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AP Biology Study Guide for the FINAL 2026

Total questions: 250

Worksheet time: 4hrs 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Matter

a)

has mass.

b)

All of the choices are correct.

c)

occupies space.

d)

is what life is composed of

e)

is composed of elements.

2.

Which of the following elements is Not one of the six most common in living organisms?

a)

carbon

b)

oxygen

c)

iron

d)

nitrogen

e)

hydrogen

3.

The characteristic way in which atoms of an element react is most related to the

a)

number of electrons in the outermost shell

b)

number of electrons in the innermost shell

c)

number of neutrons in the outermost shell

d)

number of neutrons in the nucleus

e)

size of the nucleus

4.

10. An orbital is best described as

a)

the electron shell closest to the nucleus.

b)

the outermost electron shell of an atom.

c)

the volume of space in which electrons are most often found.

d)

the original energy level of electrons in photosynthesis.

5.

An atom, such as calcium, which has two electrons in the outer shell, would most likely

a)

share to acquire a complete outer shell.

b)

lose these two electrons and become a negatively charged ion.

c)

lose these two electrons and become a positively charged ion.

d)

bind with carbon by way of hydrogen bonds.

e)

bind with another calcium to satisfy its energy needs.

6.

In which of these are the electrons shared unequally?

a)

double covalent bond

b)

triple covalent bond

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

polar covalent bond

e)

ionic and covalent bonds

7.
What makes a molecule polar?
a)
Equal sharing of valence electrons
b)
Unequal sharing of valence electrons
c)
Stealing of electrons
d)
Temporary charges that come and go
8.
Covalently bonded molecules are made of atoms that
a)
share electorns
b)
shoot their electrons out into space
c)
move their electrons to the nucleus of the atom
d)
give electrons to and accept electrons from each other
9.
Because water has a positively charged end and a negatively charged end, it can be described as
a)
amphipathic
b)
hydrophobic
c)
polar
d)
nonpolar
10.
Water molecules require a lot of energy to break the hydrogen bonds.  This gives water a high
a)
density
b)
polarity
c)
solvency
d)
specific heat
11.
Which of the following properties of water enables molecules to cling together as they move from the roots to the leaves of plants?
a)
Water expands as it freezes.
b)
Water is an excellent solvent.
c)
Water exhibits cohesive behavior.
d)
Water moderates temperature.
12.
Which of the following is not an element found in large abundance in organisms?
a)
Calcium
b)
Carbon
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Nitrogen
13.

Attractions between water molecules are called

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Polar bonds

d)

Hydrogen bonds

14.
Organic chemistry is a science based on the study of
a)
functional groups.
b)
vital forces interacting with matter.
c)
carbon compounds.
d)
inorganic compounds.
15.

The bond between NaCl is an example of what kind of Bond

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Both

d)

Neither

16.
What property of water allows it to be such a versatile solvent that it is often called the "universal solvent?"
a)
Purity
b)
Polarity and cohesion
c)
High heat capacity
d)
Expansion upon freezing
17.
Which of the following properties of water enables molecules to cling together as they move from the roots to the leaves of plants?
a)
Water expands as it freezes.
b)
Water is an excellent solvent.
c)
Water exhibits cohesive behavior.
d)
Water moderates temperature.
18.
Some insects can stand on the surface of calm water. Their feet push the surface of the water down slightly, but they do not break the surface. Why?
a)
The insects are light enough so they do not break the hydrogen bonds holding the water molecules together
b)
The insects actually use their wings to hover slightly above the water’s surface and they only skim it with their feet.
c)
The insect’s feet are non-polar, so they are repelled by the polar water molecules and are pushed away from the water’s surface.
d)
The insects are small enough to see the individual water molecules, so they are able to step carefully from one molecule to the next
19.
Why does ice float?
a)
As water freezes, it expands and its density decreases.
b)
As water freezes, it takes up more hydrogen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
c)
As water freezes, air becomes trapped between the hydrogen bonds of water molecules.
d)
As water freezes, it takes up more oxygen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
20.

Hydrophillic

a)

polar or ionic that loves water

b)

nonpolar that hates water

c)

nonpolar that loves water

d)

polar or ionic that hates water

21.

Hydrophobic

a)

nonpolar that hates water

b)

polar that loves water

c)

ionic that loves water

d)

ionic that hates water

22.

Cohesion

a)

property of water that explains why water is attracted to other polar molecules

b)

property of water that explains why water is attracted to other water molecules

c)

property of water that explains why water defies gravity and travels up surfaces such as paper

23.

Surface tension

a)

strong intermolecular force due to hydrogen bonds between the water molecules

b)

property of water that allows water to become attracted to other polar or ionic molecules

c)

property of water that allows water to become attracted to other water molecules

24.

True/False: Water is less dense as a solid

a)

True because the hydrogen bonds expand between the water molecules and form a crystal

b)

False because ice floats on water

c)

True because the covalent bonds expand between the water molecules and form a crystal

25.

Which kind of cell is prokaryotic, may or may not have a cell wall, and has no membrane bound organelles?

a)

Animal

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Plant

26.

Major component of the lipid bilayer cell membrane.

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Channel Proteins

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Glycolipid/glycoprotein complexes

27.

The hydrophilic head of the phospholipid ___ to interact with water and is said to be ____.

a)

Loves, polar

b)

Loves, nonpolar

c)

Hates, polar

d)

Hates, nonpolar

28.

The hydrophobic tails of the phospholipid ___ to interact with water and is said to be ____.

a)

Loves, polar

b)

Loves, nonpolar

c)

Hates, polar

d)

Hates, nonpolar

29.

