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WorksheetsS24TH1stHALF - FINAL - BUSINESS MANAGEMENT
Total questions: 66
Worksheet time: 33mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The ability of a manager to influence employees' behavior is called ______.
a)
power
b)
corruption
c)
greed
2.
Which type of planning involves creating long-range, broad goals for the organization?
a)
a) Tactical planning
b)
b) Operational planning
c)
c) Strategic planning
3.
What leadership style encourages discussion of issues and alternatives with group members?
a)
a) Autocratic
b)
b) Participative
c)
c) Free-rein
4.
What is the opposite of an autocratic leadership style?
a)
a) Participative
b)
b) Free-rein
c)
c) Directive
5.
What type of leadership style involves turning over all authority and control to subordinates?
a)
a) Autocratic
b)
b) Participative
c)
c) Free-rein
6.
What leadership style considers the maturity and competency levels of employees when selecting a leadership approach?
a)
a) Autocratic
b)
b) Participative
c)
c) Free-rein
d)
d) Situational
7.
What type of skills involve a manager's ability to apply specialized knowledge and expertise?
a)
a) Human relations skills
b)
b) Conceptual skills
c)
c) Technical skills
d)
d) Communication skills
8.
Which level of management typically uses conceptual skills the most?
a)
a) Top-level management
b)
b) Middle management
c)
c) Supervisory management
9.
What managerial skill category focuses on understanding human behavior and motivating individuals?
a)
a) Technical skills
b)
b) Human relations skills
c)
c) Conceptual skills
d)
d) Communication skills
10.
What do you call the ability to view an organization as a whole and understand its interdependencies?
a)
a) Technical skills
b)
b) Human relations skills
c)
c) Conceptual skills
d)
d) Analytical skills
11.
What skill set is necessary for managers at the top of the management pyramid?
a)
a) Technical skills
b)
b) Human relations skills
c)
c) Conceptual skills
d)
d) Technical and human relations skills
12.
What type of power is derived from an individual's personal charisma and the respect and admiration they inspire?
a)
a) Legitimate power
b)
b) Reward power
c)
c) Coercive power
d)
d) Referent power
13.
What does empowerment involve?
a)
a) Giving employees increased autonomy and control
b)
b) Micromanaging employees
c)
c) Exercising coercive power
d)
d) Reducing employee responsibilities
14.
The Opportunity Cost for a business to catch a fish is:
a)
What it costs to catch the fish, including the labor and equipment.
b)
What could have been produced if the labor and equipment was used to do something else, like pick bananas.
15.
When one business becomes more efficient at production, _____ can benefit from the increased efficiency.
a)
that business
b)
trading partners of that business
c)
Both of these.
16.
The more different businesses are from each other, the ___ they benefit from trading with each other.
a)
more
b)
less
17.
Based on the concept of comparative advantage, management should use division of labor to try to:
a)
Always assign each employee to work on tasks that they do better than other employees.
b)
Assign each employee to work on tasks that have the lowest opportunity cost for that employee.
c)
Assign each employee to work on tasks based on their seniority.
d)
Let each employee pick the tasks that they want to work on.
18.
____ plays a key role in society's growth from poverty to prosperity.
a)
Specialization
b)
Trade
c)
Both of these
19.
Developed economies grew rich because of _____.
a)
High inflation
b)
High interest rates
c)
Specialization
d)
Taxation
20.
As businesses grow, they can often increase their profitability through _____.
a)
High inflation
b)
High interest rates
c)
Specialization
d)
Taxation
21.
As a worker concentrates their effort on one task, they get ____ at doing the task.
a)
better
b)
worse
22.
"Specialization" applies to ____.
a)
Equipment
b)
Employees
c)
Both of these
23.
"The ____ the market, the more we specialize, and the more we can produce."
a)
bigger
b)
smaller
c)
The size of the market doesn't matter.
24.
What did Adam Smith call the businesses management practice of giving each worker a set of tasks, instead of having all the employees do everything.
a)
Division of Labor
b)
Division of Integers
c)
Multiplication of Labor
d)
Addition of Labor
25.
For most companies that have collective bargaining agreements, if they have layoffs they must start the layoffs _____ .
a)
with the employees who have the most seniority
b)
with the employees who have the least seniority
c)
Neither of these - seniority only impacts pay, not who gets laid off
26.
For most companies that have collective bargaining agreements, the employees who are paid the most are the ones _____ .
a)
with the most seniority
b)
with the least seniority
c)
Neither of these - seniority only impacts who gets laid off, not how much they get paid.
27.
What is the process of determining the qualifications necessary for a job, listing the job's tasks and responsibilities, and specifying the skills and abilities required for the job?
a)
Employee selection
b)
Job analysis
c)
Succession planning
d)
HR forecasting
28.
What is the term for a worker who is hired on a project-by-project basis?
a)
1099 Worker
b)
Contingent worker
c)
Independent contractor
d)
All of these
29.
Which of the following is an advantage of contingent workers?
a)
Greater control over their work
b)
Long-term commitment to the organization
c)
Cost savings on employee benefits
d)
In-house skill development
30.
What is the process of attracting qualified individuals to create an applicant pool for hiring?
a)
Employee selection
b)
On-the-job training
c)
Employee recruitment
d)
HR forecasting
31.
Which step in the selection process assesses cognitive ability, motivation potential, and knowledge and skills?
a)
Initial screening
b)
Selection interview
c)
Employment testing
d)
Background and reference check
32.
What is these is a primary disadvantage of hiring contingent workers?
a)
No Respondeat superior
b)
Limited flexibility
c)
Increased costs
d)
Less control over their activities
33.
A business is normally liable for the torts committed by an ______ while they are on the job.
a)
independent contractor
b)
employee
c)
Both of these.
d)
Neither of these.
