean currents, EXCEPT –

a)

Global Winds

b)

Salinity of ocean water

c)

Temperature

d)

Gravity

7.

The distribution of heated air and water in the form of convection currents is a result of unequal heating of the oceans and atmosphere. All of the following contribute to the unequal heating of Earth by the Sun, EXCEPT –

a)

The spherical shape of the Earth

b)

Daily fluctuations in the amount of solar energy the Sun produces

c)

The tilt of the Earth on its axis

d)

The rotation of the Earth on its axis creating day and night

8.

The movement of matter by a natural process is shown in the diagram below.The cycling of air represented by the arrow is known as –

a)

Conduction

b)

Radiation

c)

Convection

d)

Cooling

9.

Which of the following weather patterns is associated with a high pressure system?

a)

Clear, fair weather

b)

Cloudy with showers

c)

Severe storms with high winds

d)

Humid and windy

10.

All of the following are necessary for a hurricane to form, EXCEPT-

a)

warm ocean water.

b)

low pressure systems.

c)

high pressure systems.

d)

mixing warm and cool air masses.

11.

................................. is the water movement between earth's surface and the atmosphere.

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Water cycle

12.

................................... is the change from a liquid to a gas.

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Precipitation

13.

................................... is the change from a gas to a liquid.

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Precipitation

14.

.................................. is water that falls from clouds to earth's surface.

a)

Water cycle

b)

Precipitation

c)

Condensation

15.

................................. is water that is stored underground.

a)

Runoff

b)

Groundwater

c)

Glacier

16.

....................... is water that cannot soak into the ground instead it flows across earth's surface.

a)

Precipitation

b)

Runoff

c)

Groundwater

17.

................................... is a large slow-moving mass of ice.

a)

Runoff

b)

Aquifer

c)

Glacier

18.

................................. is a body of rock that stores groundwater.

a)

Runoff

b)

Aquifer

c)

Glacier

19.

............................... is the mixture of gases that surrounds the earth.

a)

Atmosphere

b)

Water cycle

c)

Precipitation

20.

.................................... is the exit of water from plants leaves.

a)

Evaporation

b)

Transpiration

c)

Condensation

21.

Sunlight heats up water causing it to evaporate.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

In the atomsphere, water vapours cools to form clouds.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

When clouds become too heavy, water falls to earth's surface as condensation.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Rain, snow, hail, and sleet are all forms of condensation.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Too much precipitation may cause runoff.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

An aquifer is a precious resource of water.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Precipitation adds water to aquifers in places called recharge areas.

a)

True

b)

False

28.
What does a barometer do?
a)
it measures elevation
b)
it measures humidity
c)
it measures wind speed
d)
it measures air pressure
29.
Which arrow shows evaporation?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
30.
In the water cycle on Earth, water is in which form?
a)
solid 
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
all of these
31.
Precipitation includes
a)
rain, snow, and air
b)
rain, wind, and snow
c)
snow, sleet, and hail
d)
all of these
32.
What is the name of the process of water changing to a gas? 
a)
Evaporation
b)
Condensation
c)
Precipitation
d)
Infiltration
33.
What is the name of the process of water droplets falling from the sky?
a)
evaporation
b)
condensation
c)
precipiation
d)
infiltration
34.
Definition: the pattern of weather in an area over time.
a)
weather
b)
humidity
c)
meterology
d)
climate
35.
What does an anemometer measure?
a)
wind direction
b)
wind speed
c)
air pressure
d)
humidity
36.
A student places a cup of water outdoors on a cold day. At what temperature will water in the cup change to ice?
a)
0 degrees F
b)
100 degrees F
c)
212 degrees F
d)
32 degrees F
37.
What is an example of condensation?
a)
water vapor turning into water droplets
b)
hail falling from the sky
c)
water from oceans and lakes going into the air
d)
a hurricane
38.
What does a thermometer measure?
a)
air pressure
b)
rainfall amounts
c)
wind direction
d)
temperature
39.
What happens during the process of evaporation?
a)
gas to liquid
b)
liquid to gas
c)
gas to solid
d)
liquid to solid
40.
What is an example of evaporation?
a)
snow falling from the sky
b)
water leaves the lakes and oceans into the air
c)
water vapor turns into water vapor
d)
a thunderstorm
41.
When a warm air mass is colliding with a cold air mass. What is the border between the two air masses called?
a)
weather map
b)
front
c)
high pressure
d)
thunderstorm
42.
What happens after condensation
a)
transportation 
b)
precipitation
c)
runoff
d)
evaporation
43.
Steam
a)
Solid
b)
Liquid
c)
Gas
44.
How could you turn steam into a liquid?
a)
By heating it
b)
By cooling it 
c)
By evaporating it
d)
Using a magnet
45.
Which of these is a liquid?
a)
Steam
b)
Ice
c)
Water
d)
Flour
46.
What is boiling water in Celsius?
a)
212
b)
112
c)
100
d)
50
47.
What is freezing in Celsius?
a)
32
b)
35
c)
0
d)
-5
48.

Which type of air would you find at air mass C?

a)

cold, dry

b)

warm, humid

c)

warm, dry

d)

cold, humid

49.

A wet and cold air mass would be a...

a)

Maritime polar

b)

Continental polar

c)

Maritime tropical

d)

Continental tropical

50.

A dry and cold air mass would be...

a)

Maritime polar

b)

Continental polar

c)

Maritime tropical

d)

Continental tropical

51.

Which air mass would be classified as Continental Tropical (cT)?

a)

purple

b)

green

c)

blue

d)

yellow

e)

red

52.

How do we name air masses?

a)

Only by their humidity, or moisture levels

b)

By their air pressure

c)

By theit humidity and temperature

d)

By their temperatures only

53.

How do we characterize an air mass that forms over the ocean?

a)

Dry

b)

Wet

c)

Cold

d)

Warm

54.

What's the humidity and temperature of a maritime tropical air mass?

a)

Wet and cold

b)

Dry and warm

c)

Wet and warm

d)

Dry and cold

55.

Identify the air mass in the picture:

a)

Continental polar (cP)

b)

Continental arctic (cA)

c)

Continental tropical (cT)

d)

Maritime polar (mP)

e)

Maritime tropical (mT)

56.

Identify "E":

a)

Continental polar (cP)

b)

Continental arctic (cA)

c)

Continental tropical (cT)

d)

Maritime polar (mP)

e)

Maritime tropical (mT)

57.

Identify the air mass in the picture:

a)

Continental polar (cP)

b)

Continental arctic (cA)

c)

Continental tropical (cT)

d)

Maritime polar (mP)

e)

Maritime tropical (mT)

58.

Which type of air would you find at air mass B?

a)

cold, dry

b)

warm, humid

c)

warm, dry

d)

cold, humid

59.

What's the humidity and temperature of a continental tropical air mass?

a)

Wet and cold

b)

Dry and warm

c)

Wet and warm

d)

Dry and cold

60.

Where would you find a tropical maritime air mass?

a)

over the ocean, near the equator

b)

over the ocean, near the poles

c)

over a continent, near the equator

d)

over a continent, near the poles

61.

How do we characterize an air mass that forms over near the equator?

a)

Dry

b)

Wet

c)

Cold

d)

Warm

62.

How do we characterize an air mass that forms near the poles?

a)

Dry

b)

Wet

c)

Warm

d)

Cold

63.

Which type of air would you find at air mass B?

a)

cold, dry

b)

warm, humid

c)

warm, dry

d)

cold, humid

64.

How do we characterize an air mass that forms over land?

a)

Dry

b)

Wet

c)

Cold

d)

Warm

65.

What types of air masses form over oceans?

a)

Maritime

b)

Continental

c)

Polar

d)

Tropical

66.

A dry and hot air mass would be...

a)

Maritime arctic

b)

Maritime tropical

c)

Continental tropical

d)

Continental polar

67.

Which type of air would you find at air mass A?

a)

cold, dry

b)

warm, humid

c)

warm, dry

d)

cold, humid

68.

Air masses have properties from where they...

a)

were formed

b)

end up

69.

Where do MARITIME air masses form?

a)

Over water

b)

Over land

70.

Where do CONTINENTAL air masses form?

a)

Over water

b)

Over land

71.

Which type of air mass brings WARM and DRY weather?

a)

Maritime Polar (mP)

b)

Maritime Tropical (mT)

c)

Continental Polar (cP)

d)

Continental Tropical (cT)

72.

Which type of air mass brings WARM and WET weather?

a)

Maritime Polar (mP)

b)

Maritime Tropical (mT)

c)

Continental Polar (cP)

d)

Continental Tropical (cT)

73.

Which type of air mass bring COLD and WET weather?

a)

Maritime Polar (mP)

b)

Maritime Tropical (mT)

c)

Continental Polar (cP)

d)

Continental Tropical (cT)

74.

Which type of air mass bring COLD and DRY weather?

a)

Maritime Polar (mP)

b)

Maritime Tropical (mT)

c)

Continental Polar (cP)

d)

Continental Tropical (cT)

75.

