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EFD Policy 200-311

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to section 200.2, what should members of the Edmond Fire Department generally adhere to?

a)

The established chain of command

b)

The budgetary guidelines

c)

The training schedule

d)

The equipment maintenance plan

2.

Who is responsible for managing the Edmond Fire Department?

a)

The Fire Chief

b)

The Deputy Chief of Administration

c)

The Assistant Chief of Fire Prevention

d)

The City Mayor

3.

Which division is responsible for responding to all fire, rescue, and medical aid calls for service?

a)

Fire Suppression Division

b)

Administration Division

c)

Fire Prevention Division

d)

Training Division

4.

Who directs the Administration Division of the Edmond Fire Department?

a)

A Deputy Chief

b)

The Fire Chief

c)

The Assistant Chief of Fire Prevention

d)

The City Mayor

5.

What is the mission of the Fire Prevention Division?

a)

To engage in investigation, education, prevention, and mitigation of fire incidents or accidents

b)

To provide administrative support to the Fire Chief

c)

To respond to all fire, rescue, and medical aid calls for service

d)

To manage the inventory control

6.

Who directs the Fire Training Division?

a)

The Fire Chief

b)

The Assistant Chief of Training

c)

The Assistant Chief of EMS

d)

The Fire Prevention Division

7.

What is the mission of the Fire EMS Division?

a)

To ensure proper documentation of training activities

b)

To provide citizens with quality medical services

c)

To perform inspections of businesses and occupancies

d)

To ensure efficient supervision and control within the department

8.

What does the principle of unity of command ensure?

a)

Proper documentation of medical incidents

b)

Efficient supervision and control within the department

c)

Quality assurance for medical incident care

d)

Comprehensive academy training for new recruits

9.

What is essential for administrative and operational efficiency in the Edmond Fire Department?

a)

Unity of command

b)

Chain of command

c)

Fire Training Division

d)

Fire EMS Division

10.

What should members of the Edmond Fire Department include in their submissions through the chain of command?

a)

Verbal comments from the member's immediate supervisor

b)

Written comments from the member's immediate supervisor

c)

Oral recommendations from the Fire Chief

d)

Suggestions from the Fire Prevention Division

11.

What should a member of the Edmond Fire Department do if they believe an order to be unlawful or in conflict with another order?

a)

Ignore the order and continue with their duties.

b)

Immediately inform the supervisor issuing the order and the member's immediate supervisor or the Fire Chief.

c)

Follow the order without question.

d)

Discuss the order with colleagues.

12.

Which of the following is NOT a step a member should take if they believe an order is unlawful?

a)

Provide details explaining the grounds for believing there is a conflict or error.

b)

Request clarification, guidance, and direction regarding following the order.

c)

Respectfully inform the supervisor that they intend to disobey the order.

d)

Ignore the order and do nothing.

13.

What is the first step a member should take if they have a concern about a workplace situation?

a)

Raise the concern with their immediate supervisor.

b)

Directly contact the Fire Chief.

c)

File a formal complaint with Human Resources.

d)

Discuss the concern with colleagues.

14.

Under what circumstances can a member bypass the established chain of command to address a workplace issue?

a)

If the issue is of a personal nature or involves a sensitive matter.

b)

If the member feels like it.

c)

If the member is too busy to follow the chain of command.

d)

If the issue is minor and does not affect others.

15.

What is prohibited against any member for making or filing a complaint in good faith?

a)

Promotion.

b)

Reprisal or retaliation.

c)

Salary increase.

d)

Additional training.

16.

According to the document, what does "Qualified" mean?

a)

Any member who has completed basic training.

b)

Any member who has satisfactorily met the requirements for the position.

c)

Any member who has served for more than five years.

d)

Any member who has received a commendation.

17.

What is meant by "Out of class assignment"?

a)

A member working in a different department.

b)

A member functioning in a rank above his/her normal position description and job duties.

c)

A member taking additional training courses.

d)

A member on temporary leave.

18.

Who can act as a Captain in unforeseen circumstances according to the document?

a)

Any firefighter.

b)

Any Lieutenant or driver, if qualified.

c)

Any member of the public.

d)

Any administrative staff.

