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7th Grade Science Review

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 4hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who is your science teacher?

a)

Mr. Kimble

b)

Ms. Roberts

c)

Mr. Prichard

d)

Mrs. Diaz

2.

Mathematician, Astronomer, & Physicist who discovered gravity, laws of motion, calculus, reflecting telescope.

a)

Isaac Newton

b)

Marie Curie

c)

Stephen Hawkings

d)

AlexanderFleming

3.

A student inflates a balloon attached to a plastic straw. A string is threaded through the straw and tied to opposite ends of the room. When the air in the balloon is released, the balloon travels the length of the string. Which of Newton's laws explain this?

a)

The law of action-reaction

b)

Newton's law of magnetism

c)

The law of force and acceleration

d)

The law of gravity

4.
What is the standard unit force is measured in?
a)
Newtons
b)
pounds
c)
grams
d)
meters
5.

If a 40 kg student is pushed in a rolling chair with a force of 30 N, what is the student's acceleration?

(a)  

6.

A car driving down the road runs out of gas. Which of Newton's laws explains why the car continues to move without gasoline? Be able to explain why. This will be a constructed response question.

(a)  

7.
According to Newton's second law, if you increase the force applied to an object :
a)
it accelerates more
b)
it doesn't move
c)
you get more inertia
d)
it decelerates
8.

Which of the following would be a good example of Newton's third law of motion?

a)

An air freshener hanging from the rear-view mirror of a car hangs still while the car moves forward with a constant acceleration

b)

A carbon dioxide-fueled rocket launches upward into the air as carbon dioxide gas accelerates toward the ground below the rocket

c)

Two balls of different masses are rolled with the same force, resulting in the ball with larger mass stopping faster than the ball with the smaller mass.

d)

All of the above

9.
What Newtons law does this picture represent
a)
Newtons 2nd law 
b)
Law of gravity 
c)
Newtons 1st law
d)
Newtons 5th law
10.

Zoom into the image to read the question and answer

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

11.

Match the following Law of motion with the correct example

a)

Newton's 1st law of motion

1.

Roll a ball across smooth/rough surfaces. The ball rolls faster on smooth because less fiction

b)

Newton's 2nd law of motion

2.

Hit a ball with 2 different forces, the ball will have greater acceleration due to larger force

c)

Newton's 3rd of motion

3.

Bouncing the ball on the court is the action, the floor pushing the ball back up is the reaction

12.
Question Image

Looking at the data table in the picture, match the following vehicle with it's correct force

a)

Motorcycle

1.

16,150 N

b)

Car

2.

25,620 N

c)

Truck

3.

23, 520 N

d)

SUV

4.

23,750 N

13.
What is the formula for force?
a)
F=M/A
b)
F=A/M
c)
F=M*A
d)
F=M*F
14.

The risk of injury in a car accident is much greater if occupants do not wear a seat belt. Which of Newton's laws explain why this is true?

a)

Law of force and acceleration

b)

Law of gravity

c)

Law of action and reaction

d)

Law of inertia

15.
What is Newton's First Law known as? The Law of
a)
Friction
b)
Mass
c)
Inertia
d)
Gravity
16.
What is Newton's Third Law?
a)
Object in motion stays in motion and an object at rest stays at rest unless acted on by a outside force
b)
Force = mass x acceleration
c)
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
17.
What law of motion does this picture represent?
a)
Newtons 1st law
b)
Newtons 4th law 
c)
Newtons 3rd law 
d)
Newtons 2nd law
18.
What is Newtons 2nd law of motion?
a)
Pancakes 
b)
Force= Mass multiplied by acceleration
c)
For every action there is a equal and opposite  re-action.
d)
Law of gravity 
19.

Read the example given in the picture. Drag and drop correct answer to each box. Not all answers will be used.

These ​ (a)   are an example of the law ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
forces
action-reaction
unbalanced forces
gravity
force and acceleration
20.

This law of motion states that heavier objects need a larger force to make them move.

a)

Newton's First Law of Motion

b)

Newton's Second Law of Motion

c)

Newton's Third Law of Motion

d)

All of the Above

21.

Which best explains the law of force and acceleration (Newton's 2nd Law of Motion)

a)

Restraints keep passengers from falling out of a roller coaster

b)

Riders must be certain heights so they have enough mass to ride

c)

A larger force will be required to accelerate a roller coaster with more people

d)

A roller coaster that goes up must also come down due to the force of gravity

22.

Magnetism is a force of ____________________________ that occurs between two _____________ objects.

a)

attraction or repulsion, magnetic

b)

external or internal, magnetic

c)

external or repulsion, electronic

d)

attraction or internal, electronic

23.