Because the cell membrane is composed of many small parts that move together as a system, it is said to be _____ _____ (two words).

(a)  

30.

Select any substances that can simply diffuse through the cell membrane.

a)

Oxygen gas

b)

Sugar

c)

Charged ions

d)

Small

e)

Charged

31.

The diffusion of water through the cell membrane along its own concentration gradient is known as (a)   .

32.

Select all forms of cell transport that require ATP energy.

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Active Transport

33.

The use of a protein pump (ions like Na+, K+, H+, etc.) is an example of ___ because ___.

a)

exocytosis; ions are moved out of the cell

b)

active transport; ATP is required

c)

facilitated diffusion; a protein is needed for transport

d)

endocytosis; ions are moved into the cell

34.

Because cell membranes only allow certain substances to pass through them, they're said to be (a)   .

35.

This cell is experiencing which kind of situation?

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

36.

In this kind of situation, the *initial* concentration of water is greatest _____________ the cell.

a)

Inside of

b)

Outside of

37.

In this kind of situation, water will move _____ the cell, causing it to ___________.

a)

into, swell

b)

out of, swell

c)

into, shrink

d)

out of, shrink

38.

In this kind of situation, the solutes will move _____ the cell, causing it to ___________.

a)

into, swell

b)

out of, swell

c)

into, shrink

d)

out of, shrink

e)

TRICK QUESTION Mrs. J! You almost got me. I know the membrane is IMPERMEABLE to the solutes, so they stay put while the WATER moves!

39.

Because cell function is so heavily dependent on effectively transporting materials across the cell membrane, cell size is limited due to the need for a (a)   ratio of surface area to volume.

40.

The point of organelles such as the mitochondria, golgi, ER, etc. all having membranes is to ...

a)

Provide extra protection to those critical organelles

b)

Increase surface area for materials transport

c)

Prevent hazardous materials from escaping the organelles and damaging the rest of the cell

d)

All of the above

41.

Which organelle uses digestive enzymes to break down old cellular components and/or invading bacteria/virsus and recycles those components to other organelles for use in building new macromolecules?

a)

Gap junction

b)

Nucleus

c)

Golgi Body

d)

Lysosome

42.

This theory states that membrane bound organelles evolved from once free-living prokaryotes that were engulfed to compose the eukaryotic cells that we observe today.

(a)  

43.

Who is the (ATP producing, glycolysis/krebs cycle running) powerhouse of the cell?

(a)  

44.

Select all forms of passive transport below.

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Exocytosis

e)

Osmosis

45.

Facilitated diffusion occurs when what kind(s) of molecules require a channel or carrier protein to enter the cell membrane?

a)

small, non-polar

b)

large, non-polar

c)

small, polar

d)

large, polar

46.

Which substance would most easily pass through the cell membrane?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Glucose

c)

Sodium ions

d)

Water

47.

During osmosis, water always moves from an area of ____ solute concentration to ____ solute concentration.

a)

high, high

b)

high, low

c)

low, low

d)

low, high

48.

Enzymes ___________________ activation energy to speed up chemical reactions.

a)

increase

b)

decrease

49.

How does the active site of an enzyme determine the substrate for that enzyme?

a)

The active site has the right polarity to interact with the substrate.

b)

The active site is hydrophobic and interacts with other hydrophobic amino acids on the substrate

c)

The active site has a specific shape that fits the shape of the substrate

d)

The active site uses energy to form covalent bonds with the substrate

50.

How does a competitive inhibitor affect an enzymes function?

a)

It binds to an allosteric site that alters the shape of the enzyme

b)

It changes the polarity of the enzyme, decreasing the rate of reaction

c)

It denatures the enzyme which increases the activation energy for the reaction.

d)

It binds to the active site, preventing the enzyme from catalyzing the reaction

51.

Which of these factors can affect the initial rate of an enzyme reaction?

a)

Enzyme concentration

b)

Substrate concentration

c)

Temperature

d)

pH

e)

All of the above

52.

Based on this graph, which enzyme would function best in a basic environment?

a)

A

b)

B

53.

Why is the hydrolysis of ATP important to a cells function?

a)

It provides a source of phosphate for the cell.

b)

It releases energy that can be used to power cellular processes

c)

It absorbs excess hydrogen ions in the cell to regulate the internal pH

d)

It acts as a catalyst for chemical reactions in the cell.

54.

What is the best reason that plants do not perform photosynthesis at night?

a)

They close their stomata at night to rest

b)

They do not have an energy source to power the light reactions

c)

Only a few types of plants are nocturnal

d)

There is less carbon dioxide released into the air at night

55.

What are the net products of photosynthesis?

a)

6 CO2, 6 H2O, Energy

b)

6 O2 and 6 H2O

c)

C6H12O6 and 6 O2

d)

6 CO2 and C6H12O6

56.

What factors affect the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

CO2 concentration

b)

H2O available

c)

Temperature

d)

Light intensity

e)

All of the above

57.

How does a plant obtain the carbon necessary to form glucose?

a)

Through the light reactions

b)

From stored sugars in the roots of the plant

c)

From the catabolic breakdown of water

d)

Through CO2 absorbed from the atmosphere

58.

What are the products of the light reaction directly needed by the Calvin cycle in photosynthesis?

a)

H ions and carbon dioxide

b)

Photons absorbed by chlorophyll

c)

FADH2 and Oxygen

d)

ATP and NADPH

59.