19.

What is the minimum staffing guideline for Engine and Quint companies?

a)

One officer and one firefighter.

b)

One officer, one driver, and two firefighters.

c)

One officer and two firefighters.

d)

One driver and two firefighters.

20.

How many firefighters should a two-person Squad be staffed with at a minimum?

a)

One firefighter.

b)

Two firefighters.

c)

Three firefighters.

d)

Four firefighters.

21.

What is the minimum number of firefighters required to staff a Brush Pumper when responding to wildland fires?

a)

One firefighter

b)

Two firefighters

c)

Three firefighters

d)

Four firefighters

22.

Who has the authority to call back personnel to fill vacancies if staffing falls below minimum guideline levels?

a)

The Fire Chief

b)

The Battalion Chief

c)

The Station Officer

d)

The Acting Station Officer

23.

What should the officer in charge do if an apparatus responds with less than the minimum number of qualified personnel?

a)

Continue with the response

b)

Notify Dispatch that the unit is understaffed

c)

Call back off-duty personnel

d)

Cancel the response

24.

Who is responsible for issuing General Orders according to section 202.3?

a)

The Battalion Chief

b)

The Station Officer

c)

The Fire Chief

d)

The Acting Station Officer

25.

What is the purpose of a General Order according to the document?

a)

To establish a uniform Post-Incident Analysis (PIA)

b)

To communicate orders to all members under command

c)

To identify equipment needs

d)

To justify future funding requests

26.

What should happen to General Orders upon incorporation into the policy manual?

a)

They should be reviewed periodically

b)

They should be communicated to all members

c)

They should be rescinded

d)

They should be used for training

27.

Who may issue Special Orders at their discretion?

a)

Any department officer

b)

Any Chief Officer

c)

Any Fire Investigator

d)

Any Battalion Chief

28.

What is the purpose of the Post-Incident Analysis (PIA)?

a)

To establish a uniform policy manual

b)

To identify strengths and weaknesses within the Department

c)

To communicate orders to all members

d)

To review General Orders periodically

29.

Who has shared responsibility for the overall effectiveness of the PIA process?

a)

Incident Commanders (ICs)

b)

Fire Investigators

c)

Battalion Chiefs

d)

All of the above

30.

What should the IC do after every major incident or special event?

a)

Communicate orders to all members

b)

Develop a PIA to determine strengths, weaknesses, and lessons learned

c)

Review General Orders periodically

d)

Issue Special Orders

31.

How should PIA requests be made?

a)

Directly to the Fire Chief

b)

Through the chain of command

c)

By any department officer

d)

By any Chief Officer

32.

What are the ground rules mentioned in the document?

a)

Stick with critical issues and respect each other

b)

Stick with minor issues and show civility

c)

Respect each other and avoid critical issues

d)

Focus on minor issues and show civility

33.

Within how many days should a Post-Incident Analysis (PIA) be completed after an incident?

a)

15 days

b)

30 days

c)

45 days

d)

60 days

34.

Which of the following is NOT included in the evaluation of a PIA?

a)

Evaluation of the overall operational effectiveness

b)

Evaluation of safety procedures

c)

Evaluation of the success or failure of tactical objectives

d)

Evaluation of financial performance

35.

What is the purpose of a "hot wash" in post-incident analysis?

a)

To clean the equipment used during the incident

b)

To perform a formal briefing of the incident

c)

To conduct an informal briefing of the incident with all involved personnel on-scene

d)

To relocate the meeting area to a safer location

36.

Which of the following is a responsibility of the IC during a hot wash?

a)

Ensure the meeting area is accessible to the public and media

b)

Consider the impact of company downtime

c)

Avoid discussing the incident actions taken

d)

Release equipment and personnel before the meeting

37.

What is the purpose of a company-level PIA?

a)

To promote unity and teamwork

b)

To conduct financial audits

c)

To train new recruits

d)

To manage daily operations

38.

Where can a company-level PIA take place?

a)

At the fire station or any location that provides privacy

b)

Only at the fire station

c)

In a public park

d)

At the city hall

39.