A magnetic field is a field of force that is produced by moving ________ charges.

a)

northern

b)

positive

c)

gravitational

d)

electric

24.

The magnetic ____________ around a bar magnet is shown above.

a)

legs

b)

flowers

c)

field

d)

direction

25.

The Earth produces its own ________ field.

a)

spectrum

b)

electric

c)

magnetic

d)

progressive

26.

A compass points toward the south pole of Earth's magnetic field, located near the Earth's geographical ________.

a)

north

b)

south

c)

east

d)

west

27.

In magnetic materials, all of the ________ are pointing in the same direction.

a)

doors

b)

electrons

c)

atoms

d)

orbits

28.

A permanent magnet is a material that produces a ___________________ field without any ___________________ magnetic field being present.

a)

electronic, internal

b)

magnetic, internal

c)

magnetic, external

d)

electronic, external

29.

Permanent magnets can be demagnetized by ___________________ them past the Curie point (approximately 1,060 °F).  

a)

heating

b)

freezing

c)

shaking

d)

solidifying

30.

Every magnet has both a _________ pole and a __________ pole.

a)

North, South

b)

East, West

c)

Positive, Negative

d)

Positive, South

31.

Certain materials respond to magnetic fields by becoming ______________ themselves. ____________ is one of these materials.

a)

magnetic, Plastic

b)

electronic, Iron

c)

magnetic, Iron

d)

electronic, Plastic

32.

Some objects that normally aren't magnetic can become magnetized when connected to an electric circuit. Items that are magnetized in this way are called ________.

a)

electromagnets

b)

electrons

c)

electrochromic devices

d)

permanent magnets

33.

Probably the most useful thing about electromagnets is that they can be turned ________ and ________.

a)

on, off

b)

positive, negative

c)

north, south

d)

on, negative

34.

If two magnets are close together, the magnetic force will be ________.

a)

smelly

b)

weak

c)

strong

d)

positive

35.

If two magnets are placed so that a north pole and a south pole are facing each other, they will _____________ each other.

a)

date

b)

spin

c)

repel

d)

attract

36.

If two magnets are placed so that two ____________ poles or two ____________ poles are facing each other, they will repel each other.

a)

North, South

b)

external, internal

c)

positive, negative

d)

North, West

37.

Although magnetic fields are _____________, one common way that people investigate them is to use ________ filings.

a)

invisible, iron

b)

touchable, iron

c)

invisible, plastic

d)

touchable, plastic

38.

By sprinkling iron filings in a magnetic field on a flat surface, it is possible to see the __________ of a magnetic field.

a)

shape

b)

distance

c)

mass

d)

temperature

39.

The image above shows how iron filings respond to magnetic fields generated by two magnets with ____________ poles facing each other.

a)

opposite

b)

like

c)

positive

d)

negative

40.

The image above shows how iron filings respond to magnetic fields generated by two magnets with ____________ poles facing each other.

a)

like

b)

opposite

c)

positive

d)

negative

41.

A horseshoe magnet will generate a magnetic field similar in shape to that of two ________ poles brought near each other.

a)

like

b)

opposite

c)

positive

d)

negative

42.

The force that causes objects with mass to attract to one another:

a)

Weight

b)

Gravity

c)

Mass

d)

Magnetism

43.

The gravitational attraction between two objects would increase if both masses are –

a)

increased, and the distance between them is increased.

b)

increased, and the distance between them is decreased.

c)

decreased, and the distance between them is decreased.

d)

decreased, and the distance between them is increased.

44.

Why do planets orbit the Sun?

a)

The Sun is the only celestial object that has a gravitational pull.

b)

The Sun’s chemical composition makes it attract planets.

c)

Only celestial bodies that emit light, like the Sun, can be at the center of an orbit.

d)

The Sun is the most massive object in our solar system, so it exerts the greatest gravitational pull.

45.

Gravity can be defined as the –

a)

force of attraction between two or more masses.

b)

friction created when two objects are in contact.

c)

energy given off by stars due to nuclear reactions.

d)

path an object follows as it moves through space.

46.

As distance between two objects increases, the pull of gravity 

a)

increases.

b)

decreases.

c)

stays the same.

d)

has no effect.

47.

Which of the following will NOT change in different gravities?

a)
wieght
b)
force
c)
mass
d)
pounds
48.
What force causes objects falling near Earth's surface to slow down?
a)
Gravity
b)
Air Resistance
c)
Centripetal Force
d)
Newtons
49.

The STREAK OF LIGHT produced by a falling chunk of rock from space is a(n) ____________ .

a)

meteorite

b)

real star

c)

meteor

d)

asteroid

50.