Which phase of photosynthesis produces organic sugars?

a)

The light reactions

b)

The Calvin cycle

c)

The link reaction

d)

Electron transport chain

60.

What are the products of the Krebs Cycle?

a)

Pyruvate, water, ATP, NADH

b)

Acetyl CoA, NADH

c)

NADH, FADH2, carbon dioxide, ATP

d)

ATP, glucose

61.

What are the products of glycolysis?

a)

Pyruvate, ATP, water, NADH

b)

Carbon dioxide, FADH2, NADH, ATP

c)

32 ATP

d)

NADPH and ATP

62.

What are the products of the light reaction of photosynthesis?

a)

Oxygen, NADPH, ATP

b)

Glucose, NADP, ADP

c)

Carbon dioxide, water, ATP

d)

Oxygen, FADH2, ATP

63.

What is the function of NAD in cellular respiration?

a)

It catalyzes the conversion of glucose into ATP

b)

It provides inorganic phosphate needed by ATP synthase

c)

It acts as an electron and proton acceptor to carry energy to the electron transport chain

d)

It is the coenzyme needed to convert glucose into pyruvate

64.

What powers the ATP synthase enzymes in mitochondria and chloroplasts?

a)

The energy absorbed during the light reactions.

b)

The electronegativity of oxygen

c)

Energy released by breaking the chemical bonds in glucose

d)

The diffusion of hydrogen

65.

How are the ATP synthase enzymes in photosynthesis and cellular respiration similar?

a)

They both rely on chemiosmosis of hydrogens down a gradient to power phosphorylation

b)

They are both located in the cytoplasm of the cell

c)

They both use oxygen to create a concentration gradient

d)

They both receive hydrogen ions from FADH2

66.

When will lactic acid build up in animal cells?

a)

When there is excess carbon dioxide

b)

When the cells produce too much ATP

c)

When there is not enough oxygen to fuel the mitochondria

d)

When the cells need to remove excess oxygen to avoid damaging their components.

67.

An enzyme's shape determines its

a)

function

b)

substrate

c)

product

d)

activation energy

68.

An enzyme's active site

a)

is determined by the proteins primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure.

b)

is specific to a particular substrate

c)

may be blocked by a competitive inhibitor

d)

all of the above

69.

The light dependent reactions make the following products

a)

ATP and NADH

b)

ATP and NADPH

c)

ATP and FADH2

d)

all of the above

70.

During the Calvin Cycle

a)

ATP from the light dependent reactions is used to make glucose

b)

NADH from the light dependent reaction is used to make glucose

c)

1 ATP molecule is generated by one turn

d)

extra ATP is used to regenrate CO2

71.

Which process is the first step of all energy producing metabolic pathways?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Calvin Cycle

d)

ETC

72.

Which of the following is the correct order for aerobic cell respiration?

a)

Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, Pyruvate Oxidation and ETC

b)

Glycolysis, Pyruvate Oxidation, Krebs Cycle and ETC

c)

Pyruvate Oxidation, Krebs Cycle, ETC and Glycolysis

d)

ETC, Pyruvate Oxidation, Glycolysis, and Krebs Cycle

73.

Which stage of Aerobic Cell Respiration produces the most ATP?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Pyruvate Oxidation

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

ETC and oxidative phosphorilation

74.

Which is the final electron acceptor in aerobic cellular respiration?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

Rubisco

d)

Glucose

75.

An enzyme's shape determines its

a)

function

b)

substrate

c)

product

d)

activation energy

76.

An enzyme works by

a)

decreasing the activation energy

b)

Adding energy during induced fit

c)

Breaking or making new bonds during induced fit

d)

All of the above

77.

The light dependent reactions make the following products

a)

ATP and NADH

b)

ATP and NADPH

c)

ATP and FADH2

d)

all of the above

78.

The enzyme rubisco can

a)

use carbon dioxide to make glucose

b)

use oxygen to make glucose

c)

use both gases to make glucose

d)

none of the above

79.

During the Calvin Cycle

a)

ATP from the light dependent reactions is used to make glucose

b)

NADH from the light dependent reaction is used to make glucose

c)

1 ATP molecule is generated by one turn

d)

extra ATP is used to regenrate CO2

80.

What is the name of the signaling molecule in cell communication?

a)

ligand

b)

receptor

c)

operon

d)

inhibitor

81.

Choose the correct order of communication.

a)

reception, response, transduction

b)

transduction, reception, response

c)

response, transduction, reception

d)

reception, transduction, response

82.

All signals and receptors are the same in all cells.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

All cells have the same response to the same signal.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Identify the type of receiver seen here.

a)

G-protein coupled receptor

b)

gated ion channel

c)

RTKs

d)

cAMP

85.

Long distance signals involving hormones are ________ signals.

a)

paracrine

b)

synaptic

c)

endocrine

86.

Adrenaline is released from your adrenal glands to affect various systems in the body. This is an example of ____ signaling.

a)

synaptic

b)

endocrine

c)

paracrine

d)

autocrine

87.

Which are two widely used second messengers?

a)

cAMP

b)

RTK's

c)

Ca2+

d)

sodium

88.

Which kind of receptors are seen here?

a)

G-coupled protein receptor

b)

RTK's

c)

Gated ion channels

89.

Phosphorylation cascades are often used for

a)

reception

b)

responses

c)

amplification

d)

termination

90.

Programmed cell death is known as

a)

mutation

b)

termination

c)

cytokinesis

d)

apoptosis

91.

What type of signaling is shown here?

a)

autocrine

b)

synaptic

c)

endocrine

d)

paracrine

92.