34.
A business is normally NOT liable for the torts committed by an ______ while they are on the job.
a)
independent contractor
b)
employee
35.
Which step in the employee selection process involves an in-depth discussion of an applicant's work experience and skills?
a)
Initial screening
b)
Employment testing
c)
Selection interview
d)
Background and reference check
36.
In HR management, what is meant by "HR demand forecast"?
a)
Estimating the number of current employees
b)
Predicting future HR challenges
c)
Determining the number of employees needed in the future
d)
Analyzing employee turnover rates
37.
What is the main goal of recruitment methods like job fairs and college recruiting?
a)
Reducing employee turnover
b)
Offering employee benefits
c)
Attracting qualified applicants
d)
Providing on-the-job training
38.
What does "opportunity cost" refer to in the context of employee compensation?
a)
The cost of training new employees
b)
The financial condition of the firm
c)
The next best alternatives for employees
d)
The company's profitability
39.
What is the primary function of a shop steward?
a)
To represent the union in contract negotiations
b)
To lead strikes
c)
To oversee labor relations daily
d)
To make the final decision on grievances
40.
Which act governs the federal minimum wage and overtime pay regulations?
a)
Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
b)
Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSH Act)
c)
Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
d)
Family and Medical Leave Act
41.
What did the initial Hawthorne studies focus on?
a)
The link between effort and performance
b)
Equity in the workplace
c)
The impact of light levels on productivity
d)
Goal-setting in organizations
42.
What is the Hawthorne effect?
a)
Increased output due to varying light levels
b)
Improved performance when employees believe that management is concerned about their welfare
c)
The link between effort and performance
d)
The effects of social needs on productivity
43.
What is the highest level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
a)
Safety needs
b)
Social needs
c)
None of these
d)
Physiological needs
44.
What does Theory X assume about the average employee?
a)
The average person dislikes work and avoids it if possible.
b)
The average person is self-directed and ambitious.
c)
The average person seeks responsibility willingly.
d)
The average person is primarily motivated by social needs.
45.
What is Theory Y based on?
a)
A pessimistic view of human nature
b)
The assumption that workers can be self-directed and self-controlled
c)
The need for constant supervision and control
d)
A focus on economic incentives
46.
A "reward" is ______.
a)
anything that increases a specific behavior.
b)
anything that decreases a specific behavior.
47.
A "punishment is ______.
a)
anything that increases a specific behavior.
b)
anything that decreases a specific behavior.
48.
What does Theory X assume about the average employee’s view of work?
a)
The average person dislikes work and avoids it if possible.
b)
Work is as natural as play or rest.
c)
The average person is self-directed and ambitious.
d)
Workers can be motivated using positive incentives.
49.
What is the primary assumption of Theory Y?
a)
Workers must be controlled and directed.
b)
Work is as natural as play or rest, and workers can be self-directed.
c)
The average person dislikes work.
d)
Workers avoid responsibility and prefer security.
50.
How many 10K reports does a publicly-traded company file each year?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
51.
How many 10Q reports does a publicly-traded company file each year?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
52.
Which three of these are listed on an income statement?
a)
Income
b)
Expenses
c)
Net Income or Loss
d)
Assets
e)
Liabilities
53.
Which three of these are listed on a balance sheet?
a)
Assets
b)
Liabilities
c)
Net Worth
d)
Income
e)
Expenses
54.
What does GAAP stand for?
a)
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
b)
Generally Available Access Protection
c)
Generally Accepted Attorney-Client Privilege
55.
What is the primary legal disadvantage of sole proprietorships?
a)
a) Limited liability
b)
b) Unlimited liability
c)
c) Tax complexity
d)
d) Inability to raise capital
56.
Which type of partner in a limited partnership has unlimited liability but actively manages the business?
a)
a) General partner
b)
b) Silent partner
c)
c) Nominal partner
d)
d) Limited partner
57.
What do privately-held corporations most often do when they want to raise large amounts of capital to expand the business?
a)
a) Use an IPO
b)
b) Sell most of their assets
c)
c) The owners take out personal loans
d)
d) Reduce business expenses
58.
What form of business organization is often compared to a marriage?
a)
a) Corporation
b)
b) Partnership
c)
c) Sole proprietorship
59.
When people in the business world say "partnership", they normally mean a ______.
a)
Limited partnership
b)
General partnership
c)
Neither of these
60.
What form of business is most common?
a)
Sole proprietorship
b)
General partnership
c)
Limited partnership
d)
Corporations
61.
What form of business accounts for about 80% of total business revenue?
a)
Sole proprietorship
b)
General partnership
c)
Limited partnership
d)
Corporations
62.
In a sole proprietorship, who gets to keep the profits from the business?
a)
a) Government employees
b)
b) Employees of the business
c)
c) Business lenders
d)
d) Owner of the business
63.
In a sole proprietorship, who is responsible for all debts and losses?
a)
a) Government employees
b)
b) Employees pf the business
c)
c) Business lenders
d)
d) Owner of the business
64.
What is the main disadvantage of corporations concerning taxation?
a)
a) Double taxation of profits
b)
b) Double taxation of property values
c)
c) Higher sales tax rates
d)
d) Higher social security and medicare deductions
65.
What is the key trade-off for limited partners in a limited partnership?
a)
a) They have limited liability but cannot actively participate.
b)
b) They have unlimited liability but can actively participate.
c)
c) They have limited liability and can actively participate.
d)
d) They have unlimited liability and cannot actively participate.
66.
In which form of business ownership are owners known as stockholders?
a)
a) Sole proprietorship
b)
b) General Partnership
c)
c) Corporation
d)
d) Limited Partnership
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