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Worksheets

8th Grade Science Review

Total questions: 234

Worksheet time: 6hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the role of mRNA in protein synthesis?

a)

it makes the bases that makes up DNA

b)

it transcribes the code from DNA

c)

it helps DNA perform replication

d)

it makes the amino acids used in protein synthesis

2.

The table shows the number of neutrons, protons, and electrons for two atoms. How are the two atoms alike?

a)

They have the same charge.

b)

They have the same mass number.

c)

They have the same atomic number

d)

They are atoms of the same element.

3.

The diagram shows the arrangement of electrons in a neon atom. How many protons are present in this atom's nucleus?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

2

d)

There is not enough information to answer this question.

4.

In the diagram, the arrows labeled III point to the atom's ______________.

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Nucleus

d)

Electrons

5.

Elements with seven valence electrons —

a)

are highly reactive

b)

are highly stable

c)

have a high mass

d)

have a low mass

6.

The atoms of a certain element each contain 11 protons and 1 valence electron. Which statement correctly identifies this element and describes its chemical reactivity?

a)

The element is sodium, and it is highly reactive

b)

The element is fluorine, and it is highly reactive

c)

The element is sodium, and it is not very reactive

d)

The element is fluorine, and it is not very reactive

7.

Which of these elements would have properties most similar to arsenic (As)?

Use the periodic table and your notes slides.

a)

Silicon (Si)

b)

Selenium (Se)

c)

Tin (Sn)

d)

Phosphorus (P)

8.

Sulfur is a nonmetal. Of the following, the physical characteristic that is most

likely to describe a sample of sulfur is —

a)

a shiny appearance

b)

brittleness

c)

malleability

d)

ductility

9.

How many of each atom are in the compound above?

a)

1 magnesium atom, 2 iron atoms, and 4 oxygen atoms

b)

3 magnesium atoms, 2 iron atoms, and 4 oxygen atoms

c)

6 magnesium atoms, 6 iron atoms, and 12 oxygen atoms

d)

3 magnesium atoms, 6 iron atoms, and 12 oxygen atoms

10.

Potassium nitrate is a compound used in some fertilizers. Its chemical formula

is KNO3. How many TOTAL atoms are in each unit of potassium nitrate?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

3

d)

9

11.

Look at the pictures above. A shows the bag before the vinegar and baking soda are mixed together, and B shows it after they are mixed together. In which picture do the contents of the bag have the greater mass?

a)

The mass is greater in A—before they are mixed.

b)

The mass is greater in B—after they are mixed.

c)

The mass is the same in both.

d)

The mass depends on the temperature.

12.

Which of the following is the best clue that a chemical reaction has taken place?

a)

Change in color

b)

Change in state

c)

Change in particle size

d)

Change in volume

13.

A student uses a magnet to move a .04 kg ball bearing. The magnet exerts a force of 4N, which causes the ball bearing to begin moving. What is the acceleration of the ball bearing when it begins to move?

a)

.01 m/s2

b)

.16 m/s2

c)

3.96 m/s2

d)

100 m/s2

14.

While practicing in a simulator, an astronaut experienced an acceleration of 26 m/s2. The astronaut's mass was 63.0 kg. In Newtons, what force did the astronaut experience?

a)

2.42 N

b)

37 N

c)

1638 N

d)

42,588 N

15.

In this model, which particle determines the reactivity of this atom?

a)

Particle W

b)

Particle X

c)

Particle Y

d)

Particle Z

16.

Which table is correct? (use your periodic table and notes slides)

a)
b)
c)
d)
17.

What process is being represented in this diagram?

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

DNA replication

18.

What process is being represented in this diagram?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

DNA replication

19.

If an egg cell of an organism contains 12 chromosomes, how many chromosomes should be present in a heart cell of the same organism?

a)

12

b)

24

c)

6

d)

48

20.

What is a gamete?

a)

a body cell (ex. skin or heart cell)

b)

an autosome

c)

a sex cell (ex. sperm or egg)

d)

a somatic cell

21.

How many chromosomes does a sex cell have compared to a body cell?

a)

twice as many

b)

the same amount

c)

the same, but replicated

d)

half as many

22.

Somatic cells are formed during what process?

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

DNA replication

d)

interphase

23.

The matching pair of chromosomes you inherit from your genetic parents are called

a)

sister chromatids

b)

autosomes

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

sex chromosomes

24.

When does "crossing over" of genes occur during meiosis?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

25.

What happens during anaphase?

a)

Chromosomes/chromatids line up in center

b)

Nucleus dissolves

c)

The cell divides

d)

Chromosomes/chromatids are pulled apart

26.

How many chromosomes are in the somatic cells of humans?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

42

d)

26

27.