An air mass is a portion of the atmosphere that has similar...

a)

Water and temperature

b)

Air pressure and wind speed

c)

Humidity and temperature

d)

Humidity and air pressure

76.

Which air mass would be classified as Maritime Polar (mP)?

a)

purple

b)

green

c)

blue

d)

yellow

e)

red

77.

Which air mass would be classified as Maritime Tropical (mT)?

a)

purple

b)

green

c)

blue

d)

yellow

e)

red

78.

Which air mass would be classified as Continental Tropical (cT)?

a)

purple

b)

green

c)

blue

d)

yellow

e)

red

79.

Which air mass would bring warm and wet weather?

a)

purple

b)

green

c)

blue

d)

yellow

e)

red

80.

Which air mass is higher in humidity?

a)

purple

b)

blue

81.

Which air mass is warmer?

a)

red

b)

yellow

82.

What type of air mass is found over CHICAGO?

a)

Maritime Polar

b)

Maritime Tropical

c)

Continental Polar

d)

Continental Tropical

83.

What type of air mass is found over the UNITED KINGDOM?

a)

Maritime Polar

b)

Maritime Tropical

c)

Continental Polar

d)

Continental Tropical

84.

What type of air mass is found over PUERTO RICO?

a)

Maritime Polar

b)

Maritime Tropical

c)

Continental Polar

d)

Continental Tropical

85.

What type of air mass is found over EGYPT?

a)

Maritime Polar

b)

Maritime Tropical

c)

Continental Polar

d)

Continental Tropical

86.

Which best describes an air mass?

a)

A large body of air that has no water vapor.

b)

A large body of air that has the same temperature but different amounts of water vapor.

c)

A large body of air that has the same amount of water vapor but different temperatures.

d)

A large body of air that has the same amount of water vapor and temperature.

87.
Why is the increase of Greenhouse gasses a big issue?
a)
It causes climate change and increase in the global temerature 
b)
It can lead to a major increase in Greenhouses 
c)
It leads to more factories
d)
It causes a major decrease in people
88.
 What is the greenhouse effect?
a)
The warming of a planet due to trapped radiation.
b)
The cooling of Earth due to air pollution.
c)
The heating of a solid, such as a rock.
89.

Which one of the choices below is NOT a cause of global warming?

a)

Having too many farm animals

b)

Burning Fossil Fuels

c)

Planting new trees

90.

What do humans do that releases greenhouse gases into the atmosphere?

a)

Burn fossil fuels (like gas and coal)

b)

Ride bikes and use solar energy

c)

Compete in the Olympics

91.
What is climate?
a)
A long period of time. 
b)
Atmospheric conditions of a place at a particular point in time. 
c)
Average atmospheric conditions of a place over a long period of time, usually 30 years. 
d)
Current weather outlook of a place. 
92.
Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?
a)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing since 1960
b)
Hawaii has a lot of carbon dioxide
c)
humans have been working hard to decrease carbon dioxide levels
d)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased steadily since 1960
93.
Which of the following natural events would be most likely to contribute to the cooling of Earth's atmosphere?
a)
Earthquake
b)
Hurricane
c)
Volcanism
d)
Monsoon
94.
The greenhouse effect is beneficial as it helps to sustain life on earth by naturally trapping heat in the atmosphere. 
a)
False
b)
True
95.
Because Earth's axis is _________________, the hemispheres receive different amounts of solar energy at different times.
a)
straight
b)
titled
c)
bent
d)
not there
96.
Gases such as water vapor and carbon dioxide that trap heat near Earth are known as 
a)
global gases.
b)
greenhouse gases.
c)
proxy gases.
d)
offset gases.
97.

How do volcanic eruptions affect weather?

a)

Eruptions form clouds that drop large amounts of precipitation.

b)

Gases and particles may block sunlight and lower temperatures.

c)

Vibrations caused by eruptions shift ocean currents, which in turn affect weather.

98.
The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is decreasing. 
a)
True
b)
False
99.
The ____________________ is a natural process in which certain gases in the atmosphere trap heat near Earth and prevent it from radiating back into space.
a)
Greenhouse Zone
b)
Greenhouse Effect
c)
Tropic Layer
d)
Heat Zone
100.
Which of the following gases DOES NOT trap heat?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
nitrogen
c)
water vapor
d)
methane
101.
The average temperature of the surface of Earth has increased approximately 1°C in the past century. Which reason best explains this increase in temperature?
a)
lower levels of ozone in the atmosphere
b)
lower levels of nitrogen in the atmosphere
c)
higher levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
d)
higher levels of oxygen in the atmosphere
102.

Which major world event is thought to have been caused by a climate cooling as a result of volcanic eruptions?

a)

The Fall of Rome

b)

Scotland’s 2018 Calcutta Cup victory

c)

The French Revolution

d)

Fall of the Berlin Wall

103.

Which of the following is NOT a natural cause of climate change?

a)

Sunspot Cycles

b)

Milankovitch Cycles

c)

Deforestation

d)

Volcanic Eruptions / Asteriod Impacts

104.

A greater number of sunspots leads to increased temperatures on Earth.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

How many different types of Milankovitch Cycle exist?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

106.

Which of the following is a human cause of climate change?

a)

Deforestation

b)

Carbon capture

c)

Melting glaciers

d)

Tornadoes

107.

What does burning fossil fuels do to the greenhouse effect?

a)

Decreases it

b)

Does nothing

c)

Expands it

d)

Enhances it

108.

What keeps the Earth warm?

a)

The Sun

b)

The greenhouse gases

c)

Both of them

d)

None of them

109.

Which of these are greenhouse gases? You may select more than one option.

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Carbon monoxide

c)

Methane

d)

Nitrous oxide

e)

Oxygen

110.

The greenhouse effect is natural as it helps to sustain (keep) life on earth by trapping heat in the atmosphere.

a)

False

b)

True

111.

The enhanced greenhouse effect happens when...

a)

the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere increases.

b)

the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere decreases.

c)

the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere stays constant.

d)

the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere fluctuates.

112.

Which of the following is contributing to an INCREASE in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

a)

deforestation

b)

photosynthesis

c)

oceans

d)

all of the above

e)

the loss of animal species

113.

The enhanced greenhouse effect leads to ___.

a)

global cooling

b)

global warming

c)

global dimming

114.

Which of the following is the main cause of the enhanced greenhouse effect?

a)

Increase in sunspots

b)

Volcanic eruptions

c)

Human activities that emit greenhouse gases

115.

Climate change is the gradual ________ of average temperature in the atmosphere.

a)

increase

b)

decrease

116.

Which is a natural source of greenhouse gases that cause climate change?

a)

burning fossil fuels

b)

deforestation

c)

volcanic eruptions

117.

What happened in the late 1700's- early 1800's that caused carbon dioxide levels increase significantly?

a)

New factories were being built that caused more pollution (Industrial revolution)

b)

The civil war caused more pollution

c)

Scientists figured out how to clean up pollution in the air

d)

It did not increase

118.

The increase in burning of fossils fuels has led to an ____________ in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

a)

increase

b)

decrease

119.

What gas from the list below is a major cause of global warming?

a)

Urethane

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon Dioxide

120.

Select ALL types of fossil fuels below.

a)

coal

b)

oil

c)

natural gas

121.

Most causes of climate change can be traced back to human activity.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

Which options below are major causes of climate change?

a)

electricty

b)

planting trees

c)

industry

d)

agriculture

e)

photosynthesis

123.

What has led to the increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

a)

The Industrial Revolution

b)

The ice age

c)

Watching too much television

d)

Sleeping too much

124.

This is released by raising of livestock and it contributes to climate change

a)

sunspots

b)

methane

c)

aerosols

d)

Fuel

125.

What activities release greenhouse gases (cause climate change)?

a)

Burning oils to make planes and cars move

b)

Dumping trash on landfills

c)

Cutting down trees

d)

All of them

126.

Where have humans moved a lot of carbon to?

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Biosphere

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Hydrosphere

127.

Which of the following are examples of carbon sinks (Check all that apply)

a)

People

b)

Trees

c)

Oceans

d)

Fossil Fuels

128.

Evidence of life millions of years ago

a)

Fossils

b)

Continental Drift

c)

Lithosphere

d)

Plate Tectonics

129.

Describes the movements of tectonics plates over long periods of time.

a)

Fossils

b)

Continental Drift

c)

Lithosphere

d)

Plate Tectonics

130.

Consists of the crust and part of the mantle.

a)

Fossils

b)

Continental Drift

c)

Lithosphere

d)

Plate Tectonics

131.

Circular movements through the mantle.

a)

Continental Drift

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Convection Current

d)

Plate Tectonics

132.

The theory that the outer layer of Earth is divided and moves across Earth's surface.

a)

Fossils

b)

Continental Drift

c)

Lithosphere

d)

Plate Tectonics

133.

