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Worksheets

8th Grade MEGA STAAR Review

Total questions: 231

Worksheet time: 2hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A magician pulls a tablecloth out from under dishes and glasses on a table without disturbing them.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
2.

A person’s body is thrown outward as a car rounds a curve on a highway.

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

None of them

3.
Rockets are launched into space using jet propulsion where exhaust accelerates out from the rocket and the rocket accelerates in an opposite direction.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
4.
A picture is hanging on a wall and does not move.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
5.
A person not wearing a seatbelt flies through a car window when someone slams on the breaks because the person’s body wants to remain in continuous motion even when the car stops.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
6.
Pushing a child on a swing is easier than pushing an adult on the same swing, because the adult has more inertia.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
7.
An object at rest will remain at rest unless acted on by an unbalanced force. An object in motion continues in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
8.
This law is often called "the law of inertia."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
9.
A soccer ball accelerates more than a bowling ball when thrown with the same force.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
10.
A student leaves a pencil on a desk and the pencil stays in the same spot until another student picks it up.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
11.
Two students are in a baseball game. The first student hits a ball very hard and it has a greater acceleration than the second student who bunts the ball lightly.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
12.
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
13.
The swimmer moves her hand down and to the left and her body goes forward to the right.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
14.
A rocket is sent into space.  When the power dies out, the rocket will just keep floating and moving in space forever (unless an unbalanced force, such as a meteor, runs into it).
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
15.
Rockets are launched into space using jet propulsion where exhaust accelerates out from the rocket and the rocket accelerates in an opposite direction.
a)
The Law of Inertia
b)
The Law of Acceleration
c)

The Law of Action Reaction

16.

Henry sees a basketball and decides to put in motion. What kind of force does Henry use to move the ball?

a)

small

b)

balanced

c)

equal

d)

unbalanced

17.

Which activity would BEST demonstrate Newton's law of Inertia?

a)

A plate sits on a table top.

b)

A lady pushes a grocery cart.

c)

A child jumps on a trampoline.

d)

A boy swings a baseball bat.

18.

What is the name of Newton's 1st Law of Motion?

a)

Law of Force and Acceleration

b)

Law of Action / Reaction

c)

Law of Inertia

19.

When there is an INCREASE in MASS of an object you will have a DECREASE in ______________.

a)

friction

b)

acceleration

c)

force

d)

gravity

20.

Unblanced forces always accelerate.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

What is the unit of measurment for force?

a)

N

b)

Kg

c)

m/s

d)

m/s2

22.

Lines that show areas that have the same elevation

a)

Aging Lines

b)

Check Out Lines

c)

Contour Lines

d)

Waiting Lines

23.

Close contour lines indicate

a)

steep slope

b)

gradual slope

24.

Spread out contour lines indicate

a)

steep slope

b)

gradual slope

25.
What is the elevation at sea level?
a)
0
b)
100m
c)
20m
d)
3000m
26.
Provided is a topographic map of a hill with contour lines drawn showing elevation in meters.
The steepest slope on this hill can be found on the side that is facing which direction?
a)
Southwest
b)
Northeast
c)
Northwest
d)
Southeast
27.
The Great Rift Valley in Africa and the Mid-Atlantic Ridge were both created by this type of plate boundary. 
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
subduction
28.
What is the change in elevation from point X to the top of the hill in the topographic map shown?
a)
303 m
b)
203 m
c)
250 m
d)
253 m
29.

Boundary between two plates where the plates are sliding past each other

a)

Divergent-

b)

Convergent-

c)

Transform-

30.

Forms where plates are moving away from each other

a)

Divergent-

b)

Convergent-

c)

Transform-

31.

Formed where two sections of Earth’s crust are colliding

a)

Divergent-

b)

Convergent-

c)

Transform-

32.

Most geologists think that the movement of Earth’s plates is caused by _______

a)

convection.

b)

continental drift.

c)

subduction.

d)

conduction.

33.

A place where two plates slip past each other, moving in opposite directions, is known as a _______

a)

transform boundary

b)

divergent boundary.

c)

convergent boundary.

d)

rift valley.

34.

