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First Aid

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

CPR means .....

a)

Cardiopulmonary Reflex

b)

Cardio Pulse Response

c)

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

2.

With an unresponsive person, CPR takes over for which body systems?

a)

Nervous

b)

Circulatory

c)

Digestive

d)

Muscular

e)

Respiratory

3.

A cycle of CPR is .....

a)

30 compressions / 2 breaths at 150 compressions per minute

b)

20 compressions / 3 breaths at 100 compression per minute

c)

30 compressions / 2 Breaths at 100-120 compressions per minute

4.

Adult CPR compressions should be ....

a)

1inch

b)

1 1/2 inches

c)

2 inches

5.

Which of the following statements is incorrect about performing chest compressions?

a)

allow the chest to come half way to it's normal position

b)

minimize interruptions

c)

press down at least 2 inches

6.

You are first to the scene and you find an unresponsive person who is not breathing and has thrown up. You feel full CPR is not something you are comfortable giving them. What would be the next best thing for you to do?

a)

chest compression only CPR

b)

go and get help

c)

do not start CPR

7.

If you are alone and come upon a person who may need CPR, the first thing you should do is:

a)

activate the emergency response system

b)

go for an AED

c)

make sure the scene is safe

8.
Why is defibrillation important? 
a)
It prevents rearrest from occurring
b)
There is a 100% success rate in regaining a normal cardiac rhythm
c)
It can restore a regular cardiac rythm
9.

Effective chest compressions

a)

allows the chest to return to its normal position

b)

are delivered fast at a rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute

c)

are smooth, regular, and given straight up and down

d)

all of the above

10.

If during the second analysis, the AED prompts "no shock advised", you should?

a)

check the pad placement on the person's chest

b)

reset the AED by turning it off for 10 seconds

c)

resume CPR until the AED reanalyzes or you find an obvious sign of life

11.

On the Glasgow Coma Scale, The verbal response test is divided to _____ levels

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

12.

You are called to see a patient who has fallen through a plate glass door. As you approach the patient you observe that their eyes are extremely swollen and they are unable to open them. How would you record the eye component of the scale?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

not tested

13.

A concussion occurs when your brain:

a)

brain is over used

b)

shifts and bumps against your skull

c)

temperature is too high

14.

Some signs of a concussion are:

a)

Problems sleeping

b)

Headache

c)

Blurry vision

d)

All of these

15.

All concussions are the same for everyone.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Repeated hits to the head over time can cause long term brain damage.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

If you received a hit to the head you should:

a)

Get information from the internet

b)

See a doctor

c)

Shake it off and continue

18.

The best way to recover from any concussion is to:

a)

Get plenty of rest

b)

Wait at least 24 hours to play again

c)

Take medication

19.

Reading and/or playing video games will help your brain to heal after a concussion.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Trouble balancing and a persisstant headache could be a sign that you have a concussion.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

A concussion is a type of brain injury that disrupts normal brain function caused by a blow to the head.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

What is anaphylaxis?

a)

A mild allergic reaction that affects only the skin

b)

A severe allergic reaction that can affect the whole body

c)

A psychological response to allergens

23.

What does the term 'allergen' refer to?

a)

A type of bacteria that causes infections

b)

A substance that can cause an allergy

c)

A protein that the body needs

24.

What is anaphylaxis commonly triggered by?

a)

Cold weather

b)

Physical exercise

c)

Allergens like foods and insect stings

25.

What should be done when someone experiences a severe allergic reaction?

a)

Wait for symptoms to resolve on their own

b)

Take immediate emergency action

c)

Drink plenty of water

26.

What is a common respiratory symptom of anaphylaxis?

a)

Flushing

b)

Wheezes or stridor

c)

Low blood pressure

27.

Which of the following is a symptom related to the skin during an anaphylaxis?

a)

Itchiness

b)

Loss of consciousness

c)

wheezing

28.

What is the immediate action recommended for moderate to severe anaphylaxis?

a)

Take an antihistamine

b)

Call 9-1-1 immediately

c)

Wait to see if symptoms improve

29.

What can untreated anaphylaxis lead to within 30 minutes?

a)

Recovery

b)

Mild discomfort

c)

Death

30.

What is the role of an antihistamine in treating mild anaphylaxis?

a)

It increases histamine production

b)

It slows down or stops the actions of histamine

c)

It intensifies the allergic reaction

31.

What is the first step in using the device shown in the image, after checking the expiration date, when administering an injection?

a)

Press the orange end against the skin

b)

Remove the blue cap

c)

Check the expiration date

32.

Where should the orange end of the device be administered?

a)

On the arm

b)

On the thigh

c)

On the abdomen

33.

Which of the following is a true statement about asthma?

a)

Asthma is caused by a virus

b)

Asthma is caused by harmful bacteria

c)

Asthma is fairly common condition

34.

In what way is an asthma attack similar to a heart attack?

a)

Both involve the constriction of an internal passageway

b)

Both usually result in death

c)

Both are caused by exposure to air pollution

35.

What is the direct cause of asthma attacks?

a)

Swelling and excess mucous in the airways

b)

Excess fluid in the air sacs

c)

Infection of the lungs

36.

Which of these can trigger an asthma attack?

a)

Clean, dry air

b)

Drinking a lot of water

c)

Intense anger or stress

37.