There is an idea or theory that the large masses of land all over the Earth were at one time all connected as Pangaea or a _____________.

a)

Supercontinent

b)

Drifting

c)

Tectonic Plates

d)

Fossils

134.

Scientists believe Earth's continents are ____________ or gradually moving.

a)

Supercontinent

b)

Drifting

c)

Tectonic Plates

d)

Fossils

135.

The pieces of Earth's crust and uppermost mantle are referred to as ______________ or the Lithosphere.

a)

Supercontinent

b)

Drifting

c)

Tectonic Plates

d)

Fossils

136.

Evidence from rocks and ____________ make clear how Earth's plates have moved great distances.

a)

Supercontinent

b)

Drifting

c)

Tectonic Plates

d)

Fossils

137.

Before there was evidence from rocks and fossils, many scientists theorized that the continents were once joined together. Using only maps, scientists observed that...

a)

The shape of the continents allowed them to fit together.

b)

Weathering and erosion have reshaped the surface of the Earth.

c)

The oceans have become smaller throughout Earth' history.

d)

The continents were all bordered by mountain ranges.

138.

Which of the following provides evidence for past tectonic plate motion?

a)

Matching rock type and rock formations can show the way the continents were once attached.

b)

Glacial evidence has been found in areas where glaciers could not exist if the continents were in their current location.

c)

Ancient life forms preserved as fossils can tell us what organisms existed and where they were. Matching the fossils can show that land masses were once connected.

d)

ALL of the above.

139.

By studying the distribution of different types of fossils, geologists have determined that some plates have traveled great distances.

Evidence that supports this from the fact that...

a)

Fossils of organisms that lived in warm climates have been found in arctic environments.

b)

Species of organisms in the fossil record have changed over geological time.

c)

Some fossilized organisms have only been found on one continent.

d)

The oldest known fossils, found in the deepest rock layers, represent ocean organisms.

140.

The theory of plate tectonics was, at first, rejected by most scientists. Now most geologists accept that tectonic plates exist and that these tectonic plates can and do move. What is responsible for the change in how scientists think about plate tectonics.

a)

New evidence was discovered that made scientists revise their ideas.

b)

Tectonic plates have begun to move faster and faster over time.

c)

There are more people studying science now than in the past

d)

Scientists can now travel underneath the plates and observe their motion.

141.

The distribution of fossils is used as evidence for plate tectonics. The distribution of 4 different fossils organisms over 4 different continents is shown in the diagram. Which shows evidence that Africa was once connected to South America?

a)

Lystrosaurus, Mesosaurus, Glossopteris

b)

Cynognathus, Glossopteris, Lystrosaurus

c)

Glossopteris, Cynognathus, Mesosaurus

d)

Cynognathus, Mesosaurus, Lystrosaurus

142.

New seafloor material is formed at places in the Earth's crust where...

a)

rock is broken into pieces as tectonic plate push against on another

b)

one tectonic plate slides beneath another and is forced downward

c)

lava flow from volcanic eruptions builds up over many thousands of years

d)

magma rises into the spaces where tectonic plates pull away from one another

143.

Part of the recycling of the seafloor material includes destruction. This happens...

a)

through weathering and erosion of exposed rock layers.

b)

as a result of violent and frequent volcanic activity.

c)

at trenches where rock material is subducted.

d)

when elements in rock are rearranged chemically.

144.

The process in which a denser plate is pushed beneath a less dense plate.

a)

Trench

b)

Subduction

c)

Divergent

145.

The deepest parts of the ocean, long narrow ditches.

a)

Trench

b)

Subduction

c)

Divergent

146.

A boundary formed when two plates move away from each other.

a)

Trench

b)

Subduction

c)

Divergent

147.

Why do scientists believe that some tectonic plates are moving away from each other?

a)

Pick me!!

(1) Fossils

(2) Mountain Ranges

(3) Climate

(4) Seafloor Spreading

Details in explanation!

b)

Don't pick this. Make sure you review the explanation details.

148.

How are fossils used by scientists to show that the theory of continental drift is correct?

a)

The same species of fossil (Trilobytes) was found on multiple continents even though that species could not fly or swim across oceans.

b)

Scientist have found fossils that are over 1 million years old.

c)

The fossils in the bottom layers are the oldest fossils.

149.
SOIL LAYERS ARE CALLED.......
a)
MATERIALS
b)
ORGANIC
c)
HUMUS
d)
HORIZONS
150.
MIXTURE OF ROCK, MINERAL PARTICLES, AND ORGANIC MATTER...... 
a)
HORIZONS
b)
HUMUS
c)
SOIL
d)
CLAY
151.
What is the name of Horizon 1?
a)
Subsoil 
b)
Topsoil
c)
Bedrock 
d)
Parent Rock
152.
What is the name of Horizon 2?
a)
Subsoil 
b)
Topsoil
c)
Bedrock 
d)
Parent Rock
153.
What is humus?
a)
soil
b)
organic matter
c)
loam
d)
minerals
154.

Which layer is the parent material?

a)

Horizon O

b)

Horizon A

c)

Horizon B

d)

Horizon C

e)

Horizon R

155.

Soil is made of:

a)

pieces of rock

b)

air and water

c)

matter that was once alive

d)

all of the above

156.
Soil is formed slowly through the weathering of materials called ___.
a)
Bedrock or parent material
b)
Magma and lava
c)
organic matter
d)
leaves and litter
157.
In which layer of the soil profile contains the MOST humus?
a)
Layer 1
b)
Layer 2
c)
Layer 3
d)
Layer 4
158.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of soil?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
silt
d)
mud
159.
You dig a small hole in the soil and the next day it rains. The hole fills with water, but does not empty even after several days of dry weather. What is the soil mostly made of?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
humus
d)
silt
160.
In which horizon of soil profile does leaching normally occur?
a)
regolith
b)
subsoil
c)
topsoil
d)
bedrock
161.

What will not be created at a divergent plate boundary during sea floor spreading? Ch.4

a)

Earthquakes

b)

Rift (deep valley)

c)

Ocean Ridge

d)

Mountains

162.

Where does sea floor spreading occur? Ch.4

a)

At a divergent boundary

b)

At a convergent boundary

c)

At a transform boundary

d)

At a continental and continental boundary

163.

What kind of motion does the thermal energy/heat create? Ch.5

a)

Up and Down Movement

b)

Circulation Movement

c)

Straight Movement

d)

All of these are correct

164.

Where will you find sea floor spreading? Ch.4

a)

At a divergent plate boundary

b)

At a convergent plate boundary

c)

At a transform boundary

d)

All of these are correct

165.

What is continually being made at a divergent boundary? Ch.4

a)

New crust

b)

New volcanoes

c)

New mantle

d)

New oceans

166.

What does sea floor spreading help explain? Ch.4

a)

How and why

b)

When and where

c)

What and who

d)

When and why

167.

How much does the Mid-Atlantic Ridge move every year? Ch.4

a)

10 millimeters per year

b)

2.5 centimeters per year

c)

8 centimeters per year

d)

12 centimeters per year

168.

What is another name for the lithosphere? Ch.5

a)

Mantle

b)

Crust

c)

Outer core

d)

Inner core

169.

What is the rock like in the asthenosphere? Ch.5

a)

Solid

b)

Plastic-like

c)

Liquid/Molten

170.

What is convection transferring? Ch.5

a)

Rock

b)

Heat

c)

Magma

d)

Fluid

171.

What do we call the movement of fluid in the upper mantle? Ch.5

a)

Convection current

b)

Fluid

c)

Magma

d)

Plastic-like

172.

What do scientists believe convection in the asthenosphere causes? Ch.5

a)

Tectonic plates to move

b)

Tectonic plates to settle

c)

The inner core to spin

173.

In what layer of Earth does convection take place? Ch.5

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Asthenosphere

c)

Lower mantle

d)

Inner core

174.

How were the islands of Hawaii formed? Ch.6

a)

Oceanic to Oceanic Boundary

b)

Convergent Boundary

c)

Divergent Boundary

d)

Hotspots

175.

What is the underground passageway that transports magma from the magma chamber to the surface of Earth? Ch.6

a)

Conduit

b)

Vent

c)

Magma chamber

d)

Lava flows

176.

What is magma when it reaches Earth's surface? Ch.6

a)

Magma

b)

Plastic-like

c)

Lava

d)

Ash

177.

What does not escape from Earth's interior through ruptures? Ch.6

a)

Magma

b)

Lava

c)

Gas

d)

Ash

178.

What part of the volcano is the red arrow pointing to? Ch.6

a)

Magma Chamber

b)

Side Vent

c)

Conduit

d)

Crater

179.

What type of plate boundary are volcanoes most often found at? Ch.6

a)

Convergent Plate Boundaries

b)

Divergent Plate Boundaries

c)

Transform Plate Boundaries

d)

Convergent and Divergent Plate Boundaries

180.