Which of the following is an example of a somatic cell?

a)

egg cells

b)

stomach cells

c)

sperm cells

d)

gametes

28.

During which phase are sister chromatids lined up in a single file along the center of the cell?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Telophase II

29.

Which letter(s) in the diagram correspond to cells that are haploid?

a)

A and B

b)

A and C

c)

B and C

d)

A only

30.

A diploid pea plant cell contains 14 chromosomes. How many chromsomes would be in a haploid pea plant cell?

a)

28

b)

14

c)

7

d)

21

31.

What is the purpose of meiosis?

a)

growth

b)

repair

c)

reproduction

d)

to create identical cells

32.

What is the purpose of mitosis?

a)

growth and repair

b)

reproduction

c)

genetic diversity

d)

to create unique cells

33.

True or False: Crossing over only occurs in meiosis.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

True or False: DNA replication occurs only before mitosis

a)

True

b)

False

35.

True or False: Meiosis results in identical cells.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

True or False: Meiosis produces haploid gametes.

a)

True

b)

False

37.
What subatomic particles would you find in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons only
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Neutrons and Electrons
d)
Protons and Electrons 
38.
What subatomic particle is electrically neutral (no charge)?
a)
Proton
b)
Ion
c)
Neutron
d)
Electron
39.
What is the mass of an atom if it has 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 11 electrons?
a)
22
b)
11
c)
34
d)
23
40.
If an atom has 10 protons, 10 neutrons, and 10 electrons, what is the mass of the atom?
a)
10
b)
20
c)
30
41.
What subatomic particle(s) would be found orbiting the nucleus?
a)
Neutrons only
b)
Electrons only
c)
Protons and Neutrons
d)
Protons and Electrons
42.
Protons and Electrons balance the charge of an atom.
a)
True
b)
False
43.
Which subatomic particles contribute the most to the mass of an atom?
a)
Protons, Neutrons, Electrons
b)
Protons only
c)
Protons and Electrons
d)
Protons and Neutrons
44.
If an atom has 12 positively charged subatomic particles, which of the following must it also have to be considered a neutral atom?
a)
12 neutrons
b)
12 electrons
c)
12 protons
d)
24 protons and neutrons
45.
The smallest particle of any type of matter is known by which of the following terms?
a)
Element
b)
Compound
c)
Atom
d)
Chemical
46.

Which subatomic particle identifies the element?

a)
Number of Valence Electrons
b)
Number of Protons
c)
Number of Electrons
d)
Atomic Mass
47.
What subatomic particle is positively charged and is located inside of the nucleus?
a)
Proton
b)
Neutron
c)
Electron
d)
Ion
48.
Which one of these is NOT located in the element square on the Periodic Table?
a)
Atomic Number
b)
Atomic Mass
c)
Room Temperature
d)
Chemical Symbol
49.
Where are electrons of an atom found?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Electron Cloud
c)
Some are in the nucleus and some in the electron cloud.
d)
They are moving everywhere.
50.
Electrons have this type of charge?
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
51.
What is the atomic number for an element with three protons?
a)
2
b)
1
c)
3
d)
6
52.

What is the atomic mass of potassium when rounded to the nearest whole number?

a)

40

b)

19

c)
39
d)
20
53.

How many neutrons are in an atom of potassium?

a)
7
b)
2
c)
39
d)
20
54.
What is the number of protons that the element in this image contain?
a)
14
b)
7
c)
15
d)
18
55.
What are the 3 particles that make-up the atom?
a)
protons, neutrons, and isotopes
b)
neutrons, isotopes, and electrons
c)
positives, negatives, and electrons
d)
protons, neutrons, and electrons
56.
The charge of a neutron in an atom.
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
d)
+1
57.

Which phase is this in?

a)

Interphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telephase

58.

Which phase is this in?

a)

Interphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telephase

59.

Which phase is this in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telephase

60.

Which phase is this in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telephase

61.

Which phase is this in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telephase

62.

Which phase is this in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Cytokinesis

63.

Which phase is this in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Cytokinesis

64.

Reorder the following

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telephase

e)

cytokenises

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
65.

What phase is anaphase?

a)

b)

c)

d)

66.

What phase is metaphase?

a)
b)
c)
d)
67.

What phase is Telophase?

a)

b)

c)

d)

68.

What phase is Prophase?

a)
b)
c)
d)
69.

What phase is Interphase?

a)
b)
c)
d)
70.

What phase is cytokinesis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
71.

Which of the following is an example of internal regulation during the cell cycle?

a)

A gap from damaged tissue next to the cell triggers cell division

b)

Tumor cells continue to divide without receiving signals to start cell division

c)

A cell receives a signal from the cell nucleus to divide

d)

Human growth hormone is sent from the pituitary gland to the cell to undergo cell division

72.