What determines whether a signal molecule binds on the surface or enters the cell?

a)

size

b)

polarity

c)

ability to cross the membrane

d)

all of these

93.

Which of the following can activate a protein by transferring a phosphate group to it?

a)

cAMP

b)

G-protein

c)

protein kinases

d)

phosphatases

94.

Which two terms describe this image?

a)

long distance signal

b)

local signal

c)

synaptic

d)

paracrine

95.

What is the first step of apoptosis?

a)

the organelles fragment

b)

the cell is engulfed by a scavenger

c)

the DNA is destroyed

d)

The cell blebs

96.

Many cancer cells signal themselves to grow and divide. This is an example of ______ signaling.

a)

long distance

b)

autocrine

c)

paracrine

d)

hormone

97.

After a cellular response, how is it terminated?

a)

separate the ligand and receptor

b)

block the transduction pathway

c)

it will keep responding

d)

send out a different signal

98.

Communication between neighboring/touching cells is common in plants.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

We have discovered a vast majority of cell surface receptor proteins.

a)

True

b)

False

100.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
101.
DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
G0
102.

G1 is associated with what event?

a)

doubling of cell content

b)

DNA replication

c)

The beginning of mitosis

d)

breakdown of the nuclear membrane

103.
The phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate from each other
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
104.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a)
Mitosis-> G1->S->G2->cytokinesis
b)
S->G1-> G2-> mitosis-> cytokinesis
c)
cytokinesis->mitosis->G1->S->G2
d)
 G1->S->G2->mitosis->cytokinesis
105.
In which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids line up on the equator of the cell?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
106.
What phase does a cell stay in the longest?
a)
interphase
b)
cell division
c)
cytokinesis
d)
mitosis
107.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a)
It divides the cell in half.
b)
It duplicates the DNA.
c)
It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
d)
It helps separate the chromosomes.
108.

The amount of DNA in a cell is measured right after mitosis and found to be 8 picograms. How many picograms of DNA would be found in a nucleus in the G2 phase?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

24

109.

Why do cells such as neurons divide very rarely?

a)

They no longer have active nuclei

b)

They have entered G0

c)

they can no longer break down cyclins

d)

They no longer produce MPF

110.

What two components make an active MPF

a)

a growth factor and a mitotic factor

b)

ATP synthetase and a protease

c)

cyclin and tubulin

d)

cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase

111.

Which molecule triggers the cell to pass the G2 checkpoint and enter mitosis?

a)

PDGF

b)

MPF

c)

cyclin

d)

cdk

112.
When a plant cell goes through cell division,  _____________.
a)
the 2 new nuclei are separated by the cell membrane pinching off.
b)
4 new cells are formed
c)
a cell plate forms, dividing the 2 new nuclei
d)
None of the above
113.
sequence
a)
C,D, B, A, F, E
b)
D,A,F,C,E,B
c)
B,E,C,F,A,D
d)
C,B,D,A E,F
114.
Which of these phases does not have a checkpoint?
a)
G1/S
b)
S/G2
c)
G2/M
d)
Mitosis right before sister chromatids separate
115.
In which phase of mitosis does the nucleus disappear, centrioles move to the poles, and chromosomes condense into sister chromatids?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
116.
The process by which the nuclear material is divided equally between two new cells
a)
mitosis
b)
cancer
c)
spindle
d)
centromere
117.

What is the role of protein kinases?

a)

remove phosphate groups to deactivate enzymes

b)

trigger apoptosis

c)

add phosphate groups and energy to activate enzymes

d)

stop the cell cycle

118.

Which of these may be assessed by various proteins during a "checkpoint"? CHECK ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Ensure that all chromosomes have lined up in the center of the cell before sister chromatids separate

b)

Ensure that spindle fibers have attached to all centromeres before cell division

c)

Ensure that DNA has been replicated properly

119.
Which description is true about cell cycle regulation?
a)
Changing concentrations of Cdk result in binding to cyclin
b)
Changing concentrations of cyclin result in binding to Cdk
c)
MPF complex formation decreases with increased Cdk levels
d)
MPF complex formation decreases with increased cyclin levels
120.
The graph represents the amount of DNA in the nucleus of each cell during the cell cycle.
Which region represents the G2 phase?
a)
I
b)
II
c)
III
d)
IV
121.
How does the concentration of cyclin dependent kinases (Cdk) change as the cell proceeds through the cell cycle?
a)
Cdk concentration remains constant.
b)
Cdk concentration increases during interphase and decreases during mitosis.
c)
Cdk concentration decreases during interphase and increases during mitosis.
d)
Cdk concentration correlates directly with MPF concentration.
122.
How does the concentration of cyclin change as a cell goes through the cell cycle?
a)
Cyclin concentration remains constant.
b)
Cyclin concentration increases during interphase and decreases during mitosis.
c)
Cyclin concentration decreases during interphase and increases during mitosis.
d)
Cyclin concentration is inversely related to MPF concentrations.
123.
Once a cell completes mitosis, what happens to MPF? 
a)
It is completely degraded
b)
it is exported from the cell
c)
the cyclin component of MPF is degraded
d)
the Cdk component of MPF is degraded
124.

In a monohybrid cross of complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

125.

In a monohybrid cross of incomplete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

126.

In a dihybrid cross of complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

127.

In a population of 100 offspring, how many would you expect to be homozygous dominant in a cross between a homozygous dominant and a homozygous recessive parent?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

128.

In a population of 200 offspring, how many would you expect to be homozygous recessive in a cross between a heterozygous and a homozygous recessive parent?

a)

0

b)

50

c)

100

d)

150

e)

200

129.