When does magma become lava? Ch.6

a)

When it flows on Earth's surface.

b)

When it flows underwater.

c)

When it flowers underground.

d)

When it turns to rock.

181.

What evidence helped Wegener determine that the continents were once joined?

Choose all that apply.

a)

Shape of continents

b)

Similar climates across oceans

c)

Similar landforms and plants across oceans

d)

Same fossils across multiple continents

e)

The age of the ocean floor

182.

What evidence helped scientists determine that the continents were once joined?

a)

The age of the ocean floor at ocean rifts

b)

Magma and convection currents

c)

Similar marine life across oceans

d)

Weather patterns across continents

183.

Where do most volcanoes and earthquakes occur?

a)

In the middle of tectonic plates

b)

At plate boundaries

c)

On the edge of continents

d)

In the oceans

184.

Diverging tectonic plates are

a)

Sliding past each other horizontally

b)

Moving away from each other

c)

Moving toward each other

185.

Converging tectonic plates are

a)

Sliding past each other horizontally

b)

Moving away from each other

c)

Moving toward each other

186.

Transform tectonic plates are

a)

Sliding past each other horizontally

b)

Moving away from each other

c)

Moving toward each other

187.

Which landform or event can can occur at a CONVERGENT: continental to continental plate boundary?

a)

Mountain

b)

Rift Valley

c)

Glacier

d)

Ocean Trench

188.

Which landform or event can can occur at a CONVERGENT: continental to oceanic plate boundary?

a)

River Trench

b)

Tsunami

c)

Volcanic Mountain

d)

Fold Mountains

189.

Which landform or event can can occur at a CONVERGENT: oceanic to oceanic plate boundary?

a)

Ocean Trench

b)

Great Lakes

c)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

d)

Earthquake

190.

Which landform or event can can occur at a DIVERGENT: continental to continental plate boundary?

a)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

b)

Rift Valley

c)

Ocean Trench

d)

Volcanic Island

191.

Which landform or event can can occur at a DIVERGENT: oceanic to oceanic plate boundary?

a)

Volcanic Island

b)

Mountain Valley

c)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

d)

Coral Reef

192.

Which landform or event can can occur at a TRANSFORM plate boundary?

a)

Earthquake

b)

Tornado

c)

Ocean Trench

d)

Volcano

193.

are lines of mountains connected by high ground.

a)

Mountain Range

b)

Hill

194.

found in mountain ranges, are deep, narrow areas surrounded by a mountain’s steep sides.

a)

Plateau

b)

Canyon

195.

is a single hill that has steep sides and a flat top

a)

Butte

b)

Hill

196.

is a large area of raised flat land that extends over a great distance

a)

River

b)

Plateau

197.

are steep rock faces at the edge of a body of water.

a)

ocean

b)

Cliff

198.

Volcanoes and earthquakes are common along a section of Earth called the

a)

Butte

b)

Ring of fire

199.

Which map show what can be produced in or taken from an area.

a)

Resources map

b)

Physical map

200.

shows the directions north (N), east (E), south (S), and west (W).

a)

Symbol

b)

Compass rose

201.

Earth’s surface is divided into plates

a)

True

b)

False

202.

earthquake and volcanoes occur along

a)

Fault or cracks in earths surface

b)

ocean

203.

How old is the earth?

a)

4.6 Billion years old

b)

4.6 Million yeas old

c)

4.6 Trillion years old

d)

2023 years old

204.

How long does it take glaciers to move?

a)

Millions of years

b)

Days

c)

Thousands of years

d)

Billions of years

205.

This mountain is growing at about

a)

1 centimeter per year

b)

1 inch per year

c)

1 foot per year

d)

The mountain is not growing

206.

How long is one million years? It helps to think about this in terms of numbers that are more familiar to us. For example, how many human lifetimes are in one million years?

Step 1. Assume the average human lifetime is 80 years. The question asks how many human lifetimes are in 1 million years, so we need to find out how many times 80 divides into 1,000,000. Let h represent the number of human lifetimes.

Step 2. h = 1,000,000 / 80 = 12,500. There are 12,500 human lifetimes in 1 million years.

The Himalayan Mountains have been growing slowly for about 50 million years. Using the same method, find out how many human lifetimes have passed since the Himalayan Mountains began to grow.

(a)  

207.

This dark layer of rock is called coal. Coal formation starts in what type of environment?

a)

swamp

b)

volcanic

c)

ocean

d)

Not enough information to answer

208.

Rocks are worn down as they are tumbled along river bottoms. Over time, they can be cemented together to form a new rock called (a)  

209.

This type of rock is igneous, which forms from...

a)

Volcanoes

b)

Earthquakes

c)

Lighting

d)

Tik Tok dances

210.

The ___ ___ is a compilation of all of Earth’s known fossils and the information they provide about Earth’s history.

(a)  

211.

Which layer of rock is the oldest?

a)

The top

b)

The bottom

c)

Which ever has the least amount of fossils

d)

Which ever has the most fossils

212.

What is the name of this extinct creature?

(a)  

213.

This animal is

a)

extinct

b)

a sea turtle

c)

a dinosaur

d)

alive

214.

When the continents were merged together before they separated, this was called ...

a)

Panorama

b)

Pacific continent

c)

Paleontology

d)

Pangaea

215.

A documentation of all fossils ever discovered is called the ...

a)

geological column

b)

geological time scale

c)

fossil record

d)

fossil document

216.

What does this fossil tell scientists about the region it was found?

a)

It was once a desert

b)

It was once under water

c)

It was once tropical forest

d)

It was frozen

217.

Through measuring radioactive isotopes, scientists found that the fossil was 24.2 million years old. This is ______dating.

a)

absolute

b)

relative

c)

rock

d)

none of the answers are correct

218.

A mountain used to have jagged edges and now it is rounded and smooth. This is a result from ...

a)

sun and heat

b)

an earthquake

c)

weathering and erosion

d)

a tsunami

219.

Which fossil is the youngest?

a)

fossil A

b)

fossil B

c)

fossil C

d)

fossils A and B are the same age

220.

This is a fossil of a...

a)

T Rex

b)

Dolphin

c)

Not enough information

d)

small fish

221.

Describes a group of living things that are no longer living.

a)

fossil

b)

extinct

c)

endangered

d)

dinosaur

222.

The hardened remains of a living thing that died long ago.

a)

fossil

b)

extinct

c)

endangered

d)

minerals

223.

What starts with IS, ends with AND and has LA in the middle?

a)

SILAND

b)

DISLAN

c)

ISLAND

d)

ANDLIS

224.
A geoscience process that develops slowly, but has a sudden catastrophic event
a)
volcanic eruption
b)
weathering and erosion
c)
delta formation
d)
thunderstorm
225.
One of these does not belong
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
transform
d)
landslide
226.

Natural processes that happen on Earth are called ____ processes.

a)

slow

b)

historic

c)

landmark

d)

Geoscience

227.
The continuous movement of the continents.
a)
geoscience
b)
rain
c)
wind
d)
plate tectonics
228.
What force is responsible for erosion and deposition in landslides?
a)
gravity
b)
ice
c)
wind
d)
temperature
229.
Weathering and erosion occur over many________.
a)
days
b)
years
c)
hours
d)
months
230.
Rocks tumbling down a steep slope would be an example of
a)
creep
b)
landslide
c)
mudslide
231.
Which of the following is a large scale geoscience process?
a)
landslides
b)
tectonic plate movement
c)
river erosion
d)
formation of caves
232.

Which of the following changes to Earth’s surface is most likely to represent the smallest scale of space and time?

a)

formation of rock layers

b)

formation of a canyon

c)

Uplift of mountain ranges

d)

A landslide on a mountain

233.
Huge pieces of Earth’s crust that are constantly moving
a)
folds
b)
Tectonic Plates
c)
continents
d)
ridges 
234.
Huge pieces of Earth’s crust that are constantly moving
a)
folds
b)
Tectonic Plates
c)
continents
d)
ridges 
235.
Earthquakes and volcanoes can cause a landslide
a)
False
b)
True
236.
Erosion is caused by.....
a)
The wind
b)
The sun
c)
cold air
d)
the stars
237.
What force is responsible for erosion and deposition in landslides?
a)
gravity
b)
ice
c)
wind
d)
temperature
238.
Sand Andreas Fault formed at this type of boundary-
a)
Transform Boundary
b)
Convergent Boundary
c)
Divergent Boundary
d)
Hot Spot
239.
This is an example of -
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
transform
240.
This is an example of -
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
transform
241.
This is an example of -
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
transform
242.

What is a tectonic plate?

a)

A piece of the earths crust

b)

A piece of the mantle

c)

A piece of the core

d)

A piece of the whole world

243.
What process causes new oceanic crust?
a)
Continental drift
b)
Sea floor spreading
c)
Earthquakes
d)
Radiation
244.

Which term matches the definition below? "events that occur over a short period of time and/or affect a relatively small area?

a)

small scale geoscience processes

b)

large scale geoscience processes

c)

gradual geoscience processes with sudden catastrophic events

245.

