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A level product design - Full specification

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How can the Design and Technology team be contacted?

a)

By visiting their office

b)

By sending an email to teachingdesignandtechnology@pearson.com

c)

By calling +44 (0) 207 010 2166

d)

Both B and C

2.

What is the duration of the written examination for Component 1: Principles of Design and Technology?

a)

1 hour 30 minutes

b)

2 hours

c)

2 hours 30 minutes

d)

3 hours

3.

What percentage of the qualification does the written examination for Component 1 constitute?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

4.

How many marks is the written examination for Component 1 worth?

a)

100 marks

b)

110 marks

c)

120 marks

d)

130 marks

5.

What must students bring to the examination?

a)

Textbooks and notes

b)

Calculators and rulers

c)

Laptops and tablets

d)

Drawing boards and compasses

6.

What percentage of the qualification does the Independent Design and Make Project account for?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

7.

How many sides of A3 paper (or electronic equivalent) will the portfolio contain approximately?

a)

20 sides

b)

30 sides

c)

40 sides

d)

50 sides

8.

What is the final part of the assessment process?

a)

Identifying and outlining possibilities for design

b)

Designing a prototype

c)

Making a final prototype

d)

Evaluating own design and prototype

9.

What should students have a good working knowledge of in addition to materials and processes?

a)

Historical design movements

b)

Health and safety procedures and relevant legislation

c)

Marketing strategies

d)

Financial management

10.

What is the importance of designers from the past according to the document?

a)

They provide inspiration for present and future designing

b)

They are not relevant to modern design

c)

They only influence traditional design methods

d)

They are only important for historical studies

11.

Why is it important for students to develop an awareness of wider issues in design and technology?

a)

To focus solely on aesthetic aspects

b)

To understand the impact on the environment and society

c)

To ignore sustainability

d)

To concentrate only on cost reduction

12.

Which of the following is a type of hardwood?

a)

Pine

b)

Cedar

c)

Oak

d)

Larch

13.

Which of the following is a non-ferrous metal?

a)

Mild steel

b)

Aluminium

c)

Carbon steel

d)

Cast iron

14.

Which of the following is a thermoplastic?

a)

Epoxy resin (ER)

b)

Urea formaldehyde (UF)

c)

Polyethylene terephthalate (PET)

d)

Polyester resin (PR)

15.

Which of the following is a composite material?

a)

Acrylic

b)

Carbon fibre (CFRP)

c)

Polypropylene (PP)

d)

Rubber

16.

Which of the following is a type of drawing paper?

a)

Bond

b)

Coated

c)

Layout

d)

Foil-lined board

17.

Which of the following is a natural fibre?

a)

Nylon

b)

Polyester

c)

Polypropylene

d)

Cotton

18.

Which of the following is a textile treatment?

a)

Nylon

b)

Linen

c)

Flame resistant

d)

Wool

19.

Which of the following is a type of smart and modern material?

a)

Thermo-ceramics

b)

Wood

c)

Paper

d)

Textile

20.

What is a characteristic of shape memory alloys (SMA)?

a)

They can return to their original shape after deformation.

b)

They are biodegradable.

c)

They are used in liquid crystal displays (LCD).

d)

They are a type of polymer.

21.

Which of the following is NOT a performance characteristic of materials?

a)

Conductivity

b)

Strength

c)

Elasticity

d)

Transparency

22.

Which material property describes the ability to be stretched into a wire?

a)

Ductility

b)

Hardness

c)

Toughness

d)

Durability

23.

What does the term "biodegradability" refer to in the context of material performance characteristics?

a)

The ability of a material to decompose naturally.

b)

The ability of a material to conduct electricity.

c)

The ability of a material to withstand impact.

d)

The ability of a material to be molded into different shapes.

24.

Which of the following processes involves hardening and tempering, case hardening, annealing, and normalising?

a)

Alloying

b)

Heat treatments

c)

Printing

d)

Moulding

25.

Which process includes offset lithology, flexography, screen-printing, and gravure?

a)

Casting

b)

Machining

c)

Printing

d)

Laminating

26.

Which of the following is NOT a type of casting mentioned in the document?

a)

Sand

b)

Die

c)

Resin

d)

Welding

27.

Which process involves blow moulding, injection moulding, vacuum forming, extrusion, and rotational moulding?

a)

Machining

b)

Moulding

c)

Laminating

d)

Marking out techniques

28.

Which tool is used for marking, cutting, and mortise gauging?

a)

Micrometer

b)

Vernier callipers

c)

Marking gauge

d)

Densitometer

29.

Which of the following tools is used to measure the density of a material?

a)

Micrometer

b)

Vernier callipers

c)

Densitometer

d)

Dividers

30.

Which tool is used to measure both internal and external dimensions?

a)

Odd leg callipers

b)

Squares

c)

Dividers

d)

Go and no-go gauges

31.

Which of the following methods is used for representing 3D forms in pictorial drawing?

a)

3rd angle orthographic projection

b)

Isometric

c)

Triangulation

d)

Report writing

32.

What type of drawing is used for communicating 2D technical information?

a)

Nets (developments)

b)

Isometric

c)

3rd angle orthographic projection

d)

Report writing

33.

Which of the following is a permanent joining technique involving heat?

a)

Contact adhesive

b)

Screws

c)

Oxy-acetylene welding

d)

Knock-down fittings

34.

Which adhesive is also known as superglue?

a)

Acrylic cement

b)

Epoxy resin

c)

Polyvinyl acetate (PVA)

d)

Cyanoacrylate

35.