A sea otter has 38 chromosomes in their body (somatic) cells. When one somatic cell undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes will a daughter cell have?

a)

19

b)

27

c)

38

d)

76

73.

What important cellular process occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle?

a)

The cell duplicates its DNA

b)

The cell pulls the chromosomes to either end for cell division

c)

The cell lines it choromosomes up in the middle

d)

The S phase is not a part of the cell cycle

74.

A _________________ is a critical point where stop and go signals can regulate the cell cycle.

a)

Apoptosis

b)

Checkpoint

c)


Cancer

d)

Metastasis

75.

What are TWO purposes of mitosis? (SELECT TWO)

a)

genetic variation

b)


repair

c)

gamete formation

d)

growth

76.

OXYGEN released during photosynthesis comes from breaking down WHAT MOLECULE during the light dependent reaction?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

water

c)

glucose

d)

ATP

77.

In Cellular Respiration, cells use energy available in food to create what energy-rich compound?

a)

ATP

b)

ADP

c)

glucose

d)

water

78.

Energy is released from ATP when:

a)

ATP is exposed to sunlight

b)

a phosphate group is broken

c)

adenine bonds to ribose

d)

a phosphate group is added

79.

Which of the following organisms perform cellular respiration?

a)

A

b)

D

c)

B and C

d)

All of these

80.

Carbon used in the Calvin Cycle comes from what molecule from the atmosphere?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Methane

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Water

81.

The process that converts food (glucose) into energy is called

a)

Cellular Respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

82.

Does photosynthesis most commonly occur in heterotrophs or autotrophs?

a)

Heterotrophs

b)

Autotrophs

83.

What is the primary goal of Photosynthesis?

a)

To produce energy in the form of light

b)

to produce oxygen

c)

to produce chloroplasts

d)

to produce glucose for the plant

84.

Which of the following would most affect the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

Amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

b)

amount of water in the soil

c)

amount of sunlight

d)

All of the above

85.

What is the product in the light independent or Calvin Cycle of photosynthesis?

a)

water

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

glucose

86.

In photosynthesis, what are the two products not used up in the reaction?

a)

water and oxygen

b)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen and glucose

d)

glucose and ATP

87.

In cellular respiration, the first step in releasing the energy of glucose in the cell is known as:

a)

electron transport

b)

glycolysis

c)

the Krebs Cycle

d)

the Calvin Cycle

88.

After the bond depicted in the photo is broken, what will be the correct name of the molecule?

a)

ATP

b)

Glucose

c)

ADP

d)

NADPH

89.

The process that releases energy from food in the presence of oxygen is:

a)

fermentation

b)

photosynthesis

c)

cellular respiration

d)

synthesis

90.

The process that produces glucose using sunlight, water and carbon dioxide is:

a)

cellular respiration

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Osmosis

d)

Photosynthesis

91.

Light absorbing molecules that gather the sun's energy are called:

a)

pigments

b)

glucose

c)

thylakoids

d)

chloroplasts

92.

The light dependent portion of photosynthesis takes place in what part of the chloroplast?

a)

mitochondria

b)

cytoplasm

c)

thylakoids

d)

stroma

93.

In what organelle does cellular respiration take place?

a)

mitochondria

b)

chromosomes

c)

lysosomes

d)

nucleus

94.

What are the correct steps, in order, of cellular respiration?

a)

Light Dependent Reaction, Calvin Cycle, Dark Reaction

b)

Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, Electron Transport Chain

c)

Photosynthesis, Glucose, Respiration

d)

Krebs Cycle, Glycolysis, Electron Transport Chain

95.

What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?

a)

6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

b)

6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O

c)

6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy

d)

6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6

96.
Which of the following is the smallest unit of life that can carry out all life functions?
a)
the mitochondria
b)
the vacuoles
c)
the nucleus
d)
the cell
97.
Which structures are found in every living cell?
a)
cell membrane and cytoplasm
b)
chloroplasts and mitochondria
c)
a cell wall and nucleus
d)
chloroplasts and cell wall
98.
Which cell structure is found in plant and animals cells and controls what can come into or leave a cell?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cytoplasm
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuole
99.
What is the function of the cell nucleus found in both plant and animal cells?
a)
to produce energy
b)
to control cell activity
c)
to remove waste products
d)
to allow molecules to enter the cell
100.
Cell organelles that are responsible for digesting food, worn out organelles and other cellular wastes are called ___________________.
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Vacuoles
c)
Lysosomes
d)
Chlororplasts
101.
What is one basic function of the vacuoles?
a)
circulating oxygen
b)
producing food
c)
controlling cell processes
d)
storing water
102.
Chloroplasts in plant cells allow the plant to perform a function that animal cells cannot do.  What is the main function of the chloroplasts found in plant cells?
a)
to absorb light energy and manufacture food
b)
to remove waste materials by active transport
c)
to manufacture chemical energy from food
d)
to control the shape of the cell
103.
All cells need energy to function.  Which cell organelle is responsible for producing energy in the cell?
a)
chloroplasts
b)
mitochondria
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuoles
104.
What is the function of a cell wall?
a)
to protect and support the cell
b)
to perform different functions in each cell
c)
to prevent water from passing through it
d)
to prevent oxygen from entering the cell
105.
In what part of the plant cell does the process of photosynthesis take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplasts
d)
vacuoles
106.