Where does the original energy come from in the making of fossil fuels?

a)

plants

b)

animals

c)

sun

d)

atmosphere

246.

Which variety of data that scientists gather is greater than any other natural recorder of Earth's history?

a)

fossils

b)

tree rings

c)

ice core samples

d)

sediment layers

247.

Which of the following is not a renewable resource for alternative energy?

a)

solar energy

b)

wind energy

c)

oil

d)

geothermal energy

248.

The outer layer of the Earth, the lithosphere, is divided into plates which move around on what layer?

a)

mantle

b)

outer core

c)

inner core

d)

asthenosphere

249.

Through observations, sediment is deposited in horizontal layers with older layers on the bottom and younger layers on top. Which two laws support this evidence? (Choose two answers)

a)

Law of Horizontality

b)

Law of Superpower

c)

Law of Horizon

d)

Law of Superposition

250.

Which type of rock does not belong when classifying layers of the Earth's crust?

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Glaciers

d)

Metamorphic

251.

What is geology?

a)

the study of earth

b)

the study of life

c)

the study of space

d)

the study of weather

252.

Which of the following in NOT an example of a gradual process with a sudden catastrophic event?

a)

earthquakes

b)

volcanos

c)

landslides

253.

Which of the following is the best example of a change to Earth’s surface caused by a usually gradual process that is interrupted by a rapid event?

a)

An earthquake resulting from tectonic plate movement

b)

The formation of a delta at the mouth of a river

c)

The creation of sediments by breaking down rocks

d)

A flooding of wetlands caused by a hurricane storm surge

254.

Which of the following changes to Earth’s surface is most likely to represent the smallest scale of space and time?

a)

landslide on a mountain

b)

uplift of mountain ranges

c)

breakdown of rock into sediments

d)

formation of a canyon

255.

Where is the ring of fire?

a)

in the Pacific ocean

b)

in the Atlantic ocean

c)

in a volcano

d)

in Africa

256.

Earthquakes occur frequently along transform boundaries because....

a)

plates slip past each other in opposite directions.

b)

plates run into each other.

c)

plates are pulling apart from one another.

257.

Where is the youngest seafloor?

a)

along the mid ocean ridge

b)

near the continents

258.

Where is a rift valley formed?

a)

Diverging continental crust

b)

Converging continental crust

c)

Converging continental and oceanic crust

d)

Transform boundary

259.

What is created at the place where oceanic crust diverges from oceanic crust? (choose two answers)

a)

mid ocean ridge

b)

continental crust

c)

new seafloor

d)

aethesnosphere

260.

Which is most likely to subduct (sink) at a convergent boundary?

a)

continental crust

b)

oceanic crust

261.

What happens when continental crust converges with continental crust?

a)

mountain building

b)

trench

c)

rift valley

d)

mid ocean ridge

262.

What land form is created at a subduction zone?

a)

trench

b)

continental crust

c)

oceanic crust

d)

rift valley

263.

Which type of boundary is found in the Atlantic Ocean between Africa and South America?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

264.

What type of boundary is on the northern border of the Indian plate?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

265.

Which boundary is most likely to build mountains?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

266.

What is the name of the super continent that occured 225 million years ago?

a)

Pangaea

b)

Wegener

c)

Plate tectonics

d)

continental crust

267.

What is the name of the super continent that occured 225 million years ago?

a)

Pangaea

b)

Wegener

c)

Plate tectonics

d)

continental crust

268.

A landslide is an example of ___________.

a)

a small scale processes

b)

a large scale process

c)

a gradual process with sudden catastrophic event

269.

What is the Elastic Rebound Theory?

a)

A theory explaining how rocks break down on Earth's surface.

b)

A theory describing how rocks release energy during an earthquake.

c)

A theory about the formation of supervolcanoes.

d)

A theory about the movement of tectonic plates.

270.

What are P-Waves?

a)

Primary waves or Pressure waves.

b)

Potential waves or Printing waves.

c)

Shore waves.

d)

Shear waves.

271.

Who is a seismologist?

a)

A scientist who studies volcanic eruptions.

b)

A scientist who studies earthquakes.

c)

A scientist who studies weather patterns.

d)

A scientist who studies ocean currents.

272.

What is a caldera?

a)

A type of earthquake wave.

b)

A hole that a supervolcano collapses into during an eruption.

c)

A type of rock formation.

d)

A tool used to measure seismic activity.

273.

What is the epicenter of an earthquake?

a)

The point where the earthquake originates underground.

b)

The point directly above the origin point of an earthquake, on the earth’s surface.

c)

The point where the most damage occurs during an earthquake.

d)

The point where tectonic plates meet.

274.

What are S-Waves?

a)

Primary waves or Pressure waves.

b)

Potential waves or Printing waves.

c)

Shore waves.

d)

Shear waves.

275.

What is the term for lava when it is located underground?

a)

Magma

b)

Basalt

c)

Granite

d)

Obsidian

276.

Which of the following is NOT a major plate boundary?

a)

Convergent boundary

b)

Divergent boundary

c)

Transform boundary

d)

Subduction boundary

277.

True or False: Supervolcanoes are the most dangerous type of volcano.

a)

True

b)

False

278.

What is the Theory of Plate Tectonics?

a)

A theory about the movement of Earth's plates.

b)

A theory about the formation of mountains.

c)

A theory about the origin of the Earth.

d)

A theory about the weather patterns.

279.

What is mantle convection?

a)

The process of heat transfer within the Earth's mantle that causes tectonic plates to move.

b)

The process of cooling of the Earth's core.

c)

The process of volcanic eruption.

d)

The process of rock formation.

280.

When a seismologist is studying earthquakes, one thing they cannot do is

a)

measure how strong the earthquake was

b)

measure how long it lasted

c)

measure when it happened

d)

predict when an earthquake will happen

281.

What is a seismograph

a)
A seismograph is a tool used for measuring ocean currents.
b)
A seismograph is a device that predicts weather patterns.
c)
A seismograph is an instrument used to measure and record seismic activity.
d)
A seismograph is a type of earthquake-proof building.
282.

Where is the Ring of Fire?

a)

Atlantic Ocean

b)

Pacific Ocean

c)

Florida

d)

Mexico

283.

Which of the following CAN be true about volcanic eruption?

a)

They can last decades.

b)

They always include explosions

c)

They are always dangerous.

d)

Explosions can have effects miles away.

284.

Earthquakes are measured using what system?

a)
Geological survey index
b)
Seismic intensity scale
c)

Moment Magnitude scale

d)

Richter Scale

285.

A composite volcano is also known as a what?

a)
stratovolcano
b)
shield volcano
c)
cinder cone
d)

caldera

286.

What are the names of projectiles that volcanoes can erupt?

a)

Tephra

b)
Comets
c)
Asteroids
d)

Lava bombs

e)

Ash and Volcanic Gases

287.

What is viscosity?

a)

Viscosity is the density of a solid when in a lava pool.

b)
Viscosity is the measure of a fluid's resistance to flow.
c)

Viscosity is the temperature of a fluid when it is near magma.

d)

Viscosity is the speed of sound in a liquid as it travels in waves.

288.

Which of the following is a Supervolcano located in the United States?

a)
Kilauea
b)
Mount St. Helens
c)
Yellowstone Caldera
d)
Mauna Loa
289.

The image above depicts the effects of chemical weathering breaking down limestone. Which type of chemical weathering causes this reaction?

a)

Acid rain

b)

Oxidation

c)

Exfoliation

d)

Abrasion

290.

A type of chemical weathering in which a substance combines with oxygen, as when iron oxidizes, forming rust.

a)

Acid rain

b)

Oxidation

c)

Reaction to water

d)

Exfoliation

291.

Which type of sediment does wind erosion most strongly affect?

a)

Loose, sandy soil

b)

Wet rocks

c)

Wet, compacted soil

d)

Dry, compacted soil

292.

The tallest sand dunes in North America are found in Great Sand Dunes National Park and Preserve in Colorado. These dunes were formed from the sand at the bottom of a dry lake bed. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible for the formation of the sand dunes?

a)

Wind

b)

Water

c)

Ice

d)

Gravity

293.

A landform that is a result of the deposition of sediments at the mouth of a river

a)

canyon

b)

mountain

c)

plateau

d)

delta

294.

The process by which rocks are broken down

a)

Weathering

b)

Deposition

c)

Erosion

d)

Sedimentation

295.

The process in which wind, water, ice or gravity transport rock fragments from one location to another

a)

Weathering

b)

Sedimentation

c)

Erosion

d)

Deposition

296.

The process in which sediment settles out (drops to the bottom) of the water or wind that is carrying it

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Sedimentation

d)

Deposition

297.

Fragments of weathered rocks are known as ____.

a)

sediments

b)

deposits

c)

limestones

d)

sandstones

298.