Why are we pulled to Earth's center and NOT the sun's?

a)

The sun is very LARGE

b)

The sun is very FAR AWAY

c)

Earth has a STRONGER GRAVITY than the sun

d)

Earth ORBITS around the sun

51.

What would happen to Earth without the sun's gravity?

a)

Earth would DRIFT INTO SPACE

b)

Earth would ORBIT the sun

c)

Earth would be SMALLER

d)

Earth would get CLOSER TO OTHER PLANETS

52.

Two factors effecting the magnitude of the force of gravity between 2 objects are...

a)

weight and mass.

b)

distance and weight.

c)

mass and matter.

d)

mass and distance.

53.
Where would you have more mass, on Earth or on the Moon?
a)
Earth
b)
Moon
c)

It is the same, mass doesn´t change

d)

In both planets.

54.
1. What property of a wave is represented by letter A?
a)

A. Wavelength

b)

B. Amplitude

c)

C. Speed

d)

D. Frequency

55.
2. What property of a wave is represented by letter B?
a)

A. Wavelength

b)

B. Amplitude

c)

C. Speed

d)

D. Frequency

56.
3. What property of a wave is represented by letter C?
a)

A. Wavelength

b)

B. Amplitude

c)

C. Speed

d)

D. Frequency

57.
4. What part of a wave is represented by letter D?
a)

A. Crest

b)

B. Compression

c)

C. Rarefaction

d)

D. Trough

58.
5. What part of a wave is represented by letter E?
a)

A. Crest

b)

B. Compression

c)

C. Rarefaction

d)

D. Trough

59.
6. Which of the following can act as media for a wave?
a)
A. Solids only
b)
B. Liquids only
c)
C. Gases only
d)
D. Solids, liquids, and gases
60.
7. Which of the following occurs as the frequency of a wave decreases?
a)
A. The wavelength increases
b)
B. The wavelength decreases
c)
C. The wavelength increases and then decreases
d)
D. The wavelength remains the same
61.
8. The lowest part of a transverse wave is known as a ____________________.
a)
Trough
b)
Crest
c)
Compression
d)
Rarefaction
e)
Medium
62.
9. The frequency of a wave is measured in ____________________.
a)
Hertz
b)
Crest
c)
Trough
d)
Compression
e)
Rarefaction
63.
11. The ____________________ is the distance between two corresponding parts of a wave.
a)
Wavelength
b)
Crest
c)
Trough
d)
Compression
e)
Rarefaction
64.
16. The highest part of a transverse wave is known as a ____________________.
a)
Crest
b)
Trough
c)
Compression
d)
Rarefaction
e)
Medium
65.
17. The ____________________ of a wave is the number of complete waves that pass a given point in a certain amount of time.
a)
Frequency
b)
Crest
c)
Trough
d)
Compression
e)
Rarefaction
66.

If a wave has an amplitude of 2 and the next wave has an amplitude of 4. The second wave is ​ (a)   times larger . Which means the energy has increased by ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
2
4
6
8
67.

A wave starts out with an amplitude of 3 and increases to an amplitude of 9. The wave second wave is ​​ (a)   times larger than the first wave and has ​ (b)   times more energy

Choose from the below words
3
9
6
18
68.

A wave has 25 crests in 120 seconds and they are 5 meters apart. What is the frequency?

a)

0.208

b)

0.333

c)

4.8

d)

0.041

69.

A wave has crests that are 8 meters apart; 10 crests move past a point in 30 seconds. What is the frequency?

a)

0.8

b)

0.33

c)

3

d)

1.25

70.

Which of the following terms describes a Vector and it's proper units?

a)

position in seconds

b)

distance in meters

c)

speed in hours

d)

velocity in m/s

71.

A car goes from rest to 30 m/s. If it takes the car 40 seconds to reach that speed then what is the car's rate of acceleration?

a)

1.33 m/s2

b)

0.75 m/s2

c)

10 m/s2

d)

0 m/s2

72.

A car is traveling south for 250 meters over the course of 100 seconds. What was the car's average velocity?

a)

0.4 m/s south

b)

0.4 m/s

c)

2.5 m/s

d)

2.5 m/s south

73.

What is the average velocity of the object between 0 and 10 seconds?

a)

6.0 m/s

b)

1.5 m/s

c)

-4 m/s

d)

0 m/s

74.

What is the average velocity of the object between 10 and 15 seconds?

a)

6 m/s

b)

1.5 m/s

c)

-4 m/s

d)

0 m/s

75.