Which term means that cells must maintain a stable internal environment, such as pH level, water concentration, concentrations of ions and molecules like glucose?

a)

respiration

b)

osmosis

c)

diffusion

d)

homeostasis

107.
Cells with a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles are called ____________________.
a)
prokaryotes
b)
eukaryotes
c)
bacteria
d)
protists
108.

Which term means movement of molecules from an area of high concentration of the molecules to an area with a lower concentration?

a)

respiration

b)

osmosis

c)

diffusion

d)

homeostasis

109.
Which of the following is not part of the cell theory?
a)
cells must contain DNA 
b)
all living things are made from cells
c)
cells can only come from other cells
d)
cells are the basic unit of life
110.
He discovered that all plants are made of cells:
a)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b)
Theordor Schwann
c)
Robert Hooke
d)
Mattias Schleiden
111.
Who was the first  person to see cells under the microscope and give them their name?
a)
Mattias Schleiden
b)
Robert Hooke
c)
Theordor Schwann
d)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
112.
Chloroplasts are organelles that convert light energy to sugars.  These organelles are found only in plants.  Which organelles are found only in animals?
a)
Golgi apparatus
b)
lysosomes
c)
mitochondria
d)
ribosomes
113.
The basic unit of structure and function in a living things.
a)
chloroplast
b)
nucleus
c)
cell
d)
cell membrane
114.

Select the letters of all of the characteristics common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

a)

a) nucleus

b)

b) cytoplasm

c)

c) membrane-bound organelles

d)

d) cell membrane

e)

e) genetic material

115.

Which protein in the cell membrane helps to regulate water as it travels in and out of the cell?

a)

a) hemoglobin

b)

b) melanin

c)

c) aquaporin

d)

d) keratin

116.

Which statement explains why the egg cell decreased in size when place in corn syrup?

a)

a) The percent concentrations of sugar in the fluid in the beaker and inside the cell are the same.

b)

b) The percent concentration of sugar in the fluid in the beaker is less compared to the inside of the cell.

c)

c) The percent concentration of sugar in the fluid in the beaker is more compared to the inside of the cell.

117.

The cell membrane controls what enters and leaves a cell, allowing some chemicals to pass through the membrane but not others. Which term describes this behavior?

a)

a) porosity

b)

b) semipermeable

c)

c) translucent

d)

d) active transport

118.

What cells carry electrical signals?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

nerve cells

c)

muscle cells

d)

bone cells

119.

What cells have NO nucleus?

a)

leaf cells

b)

muscle cells

c)

skin cells

d)

red blood cells

120.

The nucleus

a)

contains genetic material

b)

is for photosynthesis

c)

is for respiration

d)

is for movement

121.

Which of these is not a unicellular organism?

a)

amoeba

b)

paramecium

c)

protozoa

d)

red blood cell

122.

Flagella are used for...

a)

Food

b)

Movement

c)

Respiration

d)

Collecting sunlight

123.

How are nerve cells specialized?

a)

They have long connections that transmit messages quickly.

b)

Instead of a nucleus, they have a lot of hemoglobin to help them carry oxygen.

c)

They have a large amount of cytoplasm.

d)

They are long, slippery and elastic so that they can slide past one another upon expansion and contraction

124.

A cell in an insect's flight muscles will contain many

a)

A. Mitochondria

b)

B. Nuclei

c)

C. Vacuoles D. Membrane

d)

D. Membranes

125.

What substance moves in Osmosis?

a)

Glucose

b)

Water

c)

Oxygen

d)

Carbon dioxide

126.

The area between the nucleus and cell membrane containing a jelly like substance and the cell’s other organelles.  

a)
Nucleolus
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Cytoplasm
127.

Protective layer that surrounds the cell.  It regulates what enters and leaves the cell.  

a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Nucleus
c)
Cell membrane
d)
Cell wall
128.

Barrel shaped structures made of microtubules that regulate the process of cell division in animal cells.

a)
Mitochondria
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Endoplasmic reticulum
d)
Centrioles
129.

Rigid, outer layer of a cell that provides support and protection in plant cells.

a)
Cell membrane
b)
Nucleus
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Cell wall
130.