The MECHANICAL breaking down of rocks into smaller pieces is...

a)

Physical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

299.

The breakdown and decomposition of rocks as a result of chemical reactions and processes

a)

Physical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

300.

Rain washing away soil from a hillside is an example of...

a)

physical weathering

b)

erosion

c)

deposition

d)

chemical weathering

301.

Waves dropping sand onto land until a beach is formed is an example of...

a)

physical weathering

b)

erosion

c)

deposition

d)

chemical weathering

302.

Acid rain slowly wearing away rock over time is an example of...

a)

chemical weathering

b)

physical weathering

c)

erosion

d)

deposition

303.

Water getting into cracks, freezing, and breaking rocks or pavement apart is an example of...

a)

chemical weathering

b)

physical weathering

c)

deposition

d)

erosion

304.

An avalanche is an example of...

a)

physical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

c)

erosion

d)

deposition

305.

Over long periods of time, deposition may change the Earth's surface by...

a)

forming new land features.

b)

washing away beaches.

c)

breaking down large rocks in to smaller ones.

d)

moving topsoil.

306.

What causes the greatest amount of erosion on beaches?

a)

Waves

b)

Glaciers

c)

Wind

d)

Gravity

307.

What is an enormous mass of ice moving over land, causing weathering of rock and soil?

a)

A glacier

b)

An iceberg

c)

An ice wedge

d)

A sand dune

308.

How do plants weather rocks?

a)

During photosynthesis

b)

When the plant moves water from the roots to the leaves, the rock breaks

c)

When roots grow into cracks of rocks and expand, the rock breaks

d)

Plants don't weather rocks

309.

A river wearing down canyon walls over time is an example of...

a)

physical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

c)

deposition

d)

erosion

310.

Which natural process causes mountains and hills to get smaller over time?

a)

compaction

b)
erosion
c)

weathering

d)
deposition
311.

Sediment is...

a)

Rocks

b)

Melted rock

c)

Deposited sediment

d)

Weathered rock

312.

Erosion by gravity caused this...

a)

Car accident

b)
landslide
c)
sedimentation
d)

Avalanche

313.

Plant roots and the lichens they can produce are important for physically and chemically ___________ rocks.

a)
building
b)
depositing
c)
eroding
d)
weathering
314.

Which natural process most contributes to the formation of small islands?

a)
erosion
b)

gravity

c)
deposition
d)
weathering
315.

Which natural process contributed the most to the formation of the Grand Canyon?

a)
water erosion
b)

gravity

c)
deposition
d)
wind erosion
316.

Ice wedging happens when water freezes in the cracks of rocks and then expands, breaking the rocks apart. This is ___________ weathering.

a)
biological
b)
chemical
c)

depositional

d)
physical
317.

Deltas are formed when rivers flow into a body of water, such as an ocean or lake. Here, sediments begin to build up and form deltas. Which natural process contributes most to the formation of deltas?

a)
erosion
b)
weathering
c)
deposition
d)

river

318.

Wind causes weathering by...

a)

Wind blown sand can wear away rock surfaces

b)

Wind erosion and deposition build up landforms

c)

Wind carries sediments from one place to another

d)
Wind can not cause the weathering of rocks.
319.

Which of the following would contribute the most to beach erosion?

a)

People

b)

Boats

c)

waves

d)

Fish

320.

Weathering is the process where rocks get

a)

Built up

b)

Dropped off or deposited in a new location

c)

Broken or weathered down.

d)

Moved from one place to another

321.

Erosion is the process where sediments are

a)

Built up

b)

Dropped off or deposited in a new location

c)

Broken or weathered down into sediments

d)

Moved from one place to another

322.

Deposition is the process where sediments are

a)

Built up

b)

Dropped off or deposited in a new location

c)

Broken or weathered down into sediments

d)

Moved from one place to another

323.

True or False: Physical weathering weathers down rocks without needing a chemical reaction

a)

True

b)

False

324.

True or False: Chemical weathering weathers down rocks without needing a chemical reaction

a)

True

b)

False

325.

When an animal burrows into the Earth's surface, it is an example of...

a)

Physical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

c)

Erosion

d)

Deposition

326.

When rust forms on a rock, it is an example of...

a)

Physical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

c)

Erosion

d)

Deposition

327.

Caves and caverns are formed because of which natural process?

a)

Deposition

b)

Physical weathering

c)

Chemical weathering

d)

Erosion

328.

Coastlines increase over time due to which of the natural processes you've learned about?

a)

Deposition

b)

Physical weathering

c)

Chemical weathering

d)

Erosion

329.

Weathering, erosion and deposition work together to ​ (a)   the Earth's surface. Weathering ​ (b)   down the Earth's surface into ​ (c)   , ​ (d)   moves or ​ carries the sediment to a new location and deposition ​ (e)   or drops off the sediment in a new location where it will build up over time.

Choose from the below words
change
breaks
sediments
erosion
deposits
330.
How light reflects off of a mineral is called the mineral's 
a)
luster
b)
streak
c)
cleavage
d)
fracture
331.
The color of a mineral in powder form is called the mineral's 
a)
hardness
b)
specific gravity
c)
luster
d)
streak
332.
Diamond has a hardness of ___ on Mohs Hardness Scale.
a)
1
b)
5
c)
8
d)
10
333.
Dull, silky, waxy, pearly, and earthy are terms that best describe which property of minerals?
a)
luster
b)
color
c)
streak
d)
cleavage
334.
How do you test the hardness of a mineral? 
a)
Throw it against a wall
b)
Step on it
c)
Scratch Test
d)
Kick it until it breaks
335.
What mineral is used for pencils?
a)
Graphite
b)
Galena
c)
Magnetite
d)
Quartz
336.
What mineral is salt?
a)
quartz
b)
sulfur
c)
halite
d)
calcite
337.
A naturally occurring, inorganic solid with a crystal structure and a definite chemical composition is referring to
a)
density
b)
streak
c)
mineral
d)
non silicate mineral
338.
The solid, geometric form of a mineral produced by a repeating pattern of atoms
a)
crystal
b)
density
c)
element
d)
fracture 
339.
What mineral is the softest mineral on Moh's Hardness Scale and the main ingredient in baby powder?
a)
feldspar
b)
talc
c)
gypsum
d)
kaolinite
340.
Which mineral smells like rotten eggs?
a)
talc
b)
sulfer
c)
mica
d)
pyrite
341.
A mineral's resistance to being scratched is called?
a)
streak
b)
luster
c)
hardness
d)
heft
342.

Are there minerals in soil?

a)

Yes

b)

No

343.

-the name of the scale used to determine a mineral's hardness.

a)

Miller's scale of hardness

b)

The Scale of Hardness

c)

Mohs scale of hardness

d)

Mineral Hardness Scale

344.
A substance composed of a single kind of atom
a)
element
b)
compound
345.
Which is NOT a property used for identifying minerals?
a)
Streak
b)
Hardness
c)
Taste
d)
Color
346.

This property is NOT very useful in identifying a mineral:

a)

Color

b)

Luster

c)

Hardness

d)

Streak

347.
What is the relationship between a rock and a mineral?
a)
Rocks are made up of minerals.
b)
Minerals are made up of rocks.
c)
Rocks are on the Earth's surface. Minerals are found underground.
d)
Rocks and minerals are different names for the same thing.
348.
Gneiss is a rock because it
a)
is hard and round.
b)
has crystals.
c)
is made of minerals.
d)
has mass.
349.
Minerals are made of one or more
a)
minerals.
b)
sediments.
c)
elements.
d)
rocks.
350.

Which of the following is NOT a property of minerals?

a)

ore

b)

luster

c)

fracture

d)

color

351.

Part of a gemstone's value is based on the way it shines in reflected light. The way a mineral reflects light is described as the mineral's

a)

streak

b)

color

c)

luster

d)

fracture

352.

Which of the following is NOT a property of a mineral?

a)

luster

b)

color

c)

hardness

d)

size

353.

Which of the following best explains a hardness scale?

a)

a scale that tests the hardness of a mineral by scratching other materials

b)

a scale that tests the hardness of a rock by scratching other materials

c)

a scale that tests the hardness of a mineral by being rubbed on other materials

d)

a scale that tests the hardness of a rock by being rubbed on other materials

354.
What is the color of a mineral in powdered form called?
a)
Gas
b)
Fracture
c)
Streak
d)
Liquid
355.
What occurs when minerals break unevenly along curved or irregular surfaces?
a)
Luster
b)
Fracture
c)
Cleavage
d)
Streak
356.
A naturally formed, inorganic solid that has a crystalline structure is a
a)
Sulfide
b)
Sulfate
c)
Mineral
d)
Element
357.
Which mineral property is being shown here?
a)
luster
b)
hardness
c)
streak
358.
The least useful property when identifying minerals is
a)
Streak
b)
Luster
c)
Color
359.

Which of the following properties of minerals is described with the Mohs scale?

a)

luster

b)

fracture

c)

fluorescence

d)

hardness

360.