In an incomplete dominance cross between a white flower and a red flower, what is the probability of a pink offspring?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

130.

In a complete dominance cross between a white, terminal (recessive) and red, axial (dominant) flower, what is the probability of a red, axial offspring?

a)

1/16

b)

3/16

c)

9/16

d)

16/16

131.

In a cross between an individual with type A blood and an individual with type B blood, what is the probability of an offspring with type O blood?

a)

0/4

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

3/4

e)

4/4

132.

In a cross between two roan cows (codominant), what is the probability of a white cow?

a)

0/4

b)

1/4

c)

2/4

d)

3/4

e)

4/4

133.

Identify which of the following descriptions about dominance are correct

a)

Incomplete dominance involves the homozygous dominant and heterozygous looking the same

b)

Incomplete dominance involves the heterozygous offspring resulting in an intermediate between the two dominant traits

c)

Codominance involves the heterozygous offspring resulting in an intermediate between the two dominant traits

d)

Codominance involves the homozygous dominant and heterozygous looking the same

134.

"True-breeding" individuals have a ____ gentoype.

a)

Homozygous

b)

Heterozygous

135.

According to the rules of Mendelian inheritance, a heterozygous individual will have the ____ phenotype.

a)

Dominant

b)

Intermediate

c)

Recessive

136.

Which law of Mendelian inheritance states that the two alleles of a genotype will separate into different haploid cells during meiosis?

a)

Law of Independent Assortment

b)

Rule of Dominance

c)

Law of Segregation

d)

Rule of Inheritance

137.

In pea plants, purple flowers are dominant and white flowers are recessive. Suppose two purple-flowered parents produce 100 offspring. 27 of those offspring have white flowers. What are the genotypes of the parents?

a)

PP x Pp

b)

Pp x Pp

c)

PP x PP

d)

PP x pp

138.

In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant over green seeds. A true-breeding yellow-seeded plant is crossed with a true-breeding green-seeded plant. What would be the expected phenotypes in the offspring?

a)

100% green seeds

b)

75% yellow seeds, 25% green seeds

c)

50% yellow seeds, 50% green seeds

d)

100% yellow seeds

139.

In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant over green seeds, and round seeds are dominant over wrinkled seeds. A pea plant with yellow, round seeds is crossed with a pea plant with green, round seeds. They have 1000 offspring. All of them have round seeds, and approximately 1/2 of them have yellow seeds. What are the most likely genotypes of the parents?

a)

YyRr x YyRr

b)

YyRR x yyRr

c)

YyRr x YYRr

d)

YyRr x yyRr

140.

In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant over green seeds, and round seeds are dominant over wrinkled seeds. A true-breeding plant with green, wrinkled seeds is crossed with a heterozygous plant with yellow, round seeds. What are the expected phenotype probabilities in their offspring?

a)

100% yellow, round offspring

b)

9/16 yellow round

3/16 yellow wrink.

3/16 green round

1/6 green wrink.

c)

25% of each phenotype combination

d)

50% yellow, round offspring & 50% green, wrinkled offspring

141.

In pea plants, tallness is dominant over shortness, and purple flowers are dominant over white flowers. A heterozygous tall plant with white flowers is crossed with a heterozygous tall plant that is true-bred for purple flowers. What is the probability that these plants would produce short offspring with white flowers?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

142.

In snails, shell color is determined by one gene. One version of this gene produce dark shells, and one produces light shells. Individuals that inherit one of each allele have striped shells. This represents an example of ____.

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple alleles

d)

Polygenic inheritance

143.

In a species of mouse, several genes contribute to the mouse's fur color. Dominant alleles for these genes usually contribute to darker fur; therefore, the more dominant alleles a mouse inherits, the darker its fur will be. This represents an example of ____.

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple alleles

d)

Polygenic inheritance

144.

In which type of inheritance does one gene have the ability to "override" the phenotype that is normally produced by the alleles of another gene?

a)

Pleiotropy

b)

Codominance

c)

Epistasis

d)

Polygenic inheritance

145.

A blue-flowered plant self-pollinated and produced 100 seeds. 25 of these seeds grew into plants with blue flowers, 50 grew into plants with purple flowers, and 25 grew into plants with pink flowers. What conclusion can be made from this data?

a)

The blue-flowered plant is homozygous dominant (BB).

b)

The pink-flowered offspring are heterozygous (Bb).

c)

The alleles for blue and pink petals are codominant.

d)

The blue allele is incompletely dominant over the pink allele.

146.

Eye color in a particular species of fly is determined by two alleles -- a dominant one produces red color, and the recessive one produces white eyes. A true-bred red-eyed female is crossed with a white-eyed male. The F1 generation all have red eyes. The F1 flies are allowed to interbreed, and they produce 100 offspring -- 50 red-eyed females, 25 red-eyed males, and 25 white-eyed males. What conclusion can be made?

a)

The genes are linked.

b)

The gene for eye color is located on the X chromosome.

c)

The gene for eye color is located on the Y chromosome.

d)

The gene for eye color is located on an autosome.

147.

In mitochondrial inheritance, what pattern is typically observed?

a)

Mothers will pass on mitochondrial mutations to all of her children.

b)

Fathers will pass on mitochondrial mutations to all of his children.

c)

Mothers will pass on mitochondrial mutations to her sons only.

d)

Fathers will pass on mitochondrial mutations to his daughters only.

148.

Which pattern of inheritance is most likely shown in this pedigree?