A divergent boundary in the ocean creates what feature?

a)

Mid Ocean Ridge

b)

Rift Valley

c)

Deep Ocean Trench

d)

Subduction Zone

35.

Sudden movement of an object is caused by

a)

it's mass

b)

it's weight

c)

balanced forces

d)

unbalanced forces

36.

When two oceanic plates collide they form all of the following except:

a)

Arch Islands

b)

Volcanoes

c)

Trench

d)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

37.

Rift valleys occur when two

a)

continental plates collide

b)

contiental plates move away from each other

c)

oceanic plates collide

d)

oceanic plates move away from each other

38.

What was missing from Alfred Wegener's hypothesis on continental drift?

a)

Earth's mantel has several layers

b)

Convection currents in the Earth's mantel move the crustal plates

c)

Earth's crust is the thinnest layer of Earth

d)

Pangea proved his hypothesis and nothing was missing.

39.

If an Oceanic and Contiental plates collide what will occur?

a)

A mid ocean ridge will form

b)

The oceanic crust will rise above the continental crust

c)

The oceanic crust will subduct beneath the continental crust

40.

Which is more dense and will subduct beneath another plate?

a)

Oceanic Crust

b)

Continental Crust

41.

What forms at a transform boundary?

a)

a ridge

b)

a valley

c)

a subduction zone

d)

a fault line

42.

As magma rises from a subduction zone what may form?

a)

sea floor spreading

b)

volcanos

c)

rift valley

43.

What forms at a convergent boundary of two continental plates?

a)

sea floor spreading

b)

mid-ocean ridge

c)

folded mountains

d)

volcanic islands

44.

Hawaii is formed by a

a)

convergent boundary

b)

divergent boundary

c)

transform boundary

d)

as it moves over a hot spot

45.

Continental Drift theory lead to the modern day theory of plate tectonics.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

As two oceanic plates move away from each other magma will rise and create new crust, this is called sea floor spreading.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Check which are true about contour lines on a topographic map:

a)

They connect equal points of elevation

b)

They never cross each other

c)

They show topography of the land shapes and spacing

48.

The V shape formed by the bend in contour lines shows the source of a river or stream.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Rivers and streams always flow uphill.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which would have more errosion from ocean waves

a)

Beach area at sea level

b)

Inland bays

51.

Alfred Wegener's idea of continental drift is the basis for what modern day theroy?

a)

Tidal Arrangement

b)

Plate Tectonics

c)

Magma Conversion

d)

Universal Gravitation

52.

A crack in the middle of a plate allows magma to come through and create volcanic activity. This is known as a

a)

Earthquake

b)

Convergent Boundary

c)

Hot Spot

53.

Which of the following shows a divergent plate boundary?

a)
b)
c)
54.

Arch Islands are the result of

a)

Two oceanic plates converging

b)

Two oceanic plates diverging

c)

Two continental plates converging

d)

Two continental plates diverging

55.

If given mass and acceleration, how would you find the force of an object?

a)

Multiply

b)

Divide

c)

Add

d)

Subtract

56.

The earth receives more direct sunlight in the northern hemisphere when

a)

the northern hemisphere is closer to the sun

b)

the southern hemisphere is closer to the sun.

c)

the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun

d)

the southern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun.

57.

What causes earth's seasons

a)

the earth's tilt on it's axis and it's orbital position around the sun

b)

the earth's rotational speed

c)

the earth's revolution speed

58.

The equator almost always receives direct sunlight and has less variation in temperatures thoughout the year.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

How long does it take the Earth to rotate on it's axis ?

a)

6 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

24 hours

60.

What is the longest day of the year in the southern hemisphere?

a)

December 21

b)

March 21

c)

June 21

d)

September 21

61.

What is the longest day of the year in the northern hemisphere?

a)

December 21

b)

March 21

c)

June 21

d)

September 21st

62.

If there is a full moon on July 1st, when is the next possible New Moon?

a)

July 8

b)

July 15

c)

July 21

d)

July 28

63.

If th earth is no longer tilted on it's axis then we would have more seasons.

a)

True

b)

False, there would be no seasons

64.

If Earth's rotation were to speed up

a)

the days would be shorter

b)

the years would be shorter

c)

the days would be longer

d)

the years would be longer

65.

