Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

NET+ Quiz Part 4

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

As a network administrator, you are called in to troubleshoot a problem on a token ring network. The network uses two MSAUs connected using the ring-in ports on both devices. All network cards are set at the same speed. What is the likely cause of the problem?

a)

Bad network card

b)

Faulty cabling

c)

MSAU configuration

d)

Network card configuration

2.

A mesh network uses a point-to-point connection to every device on the network. What does this configuration create?

a)

Single point of failure

b)

High degree of redundancy

c)

Centralized control

d)

Minimal wiring requirements

3.

In a star/hub-and-spoke network, what is the role of the centralized device?

a)

To connect directly to the internet

b)

To act as a backup server

c)

To make a point-to-point connection to each network device

d)

To provide power to the network devices

4.

What is a significant shortcoming of a bus network?

a)

High cost of implementation

b)

Single point of failure

c)

Complex configuration

d)

Requires a centralized device

5.

In a bus network, what does a single cable act as?

a)

A power supply

b)

A backup server

c)

A backbone to which all networking devices attach

d)

A firewall

6.

True or false: The biggest difference between a LAN and a WAN is usually the size of the network.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

What network type is essentially a LAN created to share data among devices associated with you?

a)

WAN

b)

PAN

c)

SAN

d)

MAN

8.

In what networking type is consolidated, block-level data storage made available to networked devices?

a)

LAN

b)

WAN

c)

PAN

d)

SAN

9.

What are the two most common network classifications based on geographic coverage and size?

a)

LANs and MANs

b)

LANs and WANs

c)

PANs and SANs

d)

MANs and WANs

10.

What is the main difference between a peer-to-peer network and a client/server network?

a)

The number of devices

b)

The geographic location

c)

The presence of a dedicated server

d)

The type of data shared

11.

What type of network does not have dedicated servers and where communication occurs between similarly capable network nodes that act as both clients and servers?

a)

Client/server network

b)

Peer-to-peer network

c)

Local-area network

d)

Wide-area network

12.

What is a local-area network (LAN) typically used for?

a)

Connecting computers over a large geographic area

b)

Interconnecting workstation computers for sharing files and resources

c)

Providing internet access to remote locations

d)

Connecting multiple networks together

13.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a LAN?

a)

It covers a large geographic area

b)

It is typically high speed and cheaper to set up than a WAN

c)

It relies on wireless transmissions

d)

It is dependent on a hotspot

14.

What does Figure 1.9 in the document show?

a)

A wide-area network

b)

A peer-to-peer network

c)

A local-area network

d)

A client/server network

15.

What does a wireless LAN (WLAN) use to send and receive data?

a)

Ethernet cables

b)

Fiber optics

c)

Radio frequency (RF) signals

d)

Satellite signals

16.

Where can a WLAN hotspot be typically found?

a)

In a private home

b)

In a public place like a coffee shop or train station

c)

In a corporate office

d)

In a data center

17.

In a common wireless implementation, what is the role of a wireless transceiver (transmitter/receiver)?

a)

To connect to the wired network from a fixed location using standard cabling.

b)

To provide internet access to mobile devices.

c)

To act as a firewall for the network.

d)

To encrypt data for secure transmission.

18.

What do wireless LAN adapters provide in a wireless network?

a)

They act as a firewall.

b)

They provide the communication point between the client system and the airwaves via an antenna.

c)

They encrypt data for secure transmission.

d)

They manage the IP addresses of the network.

19.

What is a wide-area network (WAN)?

a)

A network that spans a single building.

b)

A network that spans more than one geographic location, often connecting separated LANs.

c)

A network that only connects mobile devices.

d)

A network that is faster than LANs.

20.

What is a characteristic of WANs compared to LANs?

a)

WANs are faster than LANs.

b)

WANs are slower than LANs.

c)

WANs are less expensive to implement than LANs.

d)

WANs do not require any additional hardware.

21.

What is a metropolitan-area network (MAN)?

a)

A network that spans multiple countries.

b)

A network confined to a certain geographic area, such as a university campus or city.

c)

A network that only connects personal devices.

d)

A network that is faster than WANs.

22.

What does the acronym MAN stand for in networking?

a)

Metropolitan Area Network

b)

Main Area Network

c)

Multiple Area Network

d)

Mobile Area Network

23.

Which type of network is typically smaller than a WAN but larger than a LAN?

a)

MAN

b)

GAN

c)

SAN

d)

PAN

24.

What is a campus-area network (CAN) primarily used for?

a)

Linking buildings within a limited geographical area

b)

Connecting personal devices

c)

Providing block-level data storage

d)

Connecting devices in close proximity

25.

What does SAN stand for in networking?

a)

Storage-Area Network

b)

System-Area Network

c)

Service-Area Network

d)

Secure-Area Network

26.

Which type of network offers block-level data storage within the operating systems of connected devices?

a)

SAN

b)

CAN

c)

PAN

d)

MAN

27.