Organelle that uses the radiant energy of the sun to convert carbon dioxide and water into oxygen and glucose through the process of photosynthesis.

a)
Nucleus
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Mitochondria
131.

This structure is the “brain” of the cell. It contains the DNA and controls cell activities. 

a)
Mitochondria
b)
Ribosome
c)
Cell membrane
d)
Nucleus
132.

This organelle uses chemical reactions to convert glucose into ATP, a form of energy.  It is the cell's powerplant. 

a)
Nucleus
b)
Chloroplast
c)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Mitochondria
133.

The double layered membrane surrounds and protects the nucleus. Pores in the membrane allow molecules to move in and out of the nucleus.

a)

Nuclear membrane

b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Cell wall
134.

An important energy source in cells.  It is produced from glucose, either inefficiently by the cytoplasm or more efficiently by the mitochondria. 

a)
Protein
b)
DNA
c)
Lipid
d)
ATP
135.

Unicellular organisms that do not have a nucleus or membrane bound organelles. Its genetic material is contained in the cytoplasm. Bacteria are an example.

a)
Prokaryotic cells
b)
Animal cells
c)
Multicellular organisms
d)
Eukaryotic cells
136.

Organelle that stores water and small amounts of other chemicals and nutrients.  Much larger in plant cells. Helps to support a plant.  

a)
Vacuole
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Nucleus
d)
Mitochondria
137.

Tiny organelles that manufacture proteins.

a)
Endoplasmic reticulum
b)
Golgi apparatus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Ribosomes
138.

Produced in the cytoplasm, this structure aid in the cell’s movement and give the cell its shape. 

a)

cytoskeleton

b)
nucleus
c)
mitochondria
d)
ribosomes
139.

Which of the following statements correctly describes a difference between plant cells and animal cells? Select all that apply.

a)
Plant cells have chloroplasts
b)
Plant cells have cell walls
c)
Animal cells have cell walls
d)
Plant cells have flagella
140.

Which of the following statements correctly describes a difference between bacterial cells and animal cells?

a)

Animal cells have a cell wall

b)

Bacterial cells have flagella

c)

Bacterial cells have a cell wall

d)
Bacterial cells have chloroplasts
141.

Cells are like factories.  What is their product and how do they make it? 

a)
Nucleic acids through cell division
b)
Proteins through protein synthesis
c)
Lipids through cellular respiration
d)
Carbohydrates through photosynthesis
142.

Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Golgi apparatus

143.

How does the endoplasmic reticulum interact with the Golgi apparatus in a cell?

a)

It sends synthesized proteins to the Golgi apparatus for modification and packaging

b)

It receives proteins from the Golgi apparatus for distribution

c)

It has no interaction with the Golgi apparatus

d)

It competes with the Golgi apparatus for resources

144.

What is the role of mRNA in protein synthesis?

a)

it makes the bases that makes up DNA

b)

it converts the code in DNA into a protein

c)

it helps DNA perform replication

d)

it makes the amino acids used in protein synthesis

145.

Where is mRNA made?

a)

in the nucleus

b)

in the ribosome

c)

in the mitochondria

d)

in the vacuole

146.

The long string of bases at the bottom of the diagram is

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

an anticodon

d)

an amino acid

147.

The blue structure in this diagram is

a)

an anticodon

b)

DNA

c)

part of the ribosome

d)

tRNA

148.

Transfer RNA is indicated by which structure in the diagram?

a)
b)
c)
d)
149.

The multicolor string of circles represents

a)

a sugar

b)

a protein

c)

a nitrogen base

d)

phosphate group

150.

The job of tRNA is to

a)

copy the genetic code from DNA

b)

bring amino acids to the ribosome

c)

bring the code from the DNA to the ribosome

d)

synthesize amino acids

151.

Ribosomal RNA is a form of RNA that

a)

makes up a ribosome

b)

carries amino acids to the ribosome

c)

transfers the genetic code to the nucleus

d)

copies the genetic code from DNA

152.

Which nitrogen base is not a part of RNA molecules?

a)

thymine

b)

uracil

c)

adenine

d)

cytosine

e)

guanine

153.

In order for protein synthesis to occur, mRNA must leave the nucleus and travel to

a)

a ribosome in the cytoplasm

b)

a mitochondria in the cytoplasm

c)

a vacuole in the cytoplasm

d)

a chloroplast in the cytoplasm

154.

What must happen to the DNA molecule before mRNA can be created?

a)

DNA must not unzip

b)

the 2 DNA strands must separate

c)

DNA needs to exchange bases with RNA

d)

nothing needs to happed to the DNA molecule

155.

What enzyme in the nucleus helps mRNA form?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

pepsin

d)

nuclease

156.

Match the following terms with their definitions

a)

protein synthesis

1.

the making of proteins

b)

transcription

2.

converting DNA code into RNA code

c)

translation

3.

converting RNA code into a protein

d)

cellular respiration

4.

process that produces energy

157.