Which finishing technique involves the use of powder coating?

a)

Anodising

b)

Electro-plating

c)

Oil coating

d)

Laminating

36.

What is the purpose of using galvanisation in finishing techniques?

a)

To add color

b)

To prevent degradation

c)

To smooth the surface

d)

To join materials

37.

Which of the following is a digital technology used for creating and modifying designs and creating simulations?

a)

Computer-aided design (CAD)

b)

Computer-aided manufacture (CAM)

c)

Rapid prototyping

d)

CNC milling machine

38.

What does CAM stand for in digital technologies?

a)

Computer-aided design

b)

Computer-aided manufacture

c)

Computer-aided modeling

d)

Computer-aided management

39.

Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the development of products?

a)

User needs, wants, and values

b)

Purpose

c)

Functionality

d)

Cost

40.

What is the principle of "form over function" related to?

a)

Aesthetics

b)

Ergonomics

c)

Anthropometrics

d)

Innovation

41.

Who is associated with the Arts and Crafts movement in design theory?

a)

William Morris

b)

Charles Rennie Mackintosh

c)

Marianne Brandt

d)

Eileen Gray

42.

Which design movement is Philippe Starck associated with?

a)

Art Deco

b)

Post Modernism

c)

Streamlining

d)

Memphis

43.

What does anthropometrics study in relation to design?

a)

Aesthetic appeal

b)

Human measurements

c)

Environmental impact

d)

Material properties

44.

Which of the following is an impact of mass production on society?

a)

Increased manual craftsmanship

b)

Built-in obsolescence

c)

Decreased consumerism

d)

Reduced employment

45.

What is a characteristic of the 'new' industrial age of high-technology production?

a)

Decreased use of smart materials

b)

Increased manual labor

c)

Miniaturisation of products and components

d)

Reduced use of computers

46.

Which of the following is a feature of the global marketplace in the context of technological developments?

a)

Local production only

b)

Manufacturing 'offshore' in developing countries

c)

Decreased multinational company presence

d)

Reduced global production

47.

What is an important aspect of adopting safe working practices?

a)

Ignoring potential hazards

b)

Understanding safe working practices for yourself and others

c)

Using machinery without training

d)

Avoiding risk assessments

48.

What is a key component of risk assessments in safe working practices?

a)

Ignoring potential hazards

b)

Identification of potential hazards

c)

Avoiding documentation

d)

Reducing control measures

49.

Which of the following is a characteristic of one-off production?

a)

Producing a single, unique product

b)

Producing products in large volumes

c)

Producing products in batches

d)

Producing standardized parts

50.

What is the main focus of quality control in manufacturing?

a)

Monitoring and achieving high standards and degree of tolerance by inspection and testing

b)

Monitoring the quality of a product from its design to its end-use performance

c)

Applying quality assurance procedures and impacting employees at every stage

d)

Automating storage and retrieval systems

51.

Which quality monitoring system involves monitoring the quality of a product from its design and development stage through its manufacture to its end-use performance?

a)

Quality control

b)

Quality assurance

c)

Total Quality Management (TQM)

d)

Lean manufacturing

52.

What does Total Quality Management (TQM) focus on in the production process?

a)

Automating production and assembly lines

b)

Applying quality assurance procedures and impacting employees at every stage

c)

Using just-in-time (JIT) systems

d)

Standardizing parts and components

53.

Which manufacturing method involves robots on fully-automated production and assembly lines?

a)

Production scheduling

b)

Robotics in production

c)

Lean manufacturing

d)

Concurrent manufacturing

54.

What is the purpose of flexible manufacturing systems (FMS)?

a)

Automating storage and retrieval systems

b)

Using just-in-time (JIT) systems

c)

Modular/cell production systems

d)

Quick response manufacturing (QRM)

55.

Which manufacturing method focuses on using just-in-time (JIT) systems?

a)

Lean manufacturing

b)

Data integration

c)

Concurrent manufacturing

d)

Production scheduling

56.

What is the main goal of quick response manufacturing (QRM)?

a)

Standardizing parts and components

b)

Reducing lead times in production

c)

Automating guided vehicles

d)

Applying quality assurance procedures

57.

Which of the following is NOT a consideration in material selection for cleaner design and technology?

a)

Source

b)

Quantity

c)

Biodegradability

d)

Color

58.

What is a key focus in the manufacturing process for cleaner design and technology?

a)

Maximizing energy use

b)

Simplification of processes

c)

Increasing the number of components

d)

Ignoring material form

59.

Which of the following is an aspect of distribution in cleaner design and technology?

a)

Efficient use of packaging

b)

Increasing transport costs

c)

Using more fossil fuels

d)

Ignoring packaging efficiency

60.

In the use phase of a product's life cycle, what is a key consideration for cleaner design and technology?

a)

Repair versus replacement

b)

Increasing energy consumption

c)

Ignoring efficiency ratings

d)

Disregarding energy efficiency

61.

What is a key aspect of repair and maintenance in cleaner design and technology?

a)

Standardisation

b)

Custom construction

c)

Ignoring modular construction

d)

Avoiding bought-in parts

62.

Which of the following is NOT a consideration at the end of life for cleaner design and technology?

a)

Design for disassembly

b)

Energy recovery

c)

Ignoring environmental implications

d)

Recovered material collection

63.

What is a wider issue of using cleaner technologies related to sustainability?

a)

Increasing cost implications

b)

Designing without jeopardising future needs

c)

Ignoring future potential

d)

Reducing consumer costs