A pure substance that cannot be broken down into a simpler substance and is made of only one type of atom is a(n)

a)

element

b)

compound

c)

atom

d)

molecule

361.

Minerals can be identified according to their properties. Alan finds a mineral that is shiny. In which category does Alan's mineral belong?

a)

Cleavage

b)

Hardness

c)

Metallic

d)

Nonmetallic

362.

Which is NOT a way to identify a mineral?

a)

Color

b)

Luster

c)

Boiling point

d)

Hardness

363.

How can minerals be identified?

a)

By their physical properties

b)

By their color, luster, and hardness

c)

By their form, streak, and cleavage

d)

All of the above

364.
How much a mineral resists scratching is
a)
Streak
b)
Fracture
c)
Hardness
d)
Cleavage
365.

Whether or not a mineral will float in water is based on its _________.

a)

Luster

b)

Hardness

c)

Cleavage

d)

Density

366.

You look at a mineral to find this property. Many minerals can have more than one.

a)

Luster

b)

Cleavage

c)

Color

d)

Streak

367.

What are two types of luster?

a)

Metallic

b)

Metalilc

c)

Nonmetallic

d)

Nonmetallc

368.

Which is NOT a property used for identifying minerals?

a)

Streak

b)

Hardness

c)

Color

d)

Taste

369.
Which of the following is not true of all minerals?
a)
Definite Chemical Composition
b)
Definite Crystalline Shape
c)
Made in Laboratories
d)
Solid
370.
This rock was another type of rock that was heated and compressed over time. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
371.
This rock started as molten magma. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
372.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
373.
Cooling & crystalization produce
a)
igneous rocks
b)
metamorphic rocks
c)
sedimentary rocks
374.
True or False: Once a rock is sedimentary, it cannot become an igneous rock.
a)
True
b)
False
375.
The process when rocks break into smaller pieces due to exposure to natural elements is called
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
c)
sediments
376.
What are the 3 major types of rocks?
a)
Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic, Igneous, Cementation
c)
magma, lava, crystals
377.
The process by which igneous rocks are formed...
a)
heat and pressure
b)
melting and cooling
c)
weathering and erosion
378.
The process by which metamorphic rocks are formed...
a)
heat and pressure
b)
erosion and deposition
c)
melting and cooling
379.
The name rock is given when it is broken down into smaller pieces.
a)
texture
b)
weathering
c)
sediment
d)
erosion
380.
Which of the following describes rocks formed by the compaction of living things?
a)
Clastic
b)
Organic
c)
Foliated 
d)
Nonfoliated
381.

Which of the following describes rocks formed when sediments are buried, compacted, and cemented together?

a)

Clastic

b)

Organic

c)

Foliated

d)

Nonfoliated

382.

Which rock is formed form the cooling of volcanic ash on Earth's surface?

a)

intrusive igneous

b)

foliated metamorphic

c)

extrusive igneous

d)

organic sedimentary

383.

Which sedimentary rock has a fine-grained texture?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

384.

Rock made from fossils of once living plants or animals.

a)

Intrusive Igneous

b)

extrusive Igneous

c)

clastic Sedimentary

d)

organic Sedimentary

385.

Which rock can shale transform into by heat and pressure and minerals are arranged in bands/planes?

a)

nonfoliated metamorphic

b)

foliated metamorphic

c)

organic sedimentary

d)

intrusive igneous

386.

Rocks that form from colling magma inside Earth?

a)

Igneous intrusive

b)

Igneous extrusive

c)

Metamorphic foliated

d)

Metamorphic nonfoliated

387.
How would you classify the rock in the picture?
a)
Organic
b)
Clastic
c)
Intrusive
d)
Extrusive
388.
True/False: Igneous rocks can only turn into metamorphic rocks.
a)
True
b)
False
389.
The process in which dissolved minerals crystallize and glue sediment together.
a)
compaction
b)
deposition
c)
organic rock
d)
cementation
390.

How are Sedimentary rocks formed?

a)

Compaction and cementation of sediments

b)

Application of heat and pressure

c)

The cooling of molten rock

391.

How are Metamorphic rocks formed?

a)

Compaction and cementation of sediments

b)

Application of heat and pressure

c)

The cooling of molten rock

392.

How are igneous rocks formed?

a)

Compaction and cementation of sediments

b)

Application of heat and pressure

c)

The cooling of molten rock

393.

What are sedimentary rocks made of?

a)

Sediments, fossils and clay

b)

Sediments, Dead organisms and fossils

c)

Fossils, dead organisms, clay

394.

What does SEDIMENT mean?

a)

Large pieces of rock and soil

b)

A bunch of rocks

c)

Small pieces of rock and soil

395.

What does deposition mean?

a)

When sediments travel to an area

b)

When sediments settle in an area after being transported

c)

When sediments cement together

396.

What does compaction mean?

a)

When the weight of sediments from above squash lower sediments

b)

When lower sediments move to make room for other sediments

c)

When sediments travel to a new area

397.

Chalk is an example of

a)

Sedimentary rock

b)

Igneous rock

c)

Metamorphic rock

398.

Sandstone is an example of

a)

Sedimentary rock

b)

Igneous rock

c)

Metamorphic rock

399.

Granite is an example of

a)

Sedimentary rock

b)

Igneous rock

c)

Metamorphic rock

400.

Obsidian is an example of

a)

Sedimentary rock

b)

Igneous rock

c)

Metamorphic rock

401.

Marble is an example of

a)

Igneous rock

b)

Sedimentary rock

c)

Metamorphic rock

402.

Quartzite is an example of

a)

Sedimentary rock

b)

Igneous rock

c)

Metamorphic rock

403.

What does intrusive mean?

a)

Within the earth

b)

On earths surface

c)

At earths core

404.

What does extrusive mean?

a)

Within the earth

b)

On earths surface

c)

At earths core

405.

How can you identify an intrusive rock?

a)

Small crystals

b)

Large crystals

c)

Fine grained crystals

406.

How can you identify an Extrusive rock?

a)

Small crystals

b)

Large crystals

c)

Fine grained crystals

407.

Minerals are..

a)

Naturally occurring element

b)

Man made element

c)

A combination of both naturally and man made elements

408.

Metamorphic rocks are made from

a)

Sedimentary rocks

b)

Igneous rocks

409.

Mark the one that means "birus"?

a)

sugary

b)

powdery

c)

liquid

d)

powder

410.

What is in English "klintys"?

a)

sandstone

b)

slate

c)

shale

d)

limestone

411.

What is the meaning of "sedimentary rocks"?

a)

giluminės uolienos

b)

kalkinės uolienos

c)

nuosėdinės uolienos

d)

cheminės uolienos

412.

"Tissue" means audinys.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

413.

What is in English "klestėti"?

a)

threat

b)

thread

c)

thrive

d)

throw

414.

Mark the one that has a spelling mistake:

a)

gravel

b)

sedementary rocks

c)

soak

d)

powdery

415.

What is in English "čiuptuvas"?

a)

trunk

b)

treasure

c)

tentacle

d)

treatment

416.

Mark two ones that have got spelling mistakes:

a)

sesile

b)

criter

c)

consumption

d)

expel

417.

What is the meaning of the word "simultaneously"?

a)

dažnai

b)

retai

c)

vienu metu

d)

kartais

418.

"Debris source rocks" means - nuotrupinės kilmės uolienos

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

419.

What is in English "žvyras"?

a)

grains

b)

grades

c)

gravel

d)

grave

420.

Translate: "combustible property"..?

a)

sugeriančios savybės

b)

tirpstančios savybės

c)

degiosios savybės

421.

What does it mean "ice core"?

a)

ledo kernas

b)

ledo šerdis

c)

abu paminėti

422.

What is in English "magminės uolienos"?

a)

sedimentary rocks

b)

intrusive rocks

c)

igneous rocks

d)

effusive rocks

423.

Mark the one that has a spelling mistake?

a)

manganese ora

b)

inferior

c)

shale

d)

marble

424.

What is depicted on the picture?

a)

a plant

b)

a toy

c)

a critter

d)

neither of them

425.

What is in English : "susidurti"?

a)

embrace

b)

encourage

c)

encounter

d)

expel

426.

The word "spawning" means neršimas.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

427.

What is in English: "virškinimo sistema"?

(a)  

428.

What is in English : "suvartojimas"?