Which of the following incidents would NOT require a formal PIA?

a)

Working structure fires

b)

Multiple-alarm brush fires

c)

Routine training exercises

d)

Major disaster drills

40.

Who is responsible for scheduling and facilitating the presentation of all formal PIAs?

a)

The Battalion Chief/Incident Commander

b)

The Fire Chief

c)

The Deputy Chief of Operations

d)

The Training Officer

41.

What is one of the responsibilities of the Battalion Chief/Incident Commander regarding formal PIAs?

a)

Setting a presentation date and location within three days of the incident

b)

Conducting financial audits

c)

Training new recruits

d)

Managing daily operations

42.

What is the purpose of the policy outlined in section 300.1?

a)

To establish guidelines for financial management

b)

To establish operational guidelines for managing all-hazards emergency incidents

c)

To provide training for new recruits

d)

To outline the department's dress code

43.

According to section 300.1.1, what does "All-hazards" refer to?

a)

Only natural disasters

b)

Only manmade incidents

c)

Any incident that warrants action to protect life, property, and the environment

d)

Only public health emergencies

44.

What system is the Edmond Fire Department required to utilize according to section 300.2?

a)

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standards

b)

Incident Command System (ICS) or other NIMS-compliant incident management system

c)

Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) guidelines

d)

Local emergency response protocols

45.

What is the purpose of the policy outlined in section 301.1?

a)

To ensure a safe and appropriate response to emergencies

b)

To provide financial assistance to department members

c)

To establish guidelines for community outreach programs

d)

To outline the department's training schedule

46.

According to section 301.1.1, what does "Emergency response" include?

a)

Only fire-related incidents

b)

Any call for service involving fire, explosion, human entrapment, illness, or injury

c)

Only natural disasters

d)

Only hazardous materials release

47.

What is a "Code 1 response" as defined in section 301.1.1?

a)

Response to a non-emergency situation

b)

Response to an incident while following all state laws and local ordinances

c)

Response to a high-priority emergency with no restrictions

d)

Response to a medical emergency only

48.

What is considered a non-emergency response to calls for service according to the policy?

a)

Code 1 response

b)

Code 2 response

c)

Code 3 response

d)

Code 4 response

49.

What type of response involves following all applicable laws, local ordinances, and directives with both audio and visual emergency warning devices?

a)

Code 1 response

b)

Code 2 response

c)

Code 3 response

d)

Code 4 response

50.

What is the policy of the Edmond Fire Department regarding emergency calls?

a)

To respond only to major emergencies

b)

To appropriately respond to all calls for service

c)

To respond only during working hours

d)

To respond only to fire-related incidents

51.

What should fire personnel do when dispatched to an emergency?

a)

Proceed immediately and operate emergency lighting and siren as necessary

b)

Wait for further instructions

c)

Only use emergency lights without siren

d)

Respond without any emergency equipment

52.

What should emergency vehicle operators do when more than one apparatus responds to an emergency?

a)

Ignore other emergency vehicles

b)

Exercise due caution and alert to the presence of other emergency vehicles

c)

Speed up to reach the scene first

d)

Turn off emergency lights and siren

53.

How should response vehicles proceed to incidents?

a)

In single file and should not pass other response vehicles

b)

In a random order

c)

By overtaking other vehicles

d)

By taking the shortest route

54.

What should an acting officer do if they believe an emergency response to any call is appropriate?

a)

Ignore the call

b)

Ensure Dispatch is immediately notified

c)

Respond without notifying anyone

d)

Wait for further instructions

55.

What should emergency vehicle operators exercise while operating a vehicle en route to an emergency response?

a)

Speed and urgency

b)

Sound judgment and care

c)

Disregard for traffic laws

d)

Only use of siren

56.

When should emergency vehicle operators come to a complete stop at intersections?

a)

Only when there is a red light

b)

Only when there is a flashing red light

c)

At all blind street intersections and when they cannot account for traffic in approaching lanes

d)

Only when there is a stop sign

57.

Who has the discretion to continue an emergency response?

a)

The emergency vehicle operator or acting officer

b)

The nearest law enforcement officer

c)

The fire department chief

d)

The dispatcher

58.