The image above shows the alignment of a Neap Tide. Neap tides have the

a)

greatest amount of difference in high and low tide.

b)

the least amount of difference in high and low tide.

66.

A spring tide has the greatest amount of difference in high and low tides. When does this occur

a)

When the the moon is at a 90 degree angle from the sun and earth

b)

When the sun, earth and moon are lined up in a stragiht line, during new or full moon

c)

When there is a 1st or 3rd quarter moon.

67.

Approximately how much times passes from a New Moon to a Full Moon?

a)

1 week

b)

2 weeks

c)

3 weeks

d)

4 weeks

68.

When the souther hemisphere is tilted towards the sun it is experiencing summer, what is the northern hemisphere experiencing?

a)

Fall

b)

Winter

c)

Spring

69.

After a full moon what are the next three phases?

a)

1st quarter, wanning gibbous, waxing crescent

b)

waning gibbous, 3rd quarter, waning crescent.

c)

waning gibbous, 3rd quarter, new moon

70.

During the spring equinox our day and night hours are equal.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

During which season do we receive the most sunlight hours.

a)

Winter

b)

Spring

c)

Summer

d)

Fall

72.

During which position is it summer?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

73.

During which position is the northern hemisphere experiencing spring?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

74.

if I have 50 N of force and 10kg of mass, what would my acceleration be?

a)

2 m/s2

b)

5 m/s2

c)

50 m/s2

75.

What forms at a convergent plate boundary with a subduction zone?

a)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

b)

Trench, Volcano, Mountains

c)

Rift Valley

76.

Which has longer wavelengths?

a)

Radio

b)

Visible

c)

Gamma

d)

X-ray

77.

Stars form in giant clouds of gas and dust. What are these clouds called?

a)

Black Hole

b)

White Dwarf

c)

Super Nova

d)

Nebula

78.

Which component of the universe contains all other components listed below and would have the greatest mass?

a)

Solar system

b)

Nebula

c)

Galaxy

d)

Planetary System

79.

When a mass of hydrogen has enough density, it begins to fuse the hydrogen atoms together. This produces heat and light. What is this classified as?

a)

nebula

b)

star

c)

galaxy

d)

planet

80.

Where did the Sun form?

a)

From a nebula outside of the Milky Way Galaxy

b)

From a large cloud of gas and dust in a nebula called the Milky Way Galaxy

c)

Near the outer edge of the Milky Way Galaxy. After its formation, it interacted with other planets to form comets

d)

The Sun was formed in a nebula in the Milky Way Galaxy.

81.

Which describes the location of star A correctly?

a)

Star A is less bright than the Sun and has a surface temperature above 25,000 K

b)

Star A is brighter than the Sun and has a surface temperature below 25,000 K

c)

Star A is less bright than the Sun and has a surface temperature of above 11,000 K

d)

Star A is brighter than the Sun and has a surface temperature below 11,000 K.

82.

Which type of stars belong to spectral class K and have the lowest luminosity?

a)

Giants

b)

White Dwarfs

c)

Supergiants

d)

Main-Sequence stars

83.

Which of these correctly identifies different objects in the universe according to their size and composition?

a)

A nebula is larger than a galaxy

b)

a solar system contains many stars

c)

a galaxy contains many solar systems

d)

a galaxy is bigger than a universe

84.

Where in the Milky Way is Earth found?

a)

Our Sun is in the middle of the galaxy

b)

about 1 light year from the middle of the galaxy

c)

It varies depending on how it rotates

d)

Near the outer edge of the galaxy

85.

What is the nearest star to planet Earth

a)

Moon

b)

Sun

c)

Sirius

d)

Proxima Centauri

86.

Which describes the Sun and the Milky Way?

a)

The Sun is a medium sized star near the edge of a disc shaped galaxy

b)

The Sun is a massive star near the edge of a disc shaped galaxy

c)

The Sun is a dwarf sized star near the edge of a disc shaped galaxy

d)

The Sun is medium sized star near the middle of a disc shaped galaxy

87.

What can be determined about stars using wavelengths from the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

distance, chemical compostion

b)

distance, chemical composition, temperature, luminosity

c)

distance, temperature, luminosity

d)

chemical composition, temperature

88.