What is the average velocity of the object between 15 and 40 seconds?

a)

6.0 m/s

b)

1.5 m/s

c)

-4 m/s

d)

0 m/s

76.

What is the rate of acceleration of the object between 0 and 4 seconds?

a)

1 m/s

b)

0 m/s2

c)

-1 m/s2

d)

1 m/s2

77.

What is the velocity of the object between 4 and 5 seconds?

a)

0 m/s

b)

5 m/s

c)

1 m/s

d)

2 m/s

78.

Which graph(s) represents a constant velocity?

a)

a and c

b)

b and c

c)

c

d)

a and b

79.

Horse A is running East at a speed of 6 m/s. Horse B is running at a speed of 8 m/s East as it passes Horse A. What is Horse B's velocity relative to Horse A?

a)

14 m/s

b)

-2 m/s

c)

2 m/s

d)

48 m/s

80.

What role does heat play in the formation of convection currents?

a)

When water loses heat, it becomes denser and sinks.

b)

When water gains heat, it becomes denser and sinks.

c)

When water loses heat to cooler water, the cooler water becomes denser and sinks

81.

Which action can cause an increase in density that results in a deep ocean current?

a)

The sun heats the water’s surface.

b)

An iceberg melts, adding fresh water to ocean water.

c)

Warm water loses energy to its surroundings and cools.

82.

Suppose a massive amount of salt was suddenly dumped into one region of the ocean. The movement of water would be affected by the sudden increase in salt. Identify the changes in salinity and density.

(a)  

83.

Suppose a massive amount of salt was suddenly dumped into one region of the ocean. The movement of water would be affected by the sudden increase in salt. What type of ocean current would result.

a)

surface current

b)

deep current

c)

convection current

84.

Most of the energy that powers ocean waves and ocean currents ultimately comes from the sun. Describe how ocean waves and ocean currents transfer solar energy around the globe.

(a)  

85.

Match the following

a)

The movements of water far below the ocean's surface

1.

Deep Currents

b)

The movement of water near the surface

2.

Surface Currents

c)

The curvature of ocean currents due to the rotation of the Earth on it's axis

3.

Coriolis Effect

d)

The movement of water due to the difference in density

4.

Convection

86.

Water in the Northern Hemisphere circulates in a (a)   direction.

87.

Water in the Southern Hemisphere circulates in a (a)   direction.

88.

Which of these factors deflects surface currents?

a)

wind

b)

continents

c)

Coriolis Effect

d)

gyres

89.

Which of these transfers energy to surface currents?

a)

wind

b)

continents

c)

Coriolis Effect

d)

gyres

90.

Which one of these causes surface currents to flow in huge circular patterns?

a)

wind

b)

continents

c)

Coriolis effect

d)

gyres

91.

Which of these is NOT a factor that affects deep currents?

a)

temperature

b)

salinity

c)

gravity

d)

continents

e)

earthquakes

92.

What is the definition of upwelling in relation to ocean currents?

a)

Movement of water towards the equator

b)

Vertical movement of cold, nutrient-rich water towards the surface

c)

Horizontal movement of warm water away from the equator

d)

Formation of large whirlpools in the ocean

93.

How do ocean currents primarily affect climate?

a)

By redistributing heat around the planet

b)

By increasing precipitation

c)

By causing earthquakes

d)

By decreasing evaporation rates

94.

Which ocean current is responsible for bringing warm water from the Gulf of Mexico to northwestern Europe?

a)

Gulf Stream

b)

Labrador Current

c)

California Current

d)

Canary Current

95.

As fresh water from the polar ice caps melt and flows into the North Atlantic Ocean, the salinity of the water in the Northern Atlantic will __________.

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

remain the same

d)

speed up

e)

slow down

96.

Which example is a form of precipitation?

a)

Dew

b)

Fog

c)

Frost

d)

Hail

97.

In which area would the rate of evaporation be the lowest?

a)

Over the ocean

b)

Over the mountains

c)

Over the rainforest

d)

Over the desert

98.

As a part of the water cycle, water from Earth's surface enters the clouds and finally falls back to the ground in the form of rain. What is the correct sequence of processes water undergoes?

a)

Evaporation, Condensation, Precipitation

b)

Precipitation, Condensation, Evaporation

c)

Condensation, Evaporation, Precipitation

d)

Evaporation, Precipitation, Condensation

99.

What would happen if the Sun is removed from the water cycle?

a)

The water cycle would not include precipitation but would continue with groundwater flow.

b)

The water cycle would no longer occur because the Sun provides the energy for evaporation and transpiration.

c)

The water cycle would no longer occur because the Sun provides energy for the formation of clouds.

d)

The water cycle would not include evaporation and transpiration but would continue with condensation.