What can you infer from the fact that many superstar athletes have asthma?

a)

Asthma isn't really a serious condition

b)

With proper care, asthmatics can do basically anything

c)

Pro athletes can afford to have to have their asthma cured

38.

A 95 year old patient has an accidental fall while going to the bathroom without assistance. It appears the patient has sustained a bone fracture to the right leg. The leg’s shape is deformed and the patient is unable to move it. The patient is alert and oriented but in pain. What will you do FIRST after confirming the patient is safe and stable?

a)

Immobilize the fracture with a splint.

b)

Administer pain medication.

c)

Elevate the extremity above heart level.

39.

A female patient is brought to the emergency room with an injury to her lower leg from an ATV accident. You notice a white tip of a bone protruding through the skin as you cut her pant leg off. Her injury is described as what kind of fracture.

a)

Comminuted

b)

Compound

c)

Simple

40.

Type of fracture?

a)
compression
b)
simple
c)
compound
41.
 a fracture in which the bone breaks diagonally. 
a)
Oblique Fracture
b)
Diagonal Fracture
c)

Transverse Fracture 

42.
Bone breaks into many fragments.
a)
Shattered Fracture
b)
Comminuted Fracture
c)

Greenstick Fracture

43.

Bone breaks incompletely, occurs most commonly during the childhood stages of life.

a)
Greenstick Fracture
b)

Compression Fracture

c)
Comminuted Fracture 
44.
Tissue that connects bone to bone
a)
Ligament
b)
Tendon
c)
Muscle
45.
What kind of fracture is shown in the picture?
a)
Open or compound
b)
Closed or simple
46.

What is the purpose of splinting?

a)

To increase flexibility

b)

To reduce swelling

c)

To immobilize and protect an injured body part

47.

Explain the importance of immobilizing a fractured limb before splinting.

a)

To make the splinting process more challenging

b)

To prevent further damage and reduce pain, stabilize the injury site, and minimize complications during splinting.

c)

To increase blood flow to the injured area

48.

Describe the steps to properly apply a splint to a suspected fracture.

a)

Use a splint that is too loose to allow movement

b)

Skip checking for circulation issues

c)

Check for circulation issues, immobilize the area, pad the splint, secure it in place, and reassess circulation.

49.

What materials are used to wrap someone? check all that apply

a)

Ace Bandage

b)

Tape or metal clips

c)

Padding

50.

Choose all of the materials needed to perform the sling and swathe technique. Check all that apply

a)

Splints

b)

Triangular bandage

c)

ACE wraps/or additional triangular bandages

d)

Safety pins

51.

The fingers should remain accessible (not covered) in a sling and swathe.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Is a concussion considered a brain injury?

a)

Yes

b)

No

53.

Patient has a GCS score of 10. What is the severity of injury?

a)

Mild

b)

Moderate

c)

Severe

54.

Which of the following is not a component of Cushing triad?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Irregular respiration

d)

Hypotension

55.

What is mild head injury?

a)

GCS 9-13

b)

GCS 3-8

c)

GCS 14 or 15 with LOC

56.

During a first aid class, Lily, Evelyn, and Maya learned about the recovery position. What is the primary purpose of the recovery position?

a)

It's a more comfortable position for napping

b)

It's a warmer position for cold days

c)

It protects the victim's airway

57.

Imagine Harper, Lily, and David are learning about first aid. They come across the Recovery Position. When SHOULD they use the Recovery Position?

a)

When they have a pulse but no respirations

b)

When the victim is breathing and responsive

c)

When the victim is breathing but unresponsive

58.

Aiden and Zoe are learning about first aid. They are curious to know, how does the Recovery Position help a person in need?

a)

It makes breathing easier for the person and allows fluid to drain from their mouth

b)

It makes breathing easier and the person is more likely to wake up

c)

It makes breathing easier and allows you to open the mouth to check nothing is there

59.

When would be the appropriate time to use a tourniquet?

a)

when there is a bleeding wound on the neck

b)

when there is a wound on an extremity which won't stop bleeding.

c)

never use a tourniquet

60.

Where do you place a tourniquet at on the body?

a)

directly on the end of the wound.

b)

approximately 2 inches below the wound

c)

approximately 2 inches above the wound

61.
The first step to controlling bleeding is to apply direct pressure on the wound.
a)
True
b)
False
62.

If the bleeding does not stop after the application of a tourniquet, apply a second tourniquet.

a)
True
b)
False
63.

What type of bleeding produces bright red blood spurts with each heartbeat?

a)

arterial bleeding

b)

venous bleeding

c)

hemorrhage

64.

What are pressure bandages used for when a person is bleeding ?

a)

to stop and/or control the bleeding

b)

to clean the wound

c)

to sterilize the wound

65.

Define hemorrhage?

a)

uncontrollable bleeding

b)

sudden death

c)

heart attack

66.

Which is the most dangerous type of bleeding?

a)

Arterial

b)

Venous

c)

capillary

67.

What is the very first step of taping an ankle?

a)

3 anchor strips

b)

Spray with tuff skin

c)

Place foot in proper position

68.

What is the name of the step that has the arrows on it?

a)

Stirrup

b)

Heel Lock

c)

Figure 8

69.

What is wrong with the positioning of the ankle?

a)

It is in dorsiflexion

b)

It is in plantar flexion

c)

It is in inversion

70.

What technique is pictured with the arrows

a)

Figure 8

b)

Heel lock

c)

Stirrup