Our Sun is classified as an average star. This places it in the middle of which type of star on the HR diagram?

a)

Main sequence

b)

White dwarf

c)

Red giant

d)

Super giant

89.

Which stars have the greatest luminosity according to this HR diagram?

a)

Hot white dwarf

b)

Hot main sequence star

c)

Cool super giant

d)

Cool giant

90.

Which galaxy is the largest in the local group?

a)

Milky Way

b)

Andromeda

c)

Triangulum

d)

Le Gentil

91.

How far is Proxima Centauri from the Earth ?

a)

4.3 km

b)

43 km

c)

43 trillion km

d)

430 trillion km

92.

How long would it take light from Proxima Centauri to reach Earth?

a)

1 year

b)

4.3 years

c)

43 years

d)

10 trillion

93.

It takes light approximately 8 minutes and 20 seconds for light from the Sun to reach Earth. Which is true about Earth's distance from the Sun

a)

The Sun is much less than 1 light year from Earth

b)

The Sun is 1 light year from Earth

c)

The Sun is 8.33 light years from Earth

d)

The Sun is so hot it burns

94.

Why does our Sun, an average sized star, appear so much brighter than other more massive stars?

a)

The Sun is lit

b)

The Sun is closer to Earth than other stars

c)

The Sun is made of different elements

d)

The Sun is prettier so it shines brighter

95.

2. Subatomic particles that have a negative charge

a)

electrons

b)

atoms

c)

protons

d)

neutrons

96.

3. The number 16 for the atomic element sulfur is the

a)

ionic number

b)

atomic mass

c)

isotope

d)

atomic number

97.

4. An elements in group 18 are non reactive, stable, and inert because

a)

they have 3 valence electrons and a full outer shell

b)

they have no valence electrons and a full outer shell

c)

they have 8 valence electrons and a full outer shell

98.

5. Which of these determines the reactivity of the element on a periodic table?

a)

The number of protons

b)

The number of neutrons

c)

The number of electrons

d)

The number of valence electrons

99.

Which of the following would change the name of the element if one was added or removed from the atom?

a)

neutrons

b)

protons

c)

valence electrons

d)

electrons

100.

The elements Potassium, Vanadium, Manganese and Calcium are examples of

a)

Members of a period

b)

Members of a family

c)

Molecules

d)

Gases

101.

The atom that has an atomic mass of 12 has ____________ protons.

a)

6

b)

8

c)

1

d)

4

102.

Which of these is the most reactive non-metal element?

a)

Atom 1

b)

Atom 2

c)

Atom 3

d)

Atom 4

103.

Elements to the right of the stair step on the periodic table are

a)

Metals

b)

Non Metals

c)

Metalloids

104.

Elements on the stair step on the periodic table are

a)

Metals

b)

Non Metals

c)

Metalloids

105.

Which of the following are properties of non-metals? (Check all that apply)

a)

Brittle

b)

Dull

c)

Shinny

d)

Bad conductor of heat and electricity

e)

Higher Melting Point

106.

Which of the following are properties of metals? (Check all that apply)

a)

Brittle

b)

Dull

c)

Shinny

d)

Good Conductors of Heat and Electricity, and higher melting point

e)

Malleable

107.

Which characteristic is most closely related to the reactivity of an element?

a)

Number of Protons

b)

Number of Neutrons

c)

Number of Valence Electrons

108.

An element that would react the same as Helium (He)

a)

would have the same number of valence electrons on the outter energy level

b)

would be in the same period as helium

c)

would have 8 valence electrons on the outter energy level

109.

In order to determine if two atoms are the same element, what must be the same for each?

a)

Number of Protons

b)

The charge of the atom

c)

Number of electrons

d)

The size of the atom

110.

An atom would loose the least amount of mass if it lost it's

a)

protons

b)

neutrons

c)

electrons

111.

What is the mass number of an atom if it has 20 protons, 22 neutrons, and 20 electrons?

a)

20

b)

22

c)

40

d)

42

112.

Which image shows the correct structure of an atom?

a)
b)
c)
113.

What determines the identity of one element from another?

a)

Number of Electrons

b)

Number of Protons

c)

Number of Neutrons

114.

