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AirLaw Fully Debrief

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 19hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the purpose of Air traffic Control Services?

a)

Prevent Collisions between AC

b)

Advisory airspace which provide separation between traffic in the airspace

c)

Expediting and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic

d)

Prevent Collisions between AC and obstructions on maneuvering area

2.

2.Air traffic control service is a service provided for the purpose of, except?

a)

Preventing collisions between aircraft

b)

Advisory airspace to ensure separation in so far as practical, between aircraft which are

operating on IFR flight plans

c)

Expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

d)

Preventing collision between aircraft and obstructions on the manoeuvring area

3.

What is the purpose of Air traffic Control Services, except?

a)

Prevent Collisions between AC

b)

Advisory airspace which provide separation between traffic in the airspace

c)

Expediting and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic

d)

Prevent Collisions between AC and obstructions on manoeuvring area

4.

What is the definition of Controlled flight?

a)

Any flight that is inside controlled airspace

b)

Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance

c)

Any flight that has an approved flight plan

d)

Any flight with approved flight plan in which the landing time at destination is within

limitation

5.

Controlled Aerodrome Airspace extends:

a)

Upwards from a specified limit above the surface of the earth

b)

From a specified altitude to an upper limit which is coincident with the upper

level of control zone

c)

From ground level to a specified upper limit

d)

Vertical distance from the elevation of the aerodrome to the lowest part of any

cloud visible

6.

6.Manoeuvring area is that part of an aerodrome to be used

a)

taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons

b)

taxiing of aircraft, including aprons

c)

the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons

d)

the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, including aprons

7.

A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment)

intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft

a)

Manoeuvring area

b)

Movement area

c)

Aerodrome

d)

Clearway

8.

For the changes of flight plan from VFR to IFR, it is to be done to the ATC?

a)

As soon as practicable

b)

As soon as possible

c)

30 minutes before the change

d)

10 minutes before the change

9.

What is the term Pilot-in-command mean?

a)

The pilot designated by the operator or in the case of general aviation, the owner as

being in command and charged with the safe conduct of a flight

b)

The pilot whom is properly licensed and type rated on a specific aircraft type to be in

command of a flight

c)

The pilot who holds a valid license and type rating given the authority by the State to

command a flight

d)

The pilot who holds a valid license and has been endorsed P1 on that aircraft type to

conduct a safe flight

10.

Definition of Stowaway

a)

No person shall expose himself for the purpose of being carried in an aircraft

without the consent of the operator or the pilot-in-command of the aircraft or of

any other person entitled to give consent to his being carried in the aircraft.

b)

No person shall expose himself for the purpose of being carried in an aircraft

with the consent of the operator or the pilot-in-command of the aircraft or of

any other person entitled to give consent to his being carried in the aircraft

c)

No person shall secrete himself for the purpose of being carried in an aircraft

with the consent of the operator or the pilot-in-command of the aircraft or of

any other person entitled to give consent to his being carried in the aircraft

d)

No person shall secrete himself for the purpose of being carried in an aircraft

without the consent of the operator or the pilot-in-command of the aircraft or

of any other person entitled to give consent to his being carried in the aircraft

11.

The point at which an aircraft navigating on an ATS route segment is expected to

transfer its primary navigational reference from the facility behind the aircraft to the next

facility ahead of the aircraft is called

a)

Changeover point

b)

End of VHF control

c)

End of transmission

d)

Datalink communication

12.

Aircraft transfer its primary navigational reference from the facility behind the Aircraft

to the next facility ahead of the aircraft

a)

Changeover pointvisibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight

b)

Chargerpoint over

c)

Changeover pointAircraft is more than 300NM from aerodrome of departure

d)

Changeover point

13.

What is the definitions of 'flight visibility'

a)

The visibility reported by the Air Traffic Controller

b)

The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight

c)

The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point measured from

a specific datum

d)

The greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1 000 candelas can be seen and

identified against an unlit background

14.

Cross country flight means???????????????????

a)

Aircraft is more than 300KM from aerodrome of departure

b)

Aircraft is more than 100KM from aerodrome of departure

c)

Aircraft is more than 300NM from aerodrome of departure

d)

Aircraft is more than 100NM from aerodrome of departure

15.

Which statement is false?

a)

Take-off alternate An aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should this

become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of

departure

b)

Alternate aerodrome An aerodrome which the pilot in command sets as secondary to the

destination runway. It is not a requirement to take into consideration requirements such as

necessary services and facilities available at the alternate aerodrome during planning stage

c)

Destination alternate An aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it

become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing

d)

En-route alternate An aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event

that a diversion becomes necessary while en route

16.