What should drivers of fire apparatus do before moving the vehicle?

a)

Ensure all persons on the vehicle are seated and secured with seat belts

b)

Check the fuel level

c)

Turn on the siren

d)

Perform a 360 walk-around of the vehicle

59.

Under which circumstance should drivers of fire apparatus bring the vehicle to a complete stop?

a)

When driving on a highway

b)

When directed by a law enforcement officer

c)

When the road is clear

d)

When the siren is on

60.

What is the policy regarding cell phone use for operators of fire apparatus?

a)

They can use cell phones freely

b)

They can use cell phones only for department-related business while responding to Code 1 or Code 3 calls

c)

They cannot use cell phones at all

d)

They can use cell phones only when the vehicle is stationary

61.

What should be done if no personnel are available to perform backer operations for the apparatus operator?

a)

The operator should proceed without backing

b)

The operator should perform a 360 walk-around of the vehicle before backing

c)

The operator should call for additional personnel

d)

The operator should use a cell phone to guide the backing

62.

What should the driver/operator do during periods of limited visibility?

a)

Turn off the headlights

b)

Increase speed

c)

Turn on the headlights

d)

Stop the vehicle

63.

What is the recommended action for all operators and passengers of city vehicles when the vehicle is moving?

a)

Wear seat belts and/or shoulder harnesses

b)

Stand up in the vehicle

c)

Open the windows

d)

Turn off the headlights

64.

What should be done if both audible and visual warning devices malfunction during a Code-3 response?

a)

Continue as Code-3

b)

Switch to Code-1

c)

Stop the vehicle

d)

Increase speed

65.

Which of the following is NOT an allowable exception to traffic regulations when responding Code-3?

a)

May disregard regulations governing directions of movement

b)

May exceed posted speed limit by more than 10 MPH

c)

May disregard regulations governing turning in a specified direction

d)

May park as needed to provide for safe mitigation of an incident

66.

What should be done if a fire department response trailer is significantly delayed due to heavy traffic?

a)

Continue without using warning devices

b)

Use both audible and visual warning devices

c)

Stop and wait for traffic to clear

d)

Increase speed to bypass traffic

67.

What type of personnel should normally respond to incidents Code-1?

a)

Non-suppression personnel

b)

EMS division personnel

c)

Fire suppression personnel

d)

Police officers

68.

What must outweigh the safety hazard involved with a Code-3 response?

a)

The need for Code-3 response

b)

The availability of personnel

c)

The severity of the incident

d)

The location of the incident

69.

Who is required to respond to incidents to provide oversight and quality assurance?

a)

EMS division personnel

b)

Non-suppression personnel

c)

Fire suppression personnel

d)

Police officers

70.

What authority do EMS division personnel have regarding Code-3 responses?

a)

To respond Code 3 as warranted to perform assigned job duties

b)

To respond Code 1 only

c)

To delegate responses to other personnel

d)

To ignore Code-3 responses

71.

What must officers do if a change in response is made?

a)

Notify dispatch and any other units responding, and document the change in the incident report

b)

Ignore the change

c)

Only notify dispatch

d)

Only document the change in the incident report

72.

Which of the following is a Code-1 response?

a)

BLS designated responses

b)

ALS designated responses

c)

All responses not designated as Code-1 Response

d)

None of the above

73.

Which of the following is a Code-3 response?

a)

ALS designated responses

b)

BLS designated responses

c)

Accident Non-Injury

d)

Agency Assist

74.

Which of the following should be documented as an Emergency response in the reporting software?

a)

Code 1 responses

b)

Code 2 responses

c)

Code 3 responses

d)

Code 4 responses

75.

What should be included in the narrative when documenting a response if the apparatus did not respond from the station it is assigned to?

a)

The time of the response

b)

The location from which the apparatus responded

c)

The type of emergency

d)

The weather conditions

76.

Which of the following is an example of a delay that should be documented in the narrative during a response?

a)

The type of emergency

b)

The weather conditions

c)

Long driveways

d)

The number of responders

77.

What should a BLS unit do if a BLS call is upgraded to an ALS response?

a)

Continue with the BLS response

b)

Request an ALS response

c)

Terminate the response

d)

Wait for further instructions

78.