What do elements in Group 2 on the periodic table have in common?

a)

They have the same atomic number

b)

They have the same mass

c)

They have the same number of energy levels

d)

They have the same number of valence electrons

115.

An atom of a certain element has 54 protons, 54 electrons and a mass number of 128.   How many neutrons does the atom have?

a)

54

b)

74

c)

108

d)

128

116.

What is the mass number of an atom that has 5 protons, 5 electrons, and 11 neutrons?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

16

d)

21

117.

Where would you find elements of the same chemical properities and reactivity on a periodic table?

a)

In the same group/family

b)

In the same period

118.

Which of these atoms are in the same group on the periodic table and have the same number of valence electrons (select all that apply)?

a)

Atom 1

b)

Atom 2

c)

Atom 3

d)

Atom 4

119.

Which of these atoms is the least reactive?

a)

Atom 1

b)

Atom 2

c)

Atom 3

d)

Atom 4

120.

Which of these sections on this periodic table include metals?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

121.

Which of these statments below describes the element Carbon (C) found on the periodic table? (Click all that apply)

a)

Carbon has 6 Protons

b)

The atomic number for Carbon is 6

c)

The atomic mass for carbon is 12

d)

Carbon has an atomic number of 12

e)

Carbon is a Metal

122.

How many Nitrogen atoms are in Al(NO3)3 ?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

13

123.

How many atoms are there of each element in Al2(SO4)3?

a)

6 Aluminium, 3 Sulfer, 12 Oxygen

b)

2 Aluminum, 3 Sulfer, 12 Oxygen

c)

2 Alumninum, 3 Sulfer, 7 Oxygen

124.

How many elements are in NaSO4?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

125.

How many Nitrogen are in (NH4)3PO4?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

126.

Na2SO4 -------> 2Na + SO4

Which of the following are the products?

a)

Na2SO4

b)

2Na + SO4

127.

Na2SO4 -------> 2Na + SO4

How many total atoms of Sodium (Na) are there on the reactant side of the formula?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

128.

In an open system experiement, why would there be less mass in the product than the reactant?

a)

The reactants were combined into only one product

b)

One of the products was a gas that escaped into the air.

c)

All of the products are liquids

129.

What is the best evidence that a chemical reaction has occured?

a)

the shape changes

b)

oxygen is present

c)

a new substance is formed

d)

it is made up of more than one element

130.

CaCl2 + Na2SO4 --------> Ca(SO4) +NaCl

110g + 142g --------> ?? + 116

a)

110

b)

142

c)

136

d)

252

131.

Which observation is evidence of a chemical reaction?

a)

hot water added to the pan

b)

liquid solution changed color

c)

hot water cooled

d)

baking soda dissolved in the water

132.

Is the following formula balanced?

H2O2 --------> 2H + 2O

a)

Yes

b)

No

133.

Which two of these are NOT evidence of a chemical reaction?

a)

Production of a gas (bubbles)

b)

Phase change (solid to liquid)

c)

Crystals dissolving

d)

Precipitate forms

134.

How many atoms are in C10H12

a)

10

b)

12

c)

22

135.

Which of the following are compounds? Click all that apply.

a)

H2O

b)

H2O2

c)

He

d)

Fe2O3

e)

Fe

136.

The total mass of the reactants must equal the total mass of the product.

a)

True

b)

False

137.

Milk turning sour is due to a chemical change.

a)

True

b)

False

138.

Which of the following are elements only? Click all that apply.

a)

H2O

b)

H2O2

c)

He

d)

Fe2O3

e)

Fe

139.

Which of the following are evidence of a chemical reaction?

a)

gas is produced

b)

crystals dissolve

c)

a precipitate forms

d)

temperature change

140.

The mass movement of heated paticles into an area of cooler particles.

a)

Convection

b)

Climate

c)

Environment

141.

The atmospheric conditions that occur from season to season and year to year with in a specific region.

a)

weather

b)

climate

c)

convection

142.

The uneven heating of the earth's surface directly affects the weather.

a)

True

b)

False

143.

High pressure systems create what type of weather?

a)

nice sunny day

b)

hurricanes

c)

thunderstorms

144.

Low pressure systems move counter clockwise.

a)

True

b)

False

145.