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

X-linked recessive

d)

X-linked dominant

149.

Which pattern of inheritance is most likely shown in this pedigree?

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

X-linked recessive

d)

X-linked dominant

150.

In a certain type of chicken, the allele for gray feathers is recessive to the allele for black feathers, and the allele for a spotted pattern is recessive to the allele for a solid pattern. Chickens that are heterozygous for both traits were crossed and the phenotypes for the offspring were recorded. Which of the following is the closest to the calculated chi-square value for the experiment?

a)

0.000

b)

0.088

c)

0.88

d)

1.88

151.

A scientist crossed flies that are heterozygous for two traits and performed a chi-square analysis of the offspring to determine if the data are consistent with the expectations for independent assortment. The chi-square calculated value for the experiment was 6.03. The critical value was 7.81. Based on the chi-square calculated value, which of the following statements is most accurate?

a)

The null hypothesis should be rejected.

b)

The null hypothesis should not be rejected.

152.

Select all that apply -- Genes that are unlinked can independently assort due to ...

a)

Being located very far apart on the same chromosome

b)

Being located very close together on the same chromosome

c)

Being located on different chromosomes

153.

In a species of plant, blue flowers are dominant over red flowers, and long pollen is dominant over round pollen. Two parents (one with blue flowers + long pollen, and one with red flowers + round pollen) are crossed. They produce offspring with the phenotypes listed below. Which phenotype(s) are considered "recombinant"?

a)

Offspring with blue flowers + long pollen

b)

Offspring with blue flowers + round pollen

c)

Offspring with red flowers + long pollen

d)

Offspring with red flowers + round pollen

154.

In fruit flies, red eyes (R) are dominant over purple eyes (r), and normal wings (N) are dominant over vestigial wings (n). A double heterozygote (RrNn) is crossed with a homozygous recessive tester (rrnn). The table shows the offspring they produced. Based on this data, these genes are most likely ____.

a)

Close together on the same chromosome

b)

Far apart on the same chromosome

c)

On separate chromosomes

155.

The recombination frequencies of four genes A, B, C, and D are shown. Based on this, what order do the genes have on a chromosome?

a)

CBDA

b)

ABCD

c)

DABC

d)

DCBA

156.

The recombination frequencies of four genes A, B, C, and D are shown. Based on this, which two genes are LEAST likely to experience recombination?

a)

A + B

b)

B + C

c)

C + A

d)

D + C

e)

A + D

157.

In fruit flies, red eyes (R) are dominant over purple eyes (r), and normal wings (N) are dominant over vestigial wings (n). A double heterozygote (RrNn) is crossed with a homozygous recessive tester (rrnn). The table shows the offspring they produced. Based on this data, what is the recombination frequency of these two genes? (Type your answer as a percent. Round to the nearest whole number.)

(a)  

158.

In humans, the gene for male-pattern baldness is located on the X chromosome. Inheriting male-pattern baldness is recessive, and it can also affect females. A female who does not have male-pattern baldness, but had a father with it, has children with a man without male-pattern baldness. What is the probability that they will produce children with this trait?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

159.

All the genes in both a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell are expressed at the same time.

a)

True

b)

False

160.

In order for a gene to be expressed, ___ must bind to the gene's ___, a specific sequence of nucleotides at one end of the gene, thus initiating transcription.

a)

DNA polymerase, promotor

b)

DNA polymerase, operator

c)

RNA polymerase, promotor

d)

RNA polymerase, operator

161.

An operon is

a)

a genetic on/off switch in prokaryotes

b)

a genetic on/off switch in eukaryotes

c)

a group of related genes and the associated gene switches in prokaryotes

d)

a group of related genes and the associated gene switches in eukaryotes

162.

Genes can be shut off (not expressed) when a ___ binds to the ____.

a)

activator, operator

b)

repressor, operator

c)

corepressor, operator

d)

repressor, promotor

163.

What is the inducer in the lac operon?

a)

cAMP

b)

glucose

c)

lactose

d)

CRP

164.

Negative control of gene expression is mediated by __ and results in a(n) __ in the frequency of transcription.

a)

activators, increase

b)

activators, decrease

c)

repressors, increase

d)

repressors, decrease

165.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the regulatory region for transcription are called ____________.
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
166.
What is the name given to part of a DNA molecule that codes for a protein?
a)
Glucose
b)
Chromosome
c)
Gene
d)
Phosphate
167.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
168.
What structure of this molecule binds with the mRNA molecule?
a)
Amino Acid
b)
tRNA
c)
Anticodon
d)
Codon
169.

In an operon, the sequence of DNA that serves as a binding site for a repressor, and thereby regulates the expression of structural genes.

a)

promoter

b)

inducer

c)

operator

d)

repressor

170.
What type of operon is the trp (tryptophan) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible
171.

In the top picture the operon is

a)

on

b)

off

172.

What is 1 (the YELLOW molecule) in the diagram?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

Inducer

c)

Repressor

d)

Operator

173.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
174.
An operon consists of all the the following EXCEPT
a)
operator
b)
promoter
c)
regulatory gene
d)
genes of the operon
175.

In eukaryotes, DNA is tightly coiled around ____ in chromatin

a)

Histones

b)

Whey

c)

Casein

d)

Hemoglobin

176.
Where does transcription occur in eukaryotic cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Rough E.R.
177.

Gene regulation is the process that is used to:

a)

help make sugars for cells in plants.

b)

make glycosomes in cells.

c)

turn genes on and off.

d)

Not sure, need help.

178.