100.

A student draws a model to represent the processes involved in the water cycle, as shown. To which process is the formation of clouds related?

a)

Condensation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Freezing

d)

Melting

101.

The image shows various stages in the water cycle. During which stage does water flow back towards the sea as runoff?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

102.

On Earth, what process generates most of the water vapor?

a)

Condensation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Precipitation

d)

Transpiration

103.

Rain and snow are two different forms of precipitation that fall on Earth's surface. Which factor is responsible for there being different forms of precipitation?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Run-off

c)

Temperature

d)

Transpiration

104.

What is precipitation?

a)

Sweat from our bodies on hot days

b)

Warm rain but not cold snow or sleet

c)

Gas that we use in furnaces or ovens

d)

Any form of water that falls from the sky

105.

What is another name or synonym for the water cycle?

a)

Geologic cycle

b)

Hydrologic cycle

c)

Geosphere

d)

Carbon cycle

106.

What is the energy source that drives the water cycle?

a)

The moon T

b)

The heat from our home in the winter all around the world

c)

The sun

d)

he heat generated solely from the core of the earth

107.

What are formed when water vapor condenses?

a)

Clouds

b)

Mountains

c)

Transpiration

d)

Valleys

108.

The movement caused within a fluid by the tendency of hotter and therefore less dense material to rise, and colder, denser material to sink under the influence of gravity, which consequently results in transfer of heat. ____________________

a)

Evaporation

b)

Convection

c)

Precipitation

d)

Transpiration

109.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
110.

Water in its gas form is called ____________________,

a)

water vapor

b)

precipitation

c)

ice

d)

air

111.
The atmosphere, the ground, and also bodies of water are all heated by the Sun's energy. How does this energy reach Earth?
a)
radiation
b)
conduction
c)
convection
d)
gravity
112.
Warm, less dense air (including vapor) rises in the atmosphere. Cool, more dense air (including vapor) sinks. This transfer is . . . .
a)
convection
b)
conduction
c)
radiation
d)
gravity
113.

Which of the following contains the largest percentage of the Earth's water?

a)

A. Atmosphere

b)

B. Oceans

c)

C. Ice/Snow

d)

D. Vegetation

114.

What sequence of processes transports water from the ocean into a cloud?

a)

a) Evaporation and condensation.

b)

b) Condensation and freezing.

c)

c) Precipitation and condensation.

d)

d) Evaporation and precipitation.

115.

Select the words that accurately complete the following statement. Water in the clouds in this scene eventually moves from the atmosphere to the land by (infiltration) / (precipitation) / (evaporation). Next, (transpiration) / (melting) / (runoff) carries that water to the sea. (Wind) / (Gravity) drives both examples of water movement.

a)

a) Precipitation, runoff, gravity

b)

b) Infiltration, melting, wind

c)

c) Evaporation, transpiration, wind

d)

d) Precipitation, melting, gravity

116.

What is the leading edge of an air mass called?

a)

thunderstorm

b)

high pressure system

c)

front

d)

low pressure system

117.

Does this diagram show a warm front or a cold front?

a)

Cold front

b)

Warm front

118.

You are climbing a mountain. as you climb the air pressure is...

a)

not changing

b)

increasing

c)

decreasing

119.

In a high pressure system the weather will likely be...

a)

cold, clear, and stormy

b)

cold, cloudy, and rainy

c)

warm, cloudy, and stormy

d)

warmer, clear, and sunny

120.

Winds are caused by differences in...

a)

air pressure

b)

humidity

c)

temperature

d)

precipitation

121.

Does cold air rise or sink?

a)

rise

b)

sink

122.

What is the weather instrument that measures air pressure?

a)

wind vane

b)

anemometer

c)

thermometer

d)

barometer

123.

Check all that apply. In a low pressure system ______________.

a)

air rises and cools

b)

clockwise winds spread outward

c)

counterclockwise winds move inward

d)

air sinks and gets warmer

124.

What is a large body of air with about the same temperature, density, humidity, and pressure throughout it called?

a)

cloud

b)

front

c)

air mass

125.

In a low pressure system the weather will likely be...

a)

cold, clear, and stormy

b)

cold, cloudy, and rainy

c)

warm, cloudy, and stormy

d)

warmer, clear, and sunny

126.

Some hurricanes originate in the tropical regions of the Atlantic Ocean or Caribbean Sea, and they often travel along the coast of Florida. The figure shows a hurricane cloud that formed over the Atlantic Ocean. Which two processes would be responsible for cloud formation in a hurricane?

a)

freezing and condensation

b)

evaporation and precipitation

c)

evaporation and condensation

d)

condensation and precipitation

127.