Air masses sink, making it difficult for clouds to form

a)

Low Pressure System

b)

High Pressure System

146.

Low pressure systems form which of the following: (check all that apply)

a)

Clear Sunny Weather

b)

Hurricanes

c)

Stormy weather

147.

Why is the ocean warmer at the equator?

a)

The equator is closer to he sun.

b)

The equator receives more direct sunlight

c)

The equator has higher sea levels

148.

Convection in ocean currents occurs when warm waters which are heated by the sun, loose their heat and then sink as they become cooler and more dense.

a)

True

b)

False

149.

Warm ocean currents move towards the equator and cold currents move toward the equator.

a)

True

b)

False

150.

Hurricanes form during certain times of the year when a low pressure system occurs over warm ocean waters.

a)

True

b)

False

151.

Which symbol below indicates that cold air is sinking and pushing warmer air upward?

a)
b)
c)
d)
152.

High pressure systems that push cold air downward often accumulate unstable moist air ahead of it causing severe storms.

a)

True

b)

False

153.

Energy from the sun is transfered by which of the following?

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

154.

Energy from the sun heats up the oceans and then is distributed throughout the Earth by distribution of convection currents.

a)

True

b)

False

155.

Althought deep currents in the ocean are affected by convection, what affect surface level currents?

a)

Low pressure weather systems

b)

Global Winds

c)

Salinity of the water

156.

A boundary that happens when two air masses collide but do not mix.

a)

ecosystem

b)

climate

c)

thunderstorms

d)

front

157.

Which symbol below indicates that cold air meets with warm air and neither move causing a stationary front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
158.

Which symbol below indicates that warm air is trapped by cold air creating an occluded front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
159.

If you see this symbol approaching Houston on a weather map, what type of weather can you expect in the next 24 hours?

a)

decease in temperatures

b)

increase in temperatures

160.

Meterologiest can easily forcast the direction and path of a hurricane.

a)

True

b)

False

161.

The force of a hurricane dimishes as it moves over land because of loss of warm waters to fuel it's energy.

a)

True

b)

False

162.

The winds of a hurricane alwsy move in a counter clockwise direction in the northern hemisphere.

a)

True

b)

False

163.

Areas like Florida receive warmer weather in the winter because

a)

Florida is closer to the equator

b)

Florida is closer to the warm gulf stream ocean currents

c)

Florida receives less direct sunlight.

164.

The best way to reduce dead zones in our oceans is to:

a)

Add bacteria to eat the algea

b)

Add more fishing boats to those areas

c)

Stop fertilizer and waste from enering rivers and streams

165.

Artificial reefs form in the ocean when we sink a shipwreck. How does this occur?

a)

the fuel from the ship becomes food for the marine life

b)

the ship releases oxygen from the surface when it lands

c)

It provides a hard surface for marine life to attach to

166.

Storms that form over the colder ocean waters create more violent storms.

a)

True

b)

False

167.
acid normally involved in the formation of limestone caves :
a)
hydrochloric acid
b)
nitric acid
c)
carbonic acid
d)
sulfuric acid
168.
RUST is chemical weathering by
a)
water dissolving minerals
b)
carbonic acid in groundwater
c)
acid rain
d)
oxidation
169.
Mounds of wind-deposited sand in deserts and on shorelines are
a)
sea arches
b)
sea stacks
c)
dunes
d)
cliffs
170.
What part of trees, grass, or other plant holds soil in place to prevent erosion?
a)
flowers
b)
trunk or stem
c)
roots
d)
leaves
171.

The islands that have formed off the Texas Gulf are

a)

sand dunes

b)

lagoons

c)

barrier islands

d)

sea stacks

172.
Which causes chemical weathering?
a)
acids and oxygen
b)
water, wind and gravity
c)
abrasion
d)
root and ice wedging
173.
Smooth, shiny rocks that have tumbled along the river bottom have been rounded and polished by
a)
water abrasion 
b)
wind abrasion
c)
chemical weathering
d)
ice wedging
174.
Plants usually break open small cracks in rocks with their
a)
seeds
b)
roots
c)
branches
d)
pollen
175.
Lichen secretes an acid that breaks down rock.
a)
Mechanical Weathering
b)
Chemical Weathering
176.