An aircraft shall not be flown under simulated instrument flight conditions unless

a)

an extra person is sitting in the second seat

b)

a qualified pilot is sitting on the rear seat and observing the person who is flying

under simulated instrument conditions

c)

a qualified pilot occupies a control seat to act as safety pilot for the person who

is flying under simulated instrument conditions

d)

a fully functioning autopilot is installed in the aircraft

17.

Which of these statements is false about validity period?

a)

60 months for BPL

b)

24 months for SPL

c)

24 months for PPL

d)

12 months for MPL

18.

How long is English Language Proficiency Test valid?

a)

Level 4 for 4 years, Level 5 for 6 years, Level 6 for 10 years

b)

Level 3 for 4 years, Level 5 for 5 years, Level 6 for 9 years

c)

Level 6 as long as license is valid

d)

Level 4 for 4 years, Level 5 for 5 years, Level 6 for 6 years

19.

Estimated time of arrival for VFR flights is the time at which it is estimated that the

aircraft will:

What is the ETA for VFR flight?

a)

arrive at the Initial Point for approach

b)

touchdown

c)

enter the terminal control area

d)

arrive at the aerodrome

20.

When a revised estimated time shall be notified as soon as possible to the appropriate

air traffic services unit?

a)

When the time estimate for the next applicable reporting point, flight information

region boundary or destination aerodrome, whichever comes first, is found to be in error

in excess of 2 minutes from that notified to air traffic services

b)

When the time estimate for the next applicable reporting point, flight information region

boundary or destination aerodrome, whichever comes first, is found to be in error in excess

of 3 minutes from that notified to air traffic services

c)

When the time estimate for the next applicable reporting point, flight information region

boundary or destination aerodrome, whichever comes first, is found to be in error in excess

of 4 minutes from that notified to air traffic services

d)

When the time estimate for the next applicable reporting point, flight information region

boundary or destination aerodrome, whichever comes first, is found to be in error in excess

of 5 minutes from that notified to air traffic services

21.

When a revised estimated time shall be notified as soon as possible to the

appropriate air traffic services unit?

a)

When the time estimate for the next applicable reporting point, flight information

region boundary or destination aerodrome, whichever comes first, is found to be in error

in excess of 2 minutes from that notified to air traffic services

b)

When the time estimate for the next applicable reporting point, flight information region

boundary or destination aerodrome, whichever comes first, is found to be in error in excess

of 3 minutes from that notified to air traffic services

c)

When the time estimate for the next applicable reporting point, flight information region

boundary or destination aerodrome, whichever comes first, is found to be in error in excess

of 4 minutes from that notified to air traffic services

d)

When the time estimate for the next applicable reporting point, flight information region

boundary or destination aerodrome, whichever comes first, is found to be in error in excess

of 5 minutes from that notified to air traffic services

22.

22.Wherever time is utilized in the application of data link communications, it shall be

accurate to within:

a)

1 second of UTC

b)

4 second of UTC

c)

2 second of UTC

d)

5 second of UTC

23.

If the average TAS as cruising level between reporting points varies or is expected to

vary by +/- ___ of the TAS, from the given flight plan, the appropriate ATS units shall

be informed so.

a)

5 %

b)

10 %

c)

3 %

d)

1 %

24.

An aircraft shall not be flown over congested areas of settlements except

a)

Take-off and landing

b)

At height in which a landing can be made without undue hazard in the event of

emergency

c)

In Uncontrolled Airspace

d)

Permission from Authority

25.

Except when necessary for take-off or landing, a VFR flight shall not be flown:

a)

at a height less than 150 m above the water or ground

b)

at a height less than 250 m above the ground

c)

at a height less than 350 m above congested area

d)

at a height less than 250 m above an open air assembly of persons (ROTA pg 4-1, R4.6(a))

26.

Except when a clearance is obtained from an air traffic control unit, VFR flights shall not

take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone

or traffic pattern when:

a)

When the ceiling is less than 450 m /1 500 ft

b)

When the ground visibility is less than 6 km

c)

When the cloud base is less than 1000 ft AOL

d)

When the forward visibility is less than 6 km

27.

27.VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter

the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the cloud ceiling is less than:

a)

1500 m

b)

1000 ft

c)

5 KM

d)

450 m/1500ft

28.

Unless authorized by the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flights shall not be operated:

a)

Above 10,000 ft

b)

Above FL 200

c)

Above 13 000 ft

d)

Above FL 150

29.

IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are provided with ATC clearance that are

separated from each other is the definition of what airspace?

a)

Class C

b)

Class A

c)

Class B

d)

Class C+

30.