A high-pressure system is approaching Florida, as shown in the map. How does air flow in a high-pressure system? Remember, the Earth rotates counterclockwise.

a)

from north to south

b)

from south to north

c)

in the same direction as Earth’s rotation

d)

in the opposite direction of Earth’s rotation

128.

A jet stream is a narrow belt of fast-moving wind several kilometers above Earth. Jet streams flow along the boundaries between warm and cool air. Which map shows the jet stream pulling the most warm air into Canada?

a)
b)
c)
d)
129.

Which symbol represents a stationary front?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

130.

Air masses that originate over land are called __________________________.

a)

polar

b)

continental

c)

maritime

d)

tropical

131.

What conditions are most likely to produce a hurricane?

a)

A. Low pressure system over warm land

b)

B. Low pressure system over warm ocean water

c)

C. High pressure system over cold land

d)

D. High pressure system over cold ocean water

132.

Where does a hurricane get its energy?

a)

A. Warm ocean waters

b)

B. High air pressure

c)

C. Winds along the ocean’s surface

d)

D. Sun

e)

E. Heat from the land

133.

What happens to hurricanes when they move over land? Check all that apply.

a)

Wind speeds increase

b)

Wind speeds decrease

c)

Precipitation increases

d)

Precipitation decreases

e)

Storm intensity increases

134.

What does Doppler RADAR measure? Check all that apply.

a)

A. Measures temperature

b)

B. Measures wind velocity

c)

C. Measures wind direction

d)

D. Measures air pressure

e)

E. Measures precipitation

135.

Which image represents a low pressure system?

a)

Image A

b)

Image B

136.

Any sample of matter has mass and takes up space. The main reason for this is because:

a)

a) All matter is heavy

b)

b) Matter can be a gas

c)

c) Matter is made up of tiny particles that have mass and take up space

d)

d) The Earth is made of matter

137.

Water drops stay together on wax paper and they don’t break apart easily. This is mainly because:

a)

a) Water molecules are small

b)

b) Water molecules are in motion

c)

c) Water molecules are attracted to each other

d)

d) Water molecules are wet

138.

When you bring two drops of water near each other and allow them to touch, they combine immediately and become one drop. This is mainly because:

a)

a) Water molecules are made of atoms

b)

b) Water molecules are attracted to each other

c)

c) Water molecules are magnetic

d)

d) Water is a liquid

139.

If you put food coloring in room temperature water, the coloring spreads throughout the water. The water causes the color to spread mainly because:

a)

a) Water molecules are warm

b)

b) Water molecules are in motion

c)

c) Water is more dense than food coloring

d)

d) Food coloring molecules are small

140.

Food coloring spreads out faster in hot water than in cold water. This is mainly because:

a)

a) The water molecules in hot water move more quickly

b)

b) The molecules in hot water are larger

c)

c) The food coloring molecules are small

d)

d) Hot water is less dense

141.

When a thermometer is heated, the red liquid inside the thermometer moves up. This is mainly because:

a)

a) The red liquid is thin.

b)

b) The molecules of the liquid move faster and get a little further apart

c)

c) Hot liquid is lighter

d)

d) The glass of the thermometer gets hot

142.

When a thermometer is cooled, the red liquid inside the thermometer moves down. This is mainly because:

a)

a) Cold liquids sink

b)

b) The glass of the thermometer gets cold

c)

c) The molecules of the liquid move slower and get a little closer together

d)

d) The red liquid is thick

143.

When you heat a sample of a solid, the particles that make up the solid:

a)

a) Get bigger

b)

b) Loose mass

c)

c) Move faster

d)

d) Slow down

144.

When you heat a sample of a solid, the sample gets a little bigger. This is mainly because:

a)

a) The particles move faster and get a little further apart

b)

b) Heat helps the particles grow

c)

c) Heating the sample makes it lighter

d)

d) Heating helps the particles slide past each other

145.

When you heat a sample of gas, what happens to the particles that make up the gas?

a)

a) The particles move faster

b)

b) The particles break apart

c)

c) The particles get smaller

d)

d) The particles become more dense

146.

Check all that apply. To describe a liquid, you could say:

a)

a) The particles of a liquid are attracted to one another

b)

b) The particles of a liquid are in motion

c)

c) The particles of a liquid are able to move past one another

d)

d) A liquid has mass and takes up space

147.

Check all that apply. To describe a solid, you could say:

a)

a) The particles of a solid are attracted to each other

b)

b) The particles of a solid can move past one another

c)

c) The particles of a solid vibrate but do not move past one another

d)

d) A solid has mass and takes up space

148.