Click on the picture to answer the question. What is true about a food web?

a)

It is just 1 path of energy.

b)

It is all possible energy paths.

177.

According to the image, what is the producer?

a)

plant

b)

insect

c)

mouse

d)

snake

178.

What level on the energy pyramid contains the most energy?

a)

producer level

b)

primary consumer level

c)

secondary consumer level

d)

tertiary consumer level

179.

The word "primary" means "first."

If that's true, what does primary consumer mean?

Hint: look carefully at the food chain!

a)

the first organism in a food chain

b)

the first organism that consumes something else for energy

180.

According to the image, what is the primary consumer in the food chain?

a)

plant

b)

insect

c)

mouse

d)

snake

181.

According to the image, what is the secondary consumer?

a)

plant

b)

insect

c)

mouse

d)

snake

182.

What kind of organisms are usually at the top of the food chain?

a)

producers

b)

herbivores

c)

omnivores

d)

carnivores

183.

Which of the following is abiotic?

a)

a tree

b)

grass and other vegitation

c)

a hawk

d)

precipitation

184.

Some limiting factors that affect populations include lack of food, lack of water, lack of living space, and the spread of disease.

a)

True

b)

False

185.

Tell if the item is an abiotic factor or biotic.....

Water

a)

Abiotic

b)

Biotic

186.

The living world is organized in levels. Biotic and abiotic factors also can be arranged into levels of biological organization. Put the words below in order from the least complex to the most complex

a)

Community, Organism, Biome, Population, Biosphere, Ecosystem

b)

Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biome, Biosphere

c)

Organism, Biome, Population, Community Biosphere, Ecosystem

187.

What do herbivores eat?

a)

Animals

b)

Plants and Animals

c)

Plants

d)

Dead Animals

188.

What do omnivores eat?

a)

Animals

b)

Plants and Animals

c)

Plants

d)

Dead Animals

189.

What is the hawk in the food web?

a)

Producer

b)

Primary consumer

c)

Secondary consumer

d)

Tertiary consumer

190.

How much energy is transferred between trophic levels?

a)

25%

b)

20%

c)

10%

d)

90%

191.

Which of these is an autotroph?

a)

Consumer

b)

Producer

c)

Decomposer

192.

The bar graph below shows the number of species in

four pond ecosystems.

Based on this information, which ecosystem is likely

to be the most stable?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

193.

Which of the following organisms compete for the same food source?

a)

grasshoppers and grains

b)

rabbits and mice

c)

mice and grasshoppers

d)

foxes and owls

194.

Which of the following organisms DO NOT compete for the same food source?

a)

grasshoppers and rabbits

b)

hawks and blue jays

c)

owls and hawks

d)

caterpillars and rabbits

195.

As a predator population increases what will happen to the prey population?

a)

It will decrease

b)

It will increase

c)

It will remain the same

196.

Why is it illegal to release non-native animals in the wild?

a)

a non native can reduce the amount of food available for native animals

b)

they are too tame to survive

c)

there will be no food for it to eat

197.

If a invasive pest invades an area and kills other organisms living in that areas what is likely to be true?

a)

it has no natural enemeis to regulate it

b)

it has become a tertiary consumer

c)

it has become an autotrophic organism

198.

If the snake population were removed what would happen to the other populations. in the food web?

a)

The mice and rabbits would increase

b)

The mice and rabbits would decrease

c)

The hawk poulation would increase

199.

Short term changes immediately affect a population.

a)

True

b)

False

200.

Long term changes quickly affect a population over a short period of time.

a)

True

b)

False, they happen gradually

201.

If a polar bear is at the top of an energy pyramid, and is a carnivor, what will he most likely NOT eat on the energy pyramid?

a)

Producers

b)

Primary Consumers

c)

Secondary Consumers

d)

Both Primary and Secondary Consumers

202.

If a chemical spill affected the process of photosynthesis, then would it lead to a decrease in plant populations?

a)

Yes

b)

No

203.

What can you tell about organisms that survive an immediate short term change?

a)

They have adaptations to allow them to survive new coniditions

b)

They will eventually die from the short term effects.

204.