Place the steps below in the correct order.

a)

transcription

b)

mRNA travels to the ribosome

c)

translation

d)

new protein is created

1)
2)
3)
4)
158.

Place the label on the correct structure.

a)

protein

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

ribosome

e)

codon

1
2
3
4
5
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
159.

(a)   observed the bark of cork trees under a microscope and called his discovery cells.

Choose from the below words
Matthias Schleiden
Theodor Schwann
Rudolf Virchow
Robert Hooke
160.

What did Robert Hooke observe under a microscope and thought looked like individual rooms?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Protozoa

d)

Cork cells

161.

What are the two main types of cells?

a)

Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic

b)

Animal and Plant

c)

Eukaryotic and Plant

d)

Prokaryotic and Animal

162.

Who collaborated to form the first two parts of cell theory?

a)

Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann

b)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek and Robert Hooke

c)

Theodor Schwann and Rudolf Virchow

d)

Matthias Schleiden and Rudolf Virchow

163.

What did Anton van Leeuwenhoek observe under a microscope?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Protozoa

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Animal tissues

164.

What did Theodor Schwann conclude about animal tissues?

a)

They are composed of eukaryotic cells

b)

They are not composed of cells

c)

They are composed of prokaryotic cells

d)

They are composed of cells

165.

What did Rudolf Virchow contribute to cell theory?

a)

None of the above

b)

All cells result from the division of previously existing living cells

c)

Cells are the basic unit of life

d)

All organisms are composed of cells

166.

What is the function of cells that involves obtaining food to provide energy for growth?

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Response

c)

Metabolism

d)

Nutrition

167.

What is the function of cells that involves protection against enemies?

a)

Reproduction

b)

Defense

c)

Growth

d)

Nutrition

168.

Why do you think it took almost 200 years to fully develop the Cell Theory?

a)

All of the above

b)

Complexity of the subject

c)

Lack of interest

d)

Lack of technology

169.

Which of the following is an example of internal regulation during the cell cycle?

a)

A gap from damaged tissue next to the cell triggers cell division

b)

A cell receives a signal from the cell nucleus to divide

c)

Tumor cells continue to divide without receiving signals to start cell division

d)

Human growth hormone is sent from the pituitary gland to the cell to undergo cell division

170.

A(n) ________________ is the most basic unit of life.

a)

Atom

b)

Cell

c)

Tissue

d)

Organ

171.

A sea otter has 38 chromosomes in their body (somatic) cells. When one somatic cell undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes will a daughter cell have?

a)

19

b)

27

c)

38

d)

76

172.

What imortant cellular process occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle?

a)

The cell duplicated its DNA

b)

The cell lines it choromosomes up in the middle

c)

The cell pulls the chromosomes to either end for cell division

d)

The S phase is not a part of the cell cycle

173.

Which of the following statements about stem cells is true?

a)

They are larger than regular somatic cells that can be used to absorb broken cells

b)

They are undifferentiated cells located in the brain stem

c)

They are undifferentiated cells that can turn into different cell types

d)

They are cells that grow uncontrollably

174.

A _________________ is a critical point where stop and go signals can regulate the cell cycle.

a)

Metastasis

b)

Checkpoint

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Cancer

175.

Substances or radiation that is known to produce or promote cancer are called

a)

carcinogens

b)

kinases

c)

cyclins

d)

malignancies

176.

While in the womb, the webbed fingers of an embryo undergo programmed cell death, also known as ____________________.

a)

apoptosis

b)

cytokinesis

c)

carcinogen

d)

stem cells

177.

What are the TWO purposes of meiosis? (SELECT TWO)

a)

genetic variation

b)

growth

c)

gamete formation

d)

repair

178.

What are TWO purposes of mitosis? (SELECT TWO)

a)

genetic variation

b)

growth

c)

gamete formation

d)

repair

179.

Which type of cell division is shown in the diagram? Pay attention to how the chromosomes are being distributed.

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

meiosis

c)

mitosis

d)

DNA repliation

180.

Compare the number of chromosomes contained in a human body cell to a human gamete. How many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?

a)

the same number of chromosomes in a human body cell and human gamete

b)

the twice as many chromosomes in a human body cell and human gamete

c)

the on fourth as many chromosomes in a human body cell and human gamete

d)

the half as many chromosomes in a human body cell and human gamete

181.

During meiosis, the chromosomal bodies exchange genetic information during Metaphase I. The purpose of this process is to...

a)

Decrease genetic variation

b)

Increase genetic information

c)

Increase adaptations

d)

Decrease apoptosis.

182.

You view a mosquito cell under a microscope and observe that it only has 3 chromosomes. Would that cell be diploid or haploid?