What is the purpose of the policy outlined in section 302?

a)

To increase firefighter safety by establishing accountability systems

b)

To improve communication between firefighters

c)

To reduce the number of emergency incidents

d)

To enhance the training of firefighters

79.

What does a Personnel Accountability Report (PAR) account for?

a)

The equipment used by each member

b)

The location and activity of each member

c)

The number of incidents attended by each member

d)

The training completed by each member

80.

What should a personnel accountability system primarily track?

a)

Resources

b)

Equipment

c)

Personnel

d)

Vehicles

81.

Where should individual crew names be posted according to the policy?

a)

On the department's website

b)

In a conspicuous location in the cab of department vehicles

c)

In the department's main office

d)

On the emergency scene

82.

Who is responsible for tracking all personnel under their direction on emergency incidents?

a)

The IC

b)

Supervisors

c)

Division or group supervisors

d)

Company Officer

83.

What should supervisors implement to account for personnel during all phases and at all locations of an incident?

a)

Visual observation

b)

Periodic reporting

c)

Sufficient tracking methods

d)

Emergency notifications

84.

What should the IC or designee maintain accountability for?

a)

The location of each area

b)

The area assignment

c)

What crews are assigned to each area

d)

All of the above

85.

What should division or group supervisors keep track of?

a)

The location of each area

b)

The assignment of each firefighter

c)

The location and assignment of each firefighter in their crew

d)

The area assignment

86.

What should be included in the reports for ongoing, routine strategic and tactical accountability at all emergency incidents?

a)

Conditions, actions, and needs

b)

Only conditions

c)

Only actions

d)

Only needs

87.

What is a Personnel Accountability Report (PAR) driven by?

a)

The Company Officer

b)

The IC

c)

The Division Supervisor

d)

The Group Supervisor

88.

When should a PAR be conducted?

a)

After every 10 minutes

b)

After any change in conditions that may alter or affect firefighter safety

c)

After ordering an emergency evacuation of an area

d)

All of the above

89.

When may the IC discontinue regular PARs?

a)

When incident stabilization is achieved

b)

When hazards are sufficiently reduced

c)

Both A and B

d)

When the IC decides

90.

What is the purpose of the policy described in the document?

a)

To increase firefighter safety by implementing procedures for safeguarding and rescuing firefighters in IDLH environments.

b)

To provide training for firefighters on how to use new equipment.

c)

To establish new fire stations in urban areas.

d)

To reduce the number of fire incidents in residential areas.

91.

What does IDLH stand for?

a)

Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health

b)

Inherently Dangerous Life Hazard

c)

Immediate Danger to Life and Health

d)

Imminent Danger to Life and Health

92.

What is the role of an Initial Rapid Intervention Crew (IRIC)?

a)

To monitor and provide emergency rescue for responders until a larger RIC is created.

b)

To conduct fire investigations.

c)

To train new firefighters.

d)

To manage fire station logistics.

93.

What is the On-Deck crew responsible for?

a)

Assisting with managing hazard zone units work/rest cycles and their air supplies.

b)

Conducting fire safety inspections in residential areas.

c)

Training new recruits in fire safety protocols.

d)

Managing the fire station's daily operations.

94.

According to the policy, what must be ensured before initiating any fire attack in an IDLH environment with no confirmed rescue in progress?

a)

Sufficient resources on-scene to establish two-in/two-out procedures.

b)

All firefighters must have completed advanced rescue training.

c)

The fire must be completely extinguished.

d)

The area must be evacuated.

95.

During the initial phase of an incident, what should take priority?

a)

Extinguishing the fire

b)

Confirmed rescues

c)

Setting up a perimeter

d)

Calling for backup

96.

Who should report any deviation to the policy regarding the assignment of outside firefighters to additional roles?

a)

The Fire Chief

b)

The Battalion Chief/Acting Battalion Chief

c)

The Deputy Chief of Operations

d)

The Edmond Fire Department

97.

What should be done if there is sufficient reason to believe that a viable rescue is required during the initial phase of an incident?

a)

Wait for the designated IRIC to assemble

b)

Initiate emergency rescue activities

c)

Call for additional resources

d)

Evacuate the area