What do the deer eat most in this graph

a)

Grass and feed

b)

Weeds and shrubs

c)

feed and crops

205.

Pond succession is caused by a long-term natural process.

a)

True

b)

False

206.

In the image above which area has more biodiversity?

a)

Zone 1

b)

Zone 2

c)

Zone 3

207.

Omnivores eat producers and primary consumers. What type of consumer might they compete with?

a)

Carnivores and producers

b)

Herbivores and carnivores

c)

Producers and decomposers

d)

Decomposers and herbivores

208.

If an environment change occurs and reduces a food for a consumer, how might this affect the consumer's population?

a)

The consumer population would decrease because they would not have enough food

b)

The consumer population would increase rapitdly because they would have enough food.

c)

The consumer population would stay the same .

209.

In order for a plant to live in a freshwater and saltwater environment it would nedd to be able to filter excess salt.

a)

True

b)

False

210.

How many organisms only eat plants?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

211.
What does every food chain start with? (Even if it's not drawn or written there!)
a)
producers
b)
sun
c)
consumer
d)
decomposers
212.

The living world is organized in levels. Biotic and abiotic factors also can be arranged into levels of biological organization. Put the words below in order from the least complex to the most complex

a)

Community, Organism, Biome, Population, Biosphere, Ecosystem

b)

Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biome, Biosphere

c)

Organism, Biome, Population, Community Biosphere, Ecosystem

213.

What can you tell about organisms that survive an immediate short term change?

a)

They have adaptations to allow them to survive new coniditions

b)

They will eventually die from the short term effects.

214.

Dark colored animals in a dark grass field survive better because

a)

they are able to hide from their predators

b)

because they are able to been seen easier for predators to find

c)

because lighter colored organisms are able to reproduce more easily

215.

If organisms in a coral reef were destroyed, what would happen to the coral reef?

a)

other organisms would move in to the reef area

b)

the reef would expand do to less living organism taking up space

c)

the reef would be gin to deteriorate adn decrease without biodiversity to maintain stability

d)

the temperature of the surrounding waters would decrease the number of organisms living in the reef

216.

How does camaflage help an organism adapt and survive? (choose the best answer)

a)

helps them find a habitat

b)

helps them resist disease

c)

helps them avoid predators

d)

helps them defend their offspring

217.

Which of these is most likely to cause a change in genetic traits in an population of ground-swelling lizard species?

a)

mutations that are not passed onto the offspring

b)

an unusually dry summer

c)

introduction of an invasive predator that preys on bright colored-lizards

d)

fast moving wildfire that burns the canopy of the trees in the ecosystem

218.
The ___ is the basic unit of sturucture and function of organisms
a)
atom
b)
cell
c)
matter
d)
all other answers are correct
219.
Which statement is a part of the cell theory?
a)
all cells come from preexisting cells
b)
bacteria are prokaryotic cells
c)
eukaryotic cells are complex
d)
humans are multicellular
220.
What kind of cell is this?
a)
Animal 
b)
Plant
221.
What kind of cell is this?
a)
Animal
b)
Plant
222.
Cells are often called "the ____ of life."
a)
bread
b)
road map
c)
building blocks
d)
meaning
223.

What type of organisms does the cell theory apply to

a)

bacteria

b)

multicellular organisms

c)

plants and animals

d)

all of the above

224.
What do scientists call the parts of a cell?
a)
Pieces
b)
Sections
c)
Organelles
d)
None of the above
225.
Which of these is a unicellular organism?
a)
Fish
b)
Worm
c)
Amoeba
d)
Ant
226.
Which part of an onion root cell gives it a brick-like structure?
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Cell wall
c)
Vacuole
d)
Chloroplast
227.
The DNA of a cell is found in the __________.
a)
mitochondria
b)
lysosome
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuole
228.
Which of these organelles do animal cells not have?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Chloroplasts
c)
Cell membrane
d)
Lysosome
229.
This organelle is often referred to as the power house of the cell.
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Lysosome
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
230.
This organelle is where plants do photosynthesis.
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Lysosome
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
231.
Which organelle is on the outside of an animal cell?
a)
Cell wall
b)
Cell membrane
c)
Cellular lining
d)
Cytoplasm