Operons are found in the cells of which of the following types of organisms?

a)

prokaryotes

b)

eukaryotes

c)

animals only

d)

viruses

179.

Which of these is a condition that must be met for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

Extremely small population size

b)

No natural selection

c)

Gene flow

d)

Nonrandom mating

180.

If the frequency of dominant phenotype is 0.36, what is the frequency of the dominant allele?

a)

0.2

b)

0.48

c)

0.6

d)

0.8

181.

What does p stand for?

a)

Dominant allele

b)

Recessive allele

c)

Homozygous dominant

d)

Homozygous recessive

e)

Heterozygous

182.

Which of the following is the equation that you would use for Hardy-Weinberg?

a)

p + 2q = 1

b)

2p + 2q = 1

c)

2p + q = 1

d)

p + q = 1

183.

Which of the following is the equation that you use for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

p2 +2pq + q2 = 1

b)

p2 + q2 = 1

c)

p3 + q3 = 1

d)

p3 + 3pq + q3 = 1

184.

In generation 1, the recessive allele has a frequency of 0.6, and in generation 40 the recessive phenotype has a frequency of 0.36. Is the population in Hardy-Weinberg?

a)

No, the frequency changed from one generation to another

b)

Yes, the frequency changed from one generation to another

c)

No, the frequency remained the same from one generation to another

d)

Yes, the frequency remained the same from one generation to another

185.

If there are 400 red flowers, 200 pink flowers, and 100 white flowers. Solve for the frequency of the dominant allele.

a)

0.76

b)

0.86

c)

0.57

d)

0.71

186.

If there are 400 red flowers, 200 pink flowers, and 100 white flowers. Solve for the frequency of the recessive allele.

a)

0.28

b)

0.14

c)

0.38

d)

0.42

187.

If a population is suffering from genetic drift, which of the Hardy-Weinberg conditions is not being met?

a)

No gene flow

b)

Random mating

c)

Extremely large population size

d)

No mutations

188.

If the frequency of recessive alleles is 0.2, what is the frequency of the homozygous recessive individuals?

a)

0.04

b)

0.16

c)

0.4

d)

0.8

189.

What factors would increase the frequency of a genotype in a population over time?

a)

Increased reproduction rates in a population

b)

Selective pressures that make the trait favorable

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Mutations in the population

190.

Why would the presence of a particular genotype or phenotype decrease in a population over time?

a)

Due to increased competition

b)

Reproductive isolation

c)

Changes in the environment that now make the trait less favorable

d)

Gene flow

191.

What are selection pressures?

a)

Conditions that prevent a population from evolving

b)

Organisms that shape and influence the ecosystem

c)

Random changes in allele frequencies in a population

d)

Any changes in biotic or abiotic factors that influence survivability

192.

What is artificial selection?

a)

When humans selectively breed organisms together to select for traits most desirable to us

b)

When a new species has formed

c)

When new organisms migrate into an area and introduce new genes

d)

When organisms are separated from other members of their population due to new geographic barriers

193.

What is the founder effect?

a)

When survivors of a natural disaster repopulate the environment

b)

When a small population breaks off of an existing population

c)

Changes in the genetic makeup of a population over time

d)

The migration of organisms between two similar populations

194.

How does genetic drift usually affect a population?

a)

Usually it increases the size of a population

b)

Usually it increases the selective pressures on a population

c)

Usually it decreases the genetic variation of the population

d)

Usually it introduces new genes into a population

195.

What are the two types of genetic drift commonly seen?

a)

Temporal isolation and hybrid sterility

b)

Disruptive selection and convergent evolution

c)

Founder effect and bottleneck effect

d)

Gene flow and artificial selection

196.

According to this cladogram, which animal has the closest common ancestor to a crocodile?

a)

Mammals

b)

Lizards and Snakes

c)

Turtles

d)

Birds

197.

Which animal is the out-group?

a)

Mammals

b)

Turtles

c)

Crocodiles

d)

Birds

198.

What is the bottleneck effect?

a)

When survivors of a natural disaster repopulate the area

b)

When selective pressures change and new traits become the most fit for an area.

c)

When members of one population migrate to another population

d)

When new organisms migrate to an area and start a new population

199.

In mice brown fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b). Scientists observed a population of 2000 mice, and found the frequency of the B allele to be 0.7. 10 years later the scientists revisited the population and found the frequency of the B allele to be 0.4.


In the original study, what percentage of the mice would have white fur?

a)

70%

b)

49%

c)

9%

d)

30%

200.

In mice brown fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b). Scientists observed a population of 2000 mice, and found the frequency of the B allele to be 0.7. 10 years later the scientists revisited the population and found the frequency of the B allele to be 0.4.


What could explain the decrease in the frequency of the B allele over the 10 years?

a)

Gene flow that introduced new organisms into the population

b)

New selective pressures that make white fur more favorable

c)

A drought that made the landscape brown and dusty

d)

A mutation that made the b allele dominant

201.

If a recessive disorder is found to affect 1 in 500 live births, what is the frequency of the recessive allele in the population?

a)

0.002

b)

0.9553

c)

0.9125

d)

0.0447

202.

If a recessive disorder is found to affect 1 in 500 live births, what is the frequency of the dominant allele?

a)

0.002

b)

0.9553

c)

0.0447

d)

0.9125

203.

If 36% of a population shows the recessive trait, what percentage of the population would be expected to be heterozygous?

a)

60%

b)

16%

c)

48%

d)

40%

204.