Both VFR and IFR flight and you're given ATC clearance with a separation, which airspace class are you in?

a)

Class A +

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class G

31.

Which of the following is FALSE in SVFR?

a)

SVFR may be authorized only when ground visibility is not less than 1500m

b)

SVFR flights take precedence over IFR flights

c)

SVFR clearance may be issued only when specifically requested by a pilot

d)

IFR flights take precedence over SVFR flights

d. SVFR flights take precedence over IFR flights

32.

When experiencing communication failure, an aircraft in instrument meteorological

conditions (IMC) or when the pilot of an IFR flight considers it inadvisable to complete the

flight and land at the nearest aerodrome in VMC, the aircraft shall, except:

a)

Complete a normal instrument approach procedure as specified for the designated

navigation aid or fix, and land, if possible, within 30 minutes after the estimated time of

arrival

b)

Commence a descent from navigation aid or fix and land at the destination aerodrome

as soon as possible to the ETA last transmitted and acknowledged.

c)

Proceed according to the current flight plan route to the appropriate designated

navigation aid or fix serving the destination aerodrome

d)

In airspace where radar is used in the provision of air traffic control, maintain the last

assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of 7 minutes

following the time the last assigned level or minimum flight altitude is reached

33.

When an aircraft which is flying in VMC experiencing communication failure, the aircraft

should :

a)

continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and contact the

appropriate air traffic services unit ASAP

b)

continue to fly in VMC, land as soon as practicable and contact the appropriate air traffic

services unit ASAP

c)

continue to fly in VMC, land at the destination aerodrome within 30 minutes after ETA

and contact the appropriate air traffic services unit ASAP

d)

Continue to fly in VMC, land at the destination aerodrome as closest as possible to ETA

and contact the appropriate air traffic services unit ASAP

34.

Which of the following wake turbulence separation categories is correct?

a)

HEAVY ʹ aircraft types more than 136 000 kg

b)

LIGHT ʹ aircraft types less than 7500 kg

c)

LIGHT ʹ aircraft types less than 7000 kg

d)

MEDIUM ʹ aircraft types less than 136 000 kg but more than 7000 kg

35.

Which of the following wake turbulence separation categories is incorrect?

a)

LIGHT ʹ aircraft types less than 7500 kg

b)

HEAVY ʹ aircraft types more than 136 000 kg

c)

LIGHT ʹ aircraft types less than 7000 kg

d)

MEDIUM ʹ aircraft types less than 136 000 kg but more than 7000 kg

36.

A clearance to enter or cross a CTR will not include..

a)

The QNH to be changed to

b)

The altitude of flight level

c)

A clearance limit

d)

Route to be flown

37.

LONG FINAL is reported when __________ from the approach end of the runway.

a)

15 NM

b)

10 NM

c)

8 NM/More than 4NM

d)

5 NM

38.

A flight plan shall be submitted except

a)

Any flight to be provided with advisory airspace

b)

Any IFR flight within advisory airspace

c)

Any flight across international borders

d)

Any flight within designated area when required by ATS

39.

A flight plan shall be submitted prior to operating all of these except..

a)

Any flight portion thereof to be provided with air traffic control services

b)

Any IFR flight within controlled airspace

c)

Any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required

by the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and

search and rescue services

d)

Any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required

by the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or

with air traffic services units in adjacent States in order to avoid the possible need for

interception for the purpose of identification

40.

When do you need to file a flight plan, except?

a)

any flight across international borders

b)

any IFR flight within advisory airspace

c)

any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required

by the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or

with air traffic services units in adjacent States in order to avoid the possible need for

interception for the purpose of identification

d)

any flight or portion thereof to be provided with ATC service

41.

If there is a change in your flight plan, how long before the time of departure the

submission of revised flight plan has to be done?

a)

180 mins

b)

60 mins

c)

30 mins

d)

120 mins

42.

All changes to a flight plan submitted for an IFR flight or a VFR flight operated as a

controlled flight shall be reported _____________ to the appropriate air traffic services unit.

a)

as soon as possible

b)

within 30 minutes

c)

within an hour

d)

as soon as practicable

43.

For the changes of flight plan from VFR to IFR, it is to be done to the ATC?

a. As soon as practicable

a)

As soon as practicable

b)

As soon as possible

c)

30 minutes before the change

d)

10 minutes before the change

44.

For the changes of flight plan submitted for an IFR flight, or a VFR flight, it is to be done

to the ATC?

a)

As soon as possible

b)

As soon as practicable

c)

30 minutes before the change

d)

10 minutes before the change

45.