To describe a gas, you could say:

a)

a) The particles are very attracted to each other

b)

b) The particles are not very attracted to each other

c)

c) The particles are close together like a liquid

d)

d) The particles of a gas are further apart than the particles in a liquid or solid

149.

Which image represents a gas?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

150.

Which image represents a solid?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

151.
Four identical cans are arranged on the shelves of the bookcase shown.  Which can has the greatest potential energy?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
152.
A girl throws a ball into the air.  At which point does the ball have the greatest potential energy?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
153.
In a gasoline-powered car, chemical energy from gasoline is transformed to make the car move.  The motion of the car is what form of energy?
a)
radiant energy
b)
nuclear energy
c)
electrical energy
d)
mechanical energy
154.
Which best represents the use of mechanical energy?
a)
a light bulb giving off heat
b)
a candle providing light
c)
a nail being hammered
d)
a can rusting
155.
Engineers are building a dam in a river valley.  Once the dam is built, a reservoir will develop.  Which energy transformation are engineers most likely attempting to achieve?
a)
to convert potential energy into electrical energy
b)
to convert electrical energy into potential energy
c)
to convert electromagnetic energy into kinetic energy
d)
to convert kinetic energy into gravitational energy
156.
Students are attempting to make a doorbell ring using some wire and a battery.  What is needed to make the bell ring?
a)
friction
b)
gravity
c)
a convection current
d)
and electrical circuit
157.
How does the machine shown in the diagram make work easier?
a)
It changes the direction of the force
b)
It increases the amount of the force.
c)
It reduces the friction of lifting.
d)
It changes the resistance.
158.
Raindrops move soil particles from one location to another.  Which energy conversion gives raindrops the capacity to move soil particles?
a)
potential to kinetic
b)
electrical to potential
c)
chemical to mechanical
d)
gravitational to electrical
159.
The sound made by crickets occurs when the male crickets rubs its two hind legs together.  Which type of energy transformation results in the sound made by crickets?
a)
sound energy to thermal energy
b)
thermal energy to chemical energy
c)
mechanical energy to sound energy
d)
mechanical energy to chemical energy
160.
The diagrams show forces applied to an object.  Which diagram shows the most work being done?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
161.
Which of the following is a unit for acceleration?
a)
km/s
b)
m/s2
c)
mi/hr
d)
ft
162.
Acceleration is defined as the CHANGE in 
a)
time it takes for one place to move to another place. 
b)
velocity of an object.
c)
distance divided by the time interval 
d)
velocity divided by the time interval 
163.
Acceleration only takes place when things speed up. 
a)
True
b)
False
164.
In each of the following cases, determine where the car has no acceleration ?
a)
A car shortly after a stoplight turns green.
b)
A car approaching a red light
c)
A car with the cruise control set at 80 km/h
d)
A car moving down a ramp
165.
You are walking and start to slow down. Do you have acceleration? 
a)
yes
b)
no 
166.
As you walk you make a right turn. Do you have acceleration? 
a)
yes 
b)
no
167.
A negative acceleration means that your object is _____. 
a)
Going to Wal-mart 
b)
running for president 
c)
speeding up 
d)
slowing down 
168.

The graph shows

a)

positive acceleration

b)

negative acceleration

c)

constant acceleration

d)

increasing acceleration

169.
The speed boats speed increased from 0m/s to 24m/s in a time span of 12 seconds.
a)
4 m/s²
b)
2 m/s²
c)
8 m/s²
d)
6 m/s²
170.
The Eagles are playing the Patriots in Super Bowl 52. The score is Eagles 31 Patriots 27 with two minutes left. Nick Foles throws a deep ball to Alshon Jeffery the velocity of the football increases from 10m/s to 40 m/s in over a 5 second period.
a)
6 m/s²
b)
10 m/s²
c)
8 m/s²
d)
30 m/s²
171.
John Cena’s speed increases from 15 m/s to 25 m/s as he runs downhill over a 5 second period.
a)
2 m/s²
b)
10 m/s²
c)
8 m/s²
d)
2 m/s
172.

If an object has a positive velocity and a positive acceleration it is...

a)

Speeding up

b)

Slowing down

c)

Changing direction

d)

Stopping

173.

If you increase your velocity from rest to +3 m/s and your friend increases his velocity from rest to +5 m/s, who has the biggest acceleration?

a)

You

b)

Your friend

c)

Both the same

174.