What is a personal-area network (PAN) primarily used for?

a)

Sharing data among devices associated with an individual

b)

Connecting multiple LANs within a campus

c)

Providing file-level access

d)

Linking buildings within a limited geographical area

28.

What does WPAN stand for?

a)

Wireless Personal-Area Network

b)

Wide Personal-Area Network

c)

Wireless Public-Area Network

d)

Wide Public-Area Network

29.

Which technology is commonly used in WPAN for close proximity data exchange?

a)

Bluetooth

b)

Ethernet

c)

Fiber Optics

d)

Satellite

30.

What does SDWAN stand for?

a)

Software-Defined Wide Area Network

b)

Software-Driven Wide Area Network

c)

System-Defined Wide Area Network

d)

Service-Defined Wide Area Network

31.

Which technology is SDWAN an extension of?

a)

Software-Defined Networking (SDN)

b)

Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

c)

Frame Relay

d)

Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)

32.

What is one of the main benefits of SDWAN?

a)

Reduces operational costs

b)

Increases hardware requirements

c)

Limits scalability

d)

Requires more manual configuration

33.

What technology did SDWAN evolve from?

a)

MPLS

b)

ATM

c)

DSL

d)

E1

34.

What is the goal of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

a)

To add dynamic capabilities to the network and reduce IT costs

b)

To increase the complexity of network management

c)

To maintain static network configurations

d)

To eliminate the need for cloud architectures

35.

What does MPLS stand for?

a)

Multiprotocol Label Switching

b)

Multilayer Packet Switching

c)

Multipath Label System

d)

Multichannel Packet Switching

36.

What is the primary function of MPLS?

a)

To use short path labels to direct data from one node to another

b)

To increase the number of network addresses

c)

To replace all existing network technologies

d)

To limit the use of virtual links

37.

When a WAN is confined to a certain geographic area, such as a city, it is known as a

a)

LAN

b)

MAN

c)

VAN

d)

VPN

38.

Which of the following is a computer network in a defined area that links buildings and consists of multiple LANs within that limited geographical area?

a)

SAN

b)

PAN

c)

DAN

d)

CAN

39.

What is the primary goal of using SDWANs with MPLS technology?

a)

To increase the cost of connectivity

b)

To eliminate or minimize the usage of MPLS

c)

To reduce the speed of connectivity

d)

To complicate network management

40.

What does mGRE stand for?

a)

Multipoint Generic Routing Encapsulation

b)

Multipoint General Routing Encapsulation

c)

Multipoint Generic Routing Encryption

d)

Multipoint General Routing Encryption

41.

What is one of the main advantages of mGRE over GRE?

a)

mGRE is more expensive

b)

mGRE requires explicit configuration of mapping entries

c)

mGRE can dynamically establish tunnels without explicit configuration

d)

mGRE is slower than GRE

42.

Which of the following provides a flexible and secure data communications system that augments an Ethernet LAN or, in some cases, replaces it altogether?

a)

PHLAN

b)

MAN

c)

WLAN

d)

CRAN

43.

Which technology uses short path labels instead of longer network addresses to direct data from one node to another?

a)

MPLS

b)

Metropolitan Ethernet

c)

DMVPN

d)

PPP

44.

Which WAN architecture allows an enterprise to leverage a combination of transport services such as MPLS, 5G, LTE, or broadband to securely connect users to applications?

a)

WPAN

b)

SDWAN

c)

GRE

d)

mGRE

45.

What is the main concept behind SDWAN?

a)

To provide a secure private path for packets through a public network.

b)

To take many of the principles that make cloud computing attractive and make them accessible at the WAN level.

c)

To connect devices in very close proximity using Bluetooth, infrared, or NFC.

d)

To establish tunnels without the need to explicitly configure mapping entries.

46.

What does WPAN refer to?

a)

Technologies involved in connecting devices over long distances.

b)

Technologies involved in connecting devices in very close proximity.

c)

A secure private path for packets through a public network.

d)

A virtual WAN architecture leveraging a combination of transport services.

47.

What does GRE provide?

a)

A virtual WAN architecture leveraging a combination of transport services.

b)

Technologies involved in connecting devices in very close proximity.

c)

A secure private path for packets through a public network.

d)

The ability to dynamically establish tunnels without the need to explicitly configure mapping entries.

48.

What is the function of mGRE?

a)

To provide a secure private path for packets through a public network.

b)

To connect devices in very close proximity using Bluetooth, infrared, or NFC.

c)

To dynamically establish tunnels without the need to explicitly configure mapping entries.

d)

To adopt a virtual WAN architecture leveraging a combination of transport services.

49.

What is VHDSL commonly used for?

a)

Low-bandwidth applications

b)

High-bandwidth applications such as VoIP and HDTV

c)

Dial-up internet connections

d)

Basic email services

50.