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

183.

Why it is important that gamete cells have only one set of chromosomes?

a)

To increase genetic variation

b)

To make sure new offspring have the correct number of chromosomes

c)

To help increase species survival and adaptability through evolution

d)

All are correct

184.

The graph shows the 5-year survival rate percentages of patients diagnosed with cancer from 1985 through 1997. This data is for all types of invasive cancers and includes males and females of all races.

What is the trend in the data of cancer survival during the span of the time given?

a)

The survival rate of cancer is increasing between 1985 and 1997 indicating an overall increase of people surviving cancer.

b)

The survival rate of cancer is decreasing from 1985 to 1997 indicating an overall decrease of people surviving cancer.

c)

The survival rate has not changed between 1985 and 1997.

185.

How excited are you for spring break?

a)
b)
c)
d)
186.

Structures or behaviors that help an

organism survive in its surroundings

a)

adaptations

b)

inherited traits

c)

learned behaviors

d)

structural behaviors

187.
An example of a behavioral adaptation is
a)
The long neck of a giraffe
b)
Penguins huddling together for warmth
c)
A camel's hump used to store water
d)
A polar bear's white fur used for camouflage
188.
An example of a physical adaptation is...
a)
a turtle hiding inside its shell
b)
The spikes on a porcupine fish
c)
a rabbit burrowing underground
d)
a viper biting when threatened
189.

A monkey has a long tail to help it swing from branch to branch.

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Physical Adaptation

190.

A squid will squirt black ink at predators when frightened.

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Structural Adaptation

191.

A lion has pointed teeth to help it tear meat off of the bone.

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Physical Adaptation

192.

A black bear hibernates during the winter months.

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Physical Adaptation

193.

A penguin is white on its belly and black on its back so it harder to see underwater from above and below.

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Physical Adaptation

194.

An owl is mostly nocturnal meaning it hunts and is active at night.

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Physical Adaptation

195.

Parrots have special feet, with two toes on the front and back to help them cling to branches.

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Physical Adaptation

196.

A cat has a long tail to help it balance.

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Physical Adaptation

197.

An animal's color or pattern that helps it blend into its surroundings

a)

Environment

b)

Mimicry

c)

Camouflage

198.
The praying mantis looks very much like a blade of grass. What is it called when animals look like other animals or plants?
a)
camouflage
b)
mimicry
c)
locomotion
d)
hibernation
199.
Which of the following is a physical adaptation for the underlined animal?
a)
A butterfly has bright colors to warn predators that it is poisonous.
b)
A hognose snake rolls over, slows its breathing, and hangs its tongue out to play dead.
c)
A herd of buffalo encircle their young to protect them from a pack of wolves.
d)
A dung beetle rolls a piece of dung across the desert.
200.

How does waterproof feathers help penguins survive in the Antarctic. (Choose all that apply)

a)

Helps keep them warm and dry

b)

Helps them blend in

c)

Helps them swim in cold waters

d)

Helps them see further in cold weather

201.

Guppies are small fish that live in South American rivers. They can have different- sized spots on their bodies.

The river bottoms are covered in rocks. Guppies with spots that are the same size as the rocks on the bottom are harder for bigger fish to see and catch.

The diagram below shows a population of guppies that live in a river. At time 1, the population had the same number of guppies with small and large spots. At time 2, after many generations, there were many more guppies with small spots and fewer guppies with large spots in the population.


How did the environment change between time 1 and time 2? How did the population change?

a)

You cannot tell how the environment changed. With each generation, more guppies passed on the gene for small spots to their offspring.

b)

The rocks became smaller. With each generation, more guppies with small spots survived long enough to pass on the gene for small spots to their offspring.

c)

The rocks became smaller. Guppies with small spots are more likely to survive, so the guppies with large spots changed to have small spots.

d)

The rocks became smaller. Guppies with small spots are more likely to survive, so both kinds of guppies passed on the gene for small spots to their offspring.

202.

What is the process where animals live or die based on their adaptations to their environment.

a)

Genetic Drift

b)

Natural Selection

c)

The Circle of Life

d)

Mammoth

203.
Process by which individuals that are better suited to their environment survive and reproduce most successfully; also called survival of the fittest.
a)
Extinction
b)
Speciation
c)
Natural Selection
d)
Artificial Selection
204.

A white moth living on a brown tree is an example of a(n).....

a)

adaptive trait

b)

non-adaptive trait

c)

trait

d)

moth in trouble

205.

Which word describes the word "variation"?

a)

Adaptations

b)

Differences

c)

Traits

d)

Genetics

206.
When an organism of a species has an adaptation, it will compete for resources better, survive longer and pass that adaptation on to it's offspring. This process is called
a)
evolution by natural selection
b)
artificial selection
c)
inbreeding
d)
outbreeding
207.