Repetitive Flight Plan may only be used for:

a)

IFR flights operated regularly on the same days of consecutive weeks only

b)

VFR and IFR flights operated regularly on the same days of consecutive only

c)

IFR flights operated regularly on the same days of consecutive weeks and on at least ten

occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days

d)

Flight Plan

46.

Repetitive Flight plan

a)

1 consecutive days

b)

10 consecutive days

c)

5 consecutive days

d)

10 Minute

47.

A __________ shall be submitted, before departure, to an air traffic services reporting

office or, during flight, transmitted to the appropriate air traffic services unit or air-ground

control radio station, unless arrangements have been made for submission of repetitive

flight plans.

a)

Map

b)

Airway Chart

c)

License

d)

Flight Plan

48.

What are the details below to be insert in a flight plan?

i. Aircraft Identification

ii. Equipment

iii. Wake Turbulence Category

iv. Flight Rules

v. Meal Plan

vi. Diet plan

a)

I, ii, iv, v

b)

I, iii, iv, v

c)

I, ii, iii, iv

d)

All of the above

49.

What are the details to be insert in an Arrival Report?

i. Aircraft Identification

ii. Departure Aerodrome

iii. Arrival Aerodrome

iv. Time of Arrival

v. Engine Type

a)

I, ii, iv, v

b)

I, ii, iii, iv

c)

I, iii, iv, v

d)

All of the above

50.

These are the procedures to be obeyed by an aircraft operating in and in the vicinity

of an aerodrome except:

a)

Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision

b)

make all turns to the right, when approaching for a landing and after taking off, unless

otherwise instructed

c)

conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft in operation

d)

land and take off into the wind unless safety, the runway configuration, or air traffic

considerations determine that a different direction is preferable

51.

An aircraft operated on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome shall, whether or not within an

aerodrome traffic zone, except:

a)

Conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by the other aircraft in

operation

b)

Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision

c)

Make all turns to the right, when approaching for a landing and after taking off

d)

Land and take off into the wind unless safety, the runway configuration, or air

traffic considerations determine that a different direction is preferable

52.

An aircraft operated on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome shall, whether or not within an

aerodrome traffic zone, except:

a)

Conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by the other aircraft in

operation

b)

Make all turns to the right, when approaching for a landing and after taking off

c)

Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision

d)

Land and take off into the wind unless safety, the runway configuration, or air

traffic considerations determine that a different direction is preferable

53.

Where take-offs and landings are not confined to a runway, a flying machine when

landing:

a)

shall leave clear on its left

b)

shall leave clear on its right

c)

shall turn left

d)

shall perform a drift right

54.

In case of danger of collision between two aircraft taxiing on the movement area of

an aerodrome the following shall apply

a)

when two aircraft are approaching head on, or approximately so, each shall stop or

where practicable alter its course to the right so as to keep well clear

b)

when two aircraft are on a converging course, the one which has the other on its left shall

give way

c)

an aircraft which is being overtaken by another aircraft shall not have the right-of-way

and the overtaking aircraft shall keep well clear of the other aircraft

d)

switch on their landing lights and wait for a respond from the other aircraft to continue

55.

The right of way on the ground states that..

a)

Flying machines that are taking off or landing shall give way to vehicles towing aircraft

b)

Vehicles which are towing aircrafts shall give way to aircrafts

c)

Flying machines and vehicles shall give way to aircraft which are taking off or landing

d)

It is the responsibility of air traffic control at all times to ensure aircrafts do not collide

with other aircrafts and vehicle

56.

Which of the following statement is correct?

a)

Balloon and glider has no position in the right of way

b)

Flying machine shall give way to towing aircraft

c)

Smaller aircraft give way to larger aircraft

d)

Slower speed aircraft has to give way to faster aircraft

57.

In what cases does the aircraft at the lower altitude have the right of way to land,

except:

a)

Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall not give way to gliders

b)

When the commander of the aircraft is aware that another aircraft is making an

emergency landing

c)

When there is already an aircraft on final approach

d)

When a heavier aircraft is at a higher altitude

58.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

An aircraft approaching another aircraft on the ground shall alter its course to

the left

b)

A glider overtaking another glider in Malaysia may alter its course to the right

or to the left

c)

An aircraft overtaking another aircraft on the ground shall keep well clear of the

overtaken aircraft by alter its course to the left

d)

An aircraft overtaking another aircraft in the air shall keep out of the way of the

other aircraft by altering course to the left

59.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

An aircraft approaching another aircraft on the ground shall alter its course to

the left

b)

A glider overtaking another glider in Malaysia may alter its course to the right

or to the left

c)

An aircraft overtaking another aircraft on the ground shall keep well clear of the

overtaken aircraft by alter its course to the left

d)

An aircraft overtaking another aircraft in the air shall keep out of the way of the

other aircraft by altering course to the left

60.