True or false: DSL using regular phone lines transfers data over the same copper wire.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

What is the difference between a one-way and a two-way satellite system?

a)

One-way uses a satellite card and dish, two-way uses only a dish

b)

One-way sends data both ways, two-way sends data one way

c)

One-way requires a satellite card and dish, two-way provides data paths for both upstream and downstream data

d)

One-way is faster than two-way

52.

What hardware is located at the demarcation point?

a)

Router

b)

Modem

c)

Smart jack, also known as the network interface device (NID)

d)

Switch

53.

What does DSL stand for in the context of Internet access?

a)

Digital Subscriber Line

b)

Direct Service Line

c)

Data Service Link

d)

Digital Service Line

54.

Which type of DSL provides a high data rate in only one direction?

a)

ADSL

b)

HDSL

c)

SDSL

d)

VDSL

55.

What is the main characteristic of Asymmetric DSL (ADSL)?

a)

Faster download speeds than upload speeds

b)

Equal upload and download speeds

c)

Only used for business applications

d)

Requires fiber optic cables

56.

Which type of DSL is most suitable for applications such as web hosting, intranets, and e-commerce?

a)

SDSL

b)

ADSL

c)

HDSL

d)

VDSL

57.

What improvement did ADSL2 make over ADSL?

a)

Increased data rate and distance from the telephone exchange

b)

Equal upload and download speeds

c)

Only used for analog traffic

d)

Requires a dedicated phone line

58.

Which type of DSL is symmetric and commonly used in environments where SDSL and ADSL are unavailable?

a)

RADSL

b)

VDSL

c)

IDSL

d)

HDSL

59.

Which type of DSL can modify its transmission speeds based on signal quality?

a)

IDSL

b)

RADSL

c)

VDSL

d)

HDSL

60.

Which type of DSL supports high-bandwidth applications such as VoIP and HDTV and uses fiber-optic cabling?

a)

IDSL

b)

RADSL

c)

VDSL

d)

HDSL

61.

Which type of DSL offers identical transmission rates in both directions and does not allow line sharing with analog phones?

a)

IDSL

b)

RADSL

c)

VDSL

d)

HDSL

62.

What is the upload speed of ADSL2+?

(a)  

63.

Which DSL variation has the highest download speed according to Table 1.5?

a)

ADSL

b)

ADSL2

c)

ADSL2+

d)

VDSL

64.

What does ADSL stand for?

a)

Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line

b)

Advanced Digital Subscriber Line

c)

Asynchronous Digital Subscriber Line

d)

Analog Digital Subscriber Line

65.

Why are DSL filters used in DSL connections?

a)

To increase the speed of the connection

b)

To minimize interference between data and voice signals

c)

To convert analog signals to digital

d)

To amplify the signal strength

66.

What is a cable modem used for in cable broadband Internet access?

a)

To convert digital signals to analog

b)

To connect to the provider's outlet and a system or router

c)

To amplify the signal strength

d)

To filter out noise from the signal

67.

What type of connection does a cable modem use to connect to a system or router?

a)

Coaxial cable

b)

Fiber optic cable

c)

Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) connection

d)

Wireless connection

68.

What is a common feature of cable modems regarding Ethernet connections?

a)

They support a lower-speed Ethernet connection

b)

They support a higher-speed Ethernet connection

c)

They do not support Ethernet connections

d)

They only support wireless connections

69.

What is one of the biggest disadvantages of cable access?

a)

It is very expensive.

b)

It requires special equipment.

c)

You share the available bandwidth with everyone else in your cable area.

d)

It is only available in urban areas.

70.

During which times is the performance of a cable link typically poorer?

a)

Early mornings

b)

Peak times such as evenings and weekends

c)

Midday

d)

Late nights

71.

What type of bandwidth does DSL deliver?

a)

Shared bandwidth

b)

Local bandwidth

c)

Global bandwidth

d)

Dedicated local bandwidth

72.

What is the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) often considered?

a)

ADSL

b)

POTS

c)

ISDN

d)

DSL

73.

What is a significant drawback of using the PSTN to establish WAN connections?

a)

High cost

b)

Limited transfer speeds

c)

Complex setup

d)

Limited availability

74.

What is the transfer speed limit of PSTN with a modem?

a)

128 Kbps

b)

256 Kbps

c)

56 Kbps

d)

512 Kbps

75.

What is the transmission speed of a T1 line?

a)

1.544 Mbps

b)

6.312 Mbps

c)

44.736 Mbps

d)

274.176 Mbps

76.

Which T-carrier line uses 96 64-Kbps B channels to achieve its transmission speed?

a)

T1

b)

T2

c)

T3

d)

T4

77.

In North America, what is the more accurate name for T3?

a)

DS1

b)

DS2

c)

DS3

d)

DS4

78.

Which T-carrier line offers the highest transmission speed?

a)

T1

b)

T2

c)

T3

d)

T4

79.

What is the term used for leasing portions of a T-carrier service?

a)

Partial T

b)

Fractional T

c)

Segmental T

d)

Divided T