A variation is . . .

a)

when organisms have camouflage like spots or stripes

b)

an organism from a different dimension

c)

when you order different food than your friend

d)

differences between organisms in the same species

208.
Who was the naturalist that traveled the world to study plants and animals?
a)
Albert Einstein
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Charles Barkley
d)
Isaac Newton
209.
Do organisms "decide" to evolve and change?
a)
Yes, they know they need to change to survive 
b)
No, they change because of natural selection
210.

Which animal is the most FIT to live in the desert?

a)

Penguin

b)

Bear

c)

Tiger

d)

Lizard

211.

A green rat snake that lives in the grass and a brown rat snake that lives in the desert is a form of ______________.

a)

Human Genetic Modification

b)

Selective Breeding

c)

Natural Selection

d)

Artificial Breeding

212.

According to natural selection, light colored tree trunks would favor

a)

light colored moths

b)

dark colored moths

c)

red colored moths

d)

red and light colored moths

213.

A fox with thicker fur than average would have a survival advantage over other foxes if:

a)

There is more competition for food in the fox population.

b)

The air temperature significantly decreases in winter.

c)

A drought occurs, limiting the amount of water available.

d)

A new disease appears that infects the foxes.

214.

What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?

a)

To look different from other species.

b)

To protect itself against predators.

c)

To protect itself against prey

d)

To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.

215.

Which word best describes the following definition?


The process by which individuals that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce than other members of the same species.

a)

Trait

b)

Generation

c)

Adaptive Trait

d)

Natural Selection

216.

Tree squirrels can have different fur colors.

Squirrels live in forests where foxes also live. Foxes hunt squirrels for food. Squirrels that have fur that is the same color as the trees are harder for the foxes to see and catch.

The diagram below shows a population of squirrels that live in a forest. At time 1, the population had the same number of black and gray squirrels. At time 2, after many generations, there were many more black squirrels and fewer gray squirrels in the population.

How did the environment change between time 1 and time 2? How did the population change?

a)

You cannot tell how the environment changed. With each generation, more squirrels passed on the gene for black fur to their offspring.

b)

There were more black trees. Squirrels with black fur are more likely to survive, so the squirrels with gray fur changed to have black fur.

c)

There were more black trees. Squirrels with black fur are more likely to survive, so both types of squirrels passed on the gene for black fur to their offspring.

d)

There were more black trees. With each generation, more squirrels with black fur survived long enough to pass on the gene for black fur to their offspring.

217.

Which histogram has more variation?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

The both have the same amount of variation

218.

Variations are caused by . . .

a)

Kaleidoscopes

b)

Variety Shows

c)

Mutations

d)

A change in phenotypic expression

219.

The phrase "Survival of the Fittest" would best describe...

a)

Natural selection

b)

Artificial selection

c)

Selective breeding

d)

None of the above

220.
Each column in the periodic table is called a 
a)
period
b)
group
c)
cluster
d)
unit
221.
The atomic number tells you what?
a)
number of electrons
b)
number of protons
c)
number of neutrons
d)
both electrons and protons in an atom.
222.
Which group of the periodic table is composed of inert (not reactive)  gases?
a)
alkali metals
b)
alkaline earth metals
c)
halogens
d)
noble gases
223.
Elements which are shiny, conduct electricity and heat are called
a)
metal
b)
nonmetal
c)
metalloid
d)
nonexistent
224.
The atoms along the staircase are called 
a)
metals
b)
nonmetals
c)
metalloids
d)
noble gases
225.
How many neutrons are in a Gold atom?
a)
79
b)
196
c)
118
d)
275
226.
How many electrons does a Copper atom have?
a)
63
b)
29
c)
92
d)
34
227.
What's a valence electron?
a)
electrons in the second energy level
b)
electrons in the outermost energy level
c)
the atomic number
d)
electrons in the first level
228.
What does the 1.00794 stand for?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
atomic number
c)
atomic mass
d)
atomic explosion
229.
The positive particles of an atom are 
a)
electrons 
b)
positrons 
c)
neutrons 
d)
protons 
230.
Particles in an atom that are neutral and have no charge are 
a)
negatrons 
b)
electrons 
c)
neutrons 
d)
protons 
231.
The electrons of an atom are found...
a)
in the outer "cloud" surrounding the atom.
b)
in the nucleus of the atom.
c)
in the cloud and in the nucleus.
232.
The subatomic particle with a negative charge is the
a)
electron
b)
proton
c)
neutron
d)
nucleus 
233.
What is the atomic mass equal to?
a)
the number of protons
b)
the number of protons and neutrons
c)
the number of neutrons
d)
the number of protons and electrons
234.
In the modern periodic table elements are arranged by:
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
valence electrons
d)
number of isotopes

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