What not to do when an aircraft is being unlawfully interfered?

a)

The pilot-in-command shall attempt to land as soon as practicable at the nearest suitable

aerodrome

b)

The pilot-in-command shall attempt to land as soon as practicable at a dedicated

aerodrome assigned by the appropriate authority unless considerations aboard the aircraft

dictate otherwise

c)

The aircraft shall endeavour to notify the appropriate ATS unit of this fact in order to

enable the ATS unit to give priority to the aircraft and to minimize conflict with other

aircraft

d)

The aircraft should squawk 7600 to notify the appropriate ATS unit of this fact in order

to enable the ATS unit to give priority to the aircraft and to minimize conflict with other

aircraft

61.

When an aircraft had been intercepted, the pilot shall perform the following actions,

except

a)

Attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft or with

the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the

emergency frequency 121.5 MHz

b)

Notify, if possible, the appropriate air traffic services unit

c)

Follow the instruction given by the intercepting aircraft, interpreting and

responding to the visual signals

d)

If equipped with SSR transponder, select Mode A, Code 7600

62.

When experiencing unlawful interference what is the code to be selected on the

transponder?

a)

7500

b)

7600

c)

7700

d)

9999

63.

Unless during takeoff or landing, VFR flight shall not operate below

a)

150m above water

b)

250m above congested area

c)

c. 250m above land

d)

350m above obstacles

64.

The process of Validation of Foreign Flight Crew License is rather complex and often

consumes a lot of Time. One of the most important requirements is:

a)

That the Applicant is to obtain Malaysian Citizenship

b)

That the Applicant must be beautiful or Handsome

c)

That the Applicant is to Validate into a License or Type Rating that is

equivalent to the License or Type Rating that the Applicant possesses in the

Issuing Country

d)

That the Application is concerning a License or Type Rating that is not

necessarily equivalent to the License or Type Rating that the Applicant

possesses in the Issuing Country

65.

Unless authorized by the authority, VFR flight are not permitted above

a)

FL250

b)

FL150

c)

FL200

d)

FL100

66.

Which of the following is not a Distress Signal?

a)

a radiotelephony distress signal consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY

b)

a distress message sent via data link which transmits the intent of the word

MAYDAY

c)

rockets or shells multiple throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals

d)

a parachute flare showing a red light

e)

a signal made by radiotelegraphy/other signaling method consisting of SOS morse code

67.

Visual signals used to warn an unauthorized aircraft flying in, or about to enter a

restricted, prohibited or danger area

a)

red and green light or star flare firing at interval of 10s

b)

red and white light or star flare firing at interval of 10s

c)

red and green light or star flare firing at interval of 20s

d)

red and white light or star flare firing at interval of 20s

68.

White flashes from aircraft in flight to a control tower means?

a)

I'm compelled to land (Preci AIP)

b)

Return to starting point on the aerodrome

c)

Immediate assistance needed

d)

May I Land?

69.

A pilot shall not be permitted to switch off or reduce the intensity of any flashing

lights unless

a)

It adversely affect the satisfactory performance of duties

b)

Battery not sufficient

c)

To save battery for emergency purpose

d)

?

70.

WHAT IS THE DEFINATION OF 'FLIGHT VISIBILITY'

a)

The visibility reported by the Air Traffic Controller

b)

The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight

c)

The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point measured from

a specific datum

d)

The greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1 000 candelas can be seen and

identified against an unlit background

71.

Which of the following is wrong?

a)

TORA - t/o runway available

b)

TODA- t/o distance available

c)

ASDA - accelerate stop distance available

d)

LDA - landing distance available

72.

Which of the following is FALSE.

a)

Total flying time permitted during 12 month is 900 Hours

b)

Total flying time permitted during 28 consecutive days is 100 Hours

c)

As given above in (a) and (b) shall not apply to a flight in aircraft of weight not exceeding

1600 kg and it was not flying for the purpose of public transport or aerial work.

d)

It is waived if the pilot is sick.

73.

Which is NOT ''Aerial Work'?

a)

Transport Cargo

b)

Public Transport

c)

Agriculture

d)

Constuction

74.

statement about semi circular?

a)

It applies to airspace above FL250 outside controlled airspace

b)

It applies to airspace above FL350 outside controlled airspace

c)

It applies to airspace above FL200 outside controlled airspace

d)

It applies to airspace above FL150 outside controlled airspace