If someone runs a mile at 5 m/s the whole time, what is his acceleration?

a)

0 m/s2

b)

5 m/s2

c)

2.5 m/s2

d)

1 m/s2

175.
If a car going 30 m/s approaches a traffic jam and the driver hits the brakes, how long will it take for them to slow to a stop with at a rate of -6.25m/s2? 
Which equation will help you solve this problem?
a)
Vf = (a•t) + vi
b)
Vi = vf- (a•t)
c)
a = (vf-vi)/t
d)
t = (vf-vi)/a
176.
A dog runs with an initial speed of 7.5 m/s on a waxed floor.  It slides to a stop in 15 seconds.  What is the acceleration?
a)
-7.5 m/s
b)
-7.5 m/s2
c)
-0.5 m/s2
d)
7.5 mi//hr
177.
Which graph shows the object standing still?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
178.
Acceleration describes how an object’s velocity is changing.  Which of the following scenarios provides the best example of an accelerating object?
a)
A car driving at a constant speed
b)
A book sitting on top of a high shelf
c)
A toy train traveling in a circle
d)
A toy boat floating in a bathtub
179.
When a car goes around a corner at 20 mph, why do we say it  accelerates?
a)
The car is accelerating because of the velocity is constant
b)
The car accelerates because it's going 20 mph
c)
Cars always accelerate when they are in motion
d)
The car is accelerating because it's changing direction
180.
Acceleration of an object happens when things ________
a)
slow down
b)
go faster
c)
change direction (turn)
d)
All of the above
181.

Speed = _______________

a)

Distance + time

b)

Distance – time

c)

Distance x time

d)

Distance / time

182.

This occurs when an object speeds up, slows down, or changes direction.

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

183.

Another way to explain the speed and direction of a object would be to describe it’s ________

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

184.

Velocity = _______________

a)

Speed – direction

b)

Speed + direction

c)

Speed x direction

d)

Speed / direction

185.
Avery likes to walk 30 feet in 10 seconds. What is her speed?
a)
3 feet/sec
b)
6 feet/sec
c)
10 feet/sec
d)
2 feet/sec
186.

At what speed would a car have to move in order to travel 20 kilometers in 2 hours.

a)

5 km/hr

b)

10 km/hr

c)

20 km/hr

d)

40 km/hr

187.
Changes in our speed, direction or both are called _________.
a)
gravity
b)
changes
c)
acceleration
d)
displacement
188.
What is the definition of velocity?
a)
A force that opposes motion
b)
Uniform circular motion
c)
The speed of an object in a particular direction
189.
If you slow down on your bicycle, you accelerate.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
190.
Changing the speed and changing the direction of your bicycle are both examples of acceleration.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
191.
You ride your bike around the block at a constant speed of 11 km/h.
a)
Acceleration occurred because speed increased.
b)
Acceleration occurred because speed decreased.
c)
Acceleration occurred because you changed directions.
192.
A measurement of how fast an object is moving
a)
Velocity
b)
Speed
c)
Vector
d)
Acceleration
193.

Which of the following is a unit of speed?

a)

km/hr

b)

Minutes

c)

Centimeters

d)

meters

194.

A car initially traveling at 8.0 meters per second doubles its speed while traveling in a northeast direction.

Students used a table to record the initial and final conditions for speed and velocity.

Which table is correct?

a)

b)

c)

d)

195.

Which statement best describes the motion of the toy vehicle during the first 30 seconds of the investigation?

a)

The vehicle was traveling at a constant speed

b)

The vehicle was accelerating at a constant rate

c)

The speed of the vehicle was increasing

d)

The acceleration of the vehicle was increasing

196.

Which statement best describes the cart?

a)

The cart was stationary with a velocity of 0 m/s for the entire 7 seconds

b)

The cart was stationary except for a short burst of acceleration of 0.5 m/s2

c)

The cart moved at a constant velocity of 0.5 m/s for the entire 7 seconds

d)

The cart accelerated at a constant rate of approximately 0.8 m/s2

197.

Match the following

a)

Speed

1.

30 m/s

b)

Velocity

2.

30 m/s east

c)

Acceleration

3.

30 m/s2

198.

Which of the following best describes the velocity of an object?

30 ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
m/s east
m/s
m east
m/s2
199.

What is the difference between the velocity and the speed of an object?

a)

Velocity is the change in distance over time, while speed is the change in velocity over time.

b)

Velocity has a direction associated with it, while speed has no specific direction

c)

Velocity has no direction associated with it, while speed has a specific direction

d)

Velocity is the change in speed over time, while speed is the change in distance over time

200.

The pickup truck has a changing velocity because the pickup truck -

a)

can accelerate faster than the other two vehicles

b)

is traveling in the opposite direction from the other two vehicles

c)

is traveling on a curve in the road

d)

needs a large amount of force to move