(a)  

429.
The breaking down of rocks and other materials on the Earth's surface.
a)
Pangea
b)
sea-floor spreading
c)
chemical weathering
d)
physical weathering
430.
The breaking down of rocks and other materials on the Earth's surface.
a)
Weathering
b)
sea-floor spreading
c)
chemical weathering
d)
physical weathering
431.
Processes by which rock, sand, and soil are broken down and carried away
a)
Erosion
b)
Pangea
c)
sea-floor spreading
d)
chemical weathering
432.
small, solid pieces of material that come from rocks or living things
a)
sediment
b)
Weathering
c)
Pangea
d)
sea-floor spreading
433.
a naturally occurring, inorganic solid that has a crystal structure and a definite chemical composition
a)
mineral
b)
Erosion
c)
Weathering
d)
Pangea
434.
a type of rock that forms from the cooling of molten rock at or below the surface
a)
igneous rock
b)
sediment
c)
Erosion
d)
Weathering
435.
A type of rock that forms when particles from other rocks or the remains of plants and animals are pressed and cemented together
a)
sedimentary rock
b)
mineral
c)
sediment
d)
Erosion
436.
rock that has been changed by heat and pressure
a)
metamorphic rock
b)
igneous rock
c)
mineral
d)
sediment
437.
Sections of the Earth's crust that move due to convection currents.
a)
tectonic plates
b)
sedimentary rock
c)
igneous rock
d)
mineral
438.
The theory that pieces of Earth's lithosphere are in constant motion, driven by convection currents in the mantle.
a)
plate tectonics
b)
metamorphic rock
c)
sedimentary rock
d)
igneous rock
439.
a current caused by the rising of heated fluid and sinking of cooled fluid
a)
convection current
b)
tectonic plates
c)
metamorphic rock
d)
sedimentary rock
440.
all of the matter, energy, and processes within Earth's boundary
a)
Earth System
b)
plate tectonics
c)
tectonic plates
d)
metamorphic rock
441.
a method of determining whether a fossil older or younger than other fossils
a)
relative dating
b)
convection current
c)
plate tectonics
d)
tectonic plates
442.
A technique used to determine the actual age of a fossil
a)
absolute dating
b)
Earth System
c)
convection current
d)
plate tectonics
443.
A record of the geologic events and life forms in Earth's history.
a)
geologic time scale
b)
relative dating
c)
Earth System
d)
convection current
444.
Any process that breaks rock down into smaller pieces without changing the chemistry of the rock
a)
physical weathering
b)
absolute dating
c)
relative dating
d)
Earth System
445.
The process that breaks down rock through chemical changes
a)
chemical weathering
b)
geologic time scale
c)
absolute dating
d)
relative dating
446.
The process by which molten material adds new oceanic crust to the ocean floor
a)
sea-floor spreading
b)
physical weathering
c)
geologic time scale
d)
absolute dating
447.
A supercontinent containing all of Earth's land that existed about 225 million years ago.
a)
Pangea
b)
chemical weathering
c)
physical weathering
d)
geologic time scale
448.
The preserved remains or traces of an organism that lived in the past
a)
Fossil
b)
absolute dating
c)
tectonic plates
d)
sedimentary rock
449.
Process in which sediment is laid down in new locations.
a)
Deposition
b)
absolute dating
c)
relative dating
d)
igneous rock
450.
How many layers does the earth have?
a)
7
b)
3
c)
4
d)
9
451.
The earth 's crust is made up of what?
a)
Dirt
b)
Dinner Plates
c)
Tectonic Plates
d)
Mantle
452.
What happens when there is a sudden movement in the tectonic plates?
a)
Hurricane
b)
Cyclone
c)
Earthquake
453.
Does the movement of tectonic plates change the formation of the earth?
a)
Yes
b)
No
454.
Which of these terms incorrectly describes the movement of tectonic plates?
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
Transform
d)
Overlap
455.
What does the Richter scale measure?
a)
Waves
b)
Earthquakes
c)
Cyclones
456.
What rises through the earth's crust during a volcanic eruption?
a)
Magma
b)
Lava
c)
Rocks
d)
Water
457.
What causes volcanos to erupt?
a)
Earthquakes
b)
Air
c)
Density & Pressure
458.
What is the effect of an underwater earthquake?
a)
Flood
b)
Tsunami
c)
Ripples
d)
Cyclone
459.
A Tsunami is a ....... of waves
a)
One big wave
b)
Series of waves
c)
Three waves
d)
Two waves
460.
What are the "waves" called that come from an earthquake?
a)
Thunder
b)
Seismic 
c)
Hang 10
d)
Lava
461.
What are scientists that study volcanoes called?
a)
doctor
b)
vet
c)
volcanologist
d)
volcano scientist
462.
Lava begins as
a)
water
b)
crust
c)
magma
d)
pumice
463.
The word tsunami comes from 
______
a)
Japan
b)
Australia
c)
Africa
d)
Gurgens off Route 109!
464.
The exact spot where an earthquake occurs is called the _____________.
a)
epicenter
b)
origin
c)
earthquake home
d)
primary occurrence
465.
When two plates that are moving against each other suddenly slip we call it a(n)
a)
tsunami
b)
earthquake
c)
fault line
466.
Volcanoes and earthquakes happen along...
a)
islands in the Pacific Ocean
b)
North American mountain ranges
c)
the boundaries of Earth's plates
d)
the coast of Antarctica
467.
Can volcanic eruptions effect climate?
a)
yes 
b)
no
468.
An instrument that detects and measures earthquakes is a 
a)
seismogram
b)
focus seismic map
c)
focus
d)
seismograph 
469.
What is the shaking of the Earth’s crust caused by a release of energy?
a)
Earthquake
b)
Epicenter
c)
Fault
d)
Plate
470.

Earthquakes, volcanoes, continents movements, mountains formation… are:

a)

Internal geological processes

b)

External geological processes

c)

Non geological processes

d)

Option 1 and 2 are correct

471.

The atmosphere is a :

a)

Internal geological process

b)

External geological process

c)

Isn´t a geological process

d)

None of them are correct

472.

The mechanical effect of disintegration of rocks with no chemical change is called:

a)

Biological weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Physical weathering

d)

Chemical weathering

473.

Is the wear down, rip off and mobilization of material produced by wind or water.

a)

Meteorisation

b)

Sedimentation

c)

Transportation

d)

Erosion

474.

In the erosion. The more tilted the area is, the more erosion due to gravity. We are talking about:

a)

Sum

b)

Slope

c)

Speed

d)

Surface

475.

It is the displacement or moving of the sediments (eroded material) from one place to another one. We speak about:

a)

Meteorisation

b)

Erosion

c)

Transportation

d)

Sedimentation

476.

"Heaviest and irregular shaped particles creep along the ground when the agent is strong enough" This process is:

a)

Saltation

b)

Suspension

c)

Sliding

d)

Rolling

477.

"The bigger and rounded particles roll on themselves when the agent is strong enough". We are speaking about:

a)

Sliding

b)

Saltation

c)

Rolling

d)

Suspension

478.

The linear and barchane dunes are typical of:

a)

Rocky deserts

b)

Reg deserts

c)

Erg desert

d)

Badlands

479.

What is this picture?

a)

Natural arc

b)

Taffoni

c)

Mushroom shape rocks

d)

Meandres

480.

What is this picture?

a)

Taffoni

b)

Natural arc

c)

A rock

d)

Mushroom shaped rock

481.

The Badlands are made of:

a)

Taffoni

b)

Gullies and ravines

c)

Loess and Gullies

d)

Taffoni and ravines

482.

A hard rock isolated in soft sediment is eroded as:

a)

Badlands

b)

Hoodoo or fairy chimney

c)

Gullies

d)

Ravines

483.

The polar ice cap retains:

a)

90% of fresh water

b)

80% of fresh water

c)

85% of fresh water

d)

75% of fresh water

484.

What is this picture?

a)

Glacier tongue

b)

Morraine

c)

Cirque glacier

d)

Glaciar lake

485.

"Non-sorted mixture of rock, gravel and boulders within a matrix of a fine powdery deposit from the glacier and exposed after it has retreated" This is a

a)

Cirque glacier

b)

Glacier tongue

c)

Morraine

d)

Glacier front

486.

The attraction Moon-Earth provokes twice a day high and low...

a)

Waves

b)

Currents

c)

Winds

d)

Tides

487.

The deep currents depend of:

a)

Density

b)

Pressure

c)

Wind action

d)

The atraction of the Moon-Earth

488.

What is this picture?

a)

Headland

b)

Cliff

c)

Bay

d)

Spit

489.

The ripple marks are created by:

a)

Tides action

b)

Waves action

c)

The currents

d)

The marine animals

490.

What is this picture?

a)

Spit

b)

Tombolo

c)

Barrier island and lagoon

d)

Albufera

491.

"A stream of water with fixed and stable course throughout the year" We are talking about

a)

Sea currents

b)

Rivers

c)

Meandres

d)

Torrents

492.

The gorges, ravines or caynons are typical of:

a)

Upper course

b)

Middle course

c)

Base course

d)

None of them are correct

493.

What is the translation in Spanish of "trough-shaped valley "?

a)

Valle fluvial

b)

Valle estrecho y profundo

c)

Valle en artesa

d)

Garganta

494.

"cluster of sediments in triangular shape ("bird leg structure)". This is a:

a)

Delta

b)

Marisme

c)

Estuary

d)

Cone of abrasion

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