How are biomolecular homologies used to determine phylogeny?

a)

By comparing the similarities in DNA or amino acid sequences

b)

By comparing the behaviors and environments of organisms

c)

By comparing the morphological similarities in organisms

d)

By estimating and comparing the relative ages of the organisms

205.

What are homologous structures?

a)

Structures that are morphologically different but serve the same function

b)

Similar shared structures that may serve different functions

206.

What do homologous structures tell scientists about species who share them?

a)

That the organisms lived during the same time period

b)

That the organisms were exposed to the same selective pressures

c)

That they have undergone convergent evolution

d)

That the organisms share a common ancestor

207.

What is an ancestral trait in a cladogram?

a)

Traits that are new for a recent species

b)

A trait that is shared by more than one lineage

c)

A trait that has disappeared over time

d)

The trait that is present in only one organism

208.

What are the universal conserved processes that support the theory that all life originated from prokaryotic cells?

a)

Protein expression

b)

Glycolysis

c)

DNA replication

d)

All of the above

209.

Which species on this cladogram have four walking legs?

a)

Lancelet

b)

Leopards only

c)

All of the species have this trait

d)

Salamander, turtle, leopards

210.

What are prezygotic barriers to reproduction?

a)

Any barrier that reproductively isolates species

b)

Barriers that prevent the production of a fertilized egg

c)

When the offspring of two organisms are sterile

d)

Barriers that prevent a zygote from developing into a viable offspring

211.

Darwin’s finches on the Galapagos Islands were separated by what kind of reproductive barrier?

a)

Temporal isolation

b)

Behavioral isolation

c)

Geographic isolation

d)

Gamete isolation

212.

What is the difference between allopatric and sympatric speciation?

a)

Sympatric - populations are geographically separated ; Allopatric - populations live together but are reproductively isolated

b)

Allopatric - populations are geographically separated ; Sympatric - populations live together but are reproductively isolated

213.

How can mass extinctions lead to adaptive radiation?

a)

By introducing new post-zygotic barriers

b)

By opening many niches for survivors to fill

c)

By rapidly increasing the reproduction rates to repopulate the Earth

d)

By introducing new selective pressures on populations

214.

What is the difference between punctuated equilibrium and gradualism?

a)

Gradualism believes evolution happens in rapid bursts as environments gradually change

b)

Punctuated equilibrium believes evolution happens in rapid bursts followed by long periods of stability

c)

Gradualism believes evolution occurs continuously and slowly

d)

Punctuated equilibrium believes evolution occurs slowly as environments recover from disasters

215.

What evidence supports the RNA world hypothesis?

a)

All components of RNA can be generated abiotically

b)

RNA can store and regulate the expression of genetic information

c)

RNA can self replicate and perform protein synthesis

d)

All of the above

216.

How can geographic isolation lead to speciation?

a)

These prevent species from reproducing due to different mating seasons

b)

By preventing the mixing of populations and exposing them to different selective pressures

c)

These make the offspring of two species sterile and/or inviable

d)

By changing the courtship rituals of organisms so that they no longer match

217.

What does background extinction rate mean?

a)

The total number of extinctions that have occurred in Earth's history

b)

How many organisms are going extinct without us knowing

c)

The average number of extinctions observed in the fossil record during periods of stability

d)

How many extinctions are currently happening

218.

How is background extinction rate used to determine if a mass extinction is happening?

a)

Comparing the background rate to the current rate

b)

The background extinction rate is the level of extinctions that occurs during a mass extinction

c)

Dividing background rate by historical rate

d)

Comparing the background rate to the rate of extinctions during the most recent mass extinction

219.
A group of interbreeding individuals occupying the same area is best called
a)
community
b)
population
c)
ecosystem
d)
symbiotic relationship
220.
A herd of zebras would be considered a
a)
community
b)
species
c)
ecosystem
d)
population
221.
Which of the following encompases all the others?
a)
ecosystem
b)
community
c)
population
d)
individual
222.
A group of interbreeding individuals occupying the same area is best called
a)
community
b)
population
c)
ecosystem
d)
symbiotic relationship
223.

The big 3 resources for populations are

a)

food

b)

water

c)

oxygen

d)

shelter/space

224.

Which of the following affect population growth

a)

resoureces

b)

climate/weather

c)

primary productivity

d)

predators

e)

everything listed

225.
J-Shaped curves
a)
show a decline after an increase
b)
display populations that have reached carrying capacity
c)
represent exponential growth
d)
does not depend on the numbe rof resources
226.

Exponential growth of a population is represented by dN/dt=

a)

rN(K + N)

b)

rN(N--KK)

c)

rN(KK-N)

d)

rmaxN

227.
Refer to a population of 500 that experiences 55 births and 5 deaths during a one year period.
If the population maintains the current growth pattern, a plot of its growth would resemble which of the following?
a)
exponential growth
b)
fluctuating growth
c)
K-selected growth
d)
logistic growth
228.
Which letter shows the the exponential growth of a population?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
229.
The maximum population size for a species based on the environmental factors is called
a)
ecological footprint
b)
carrying capacity 
c)
population growth
d)
environmental capacity
230.

Use the graph above to identify a mature, well-established population in favorable conditions.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

231.

Use the graph above to identify the carrying capacity of the environment.

a)

B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

232.

Use the graph above to identify a population in unfavorable conditions.

a)

B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

233.

Use the graph above to identify the exponential growth phase of a new population.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

E

234.
__________ growth shows growth of a population under environmental constraints (carrying capacity-K) that sets a maximum population size 
a)
logistic
b)
exponential
c)
niche
d)
uniform
235.

What is the carrying capacity of the following population?

a)

1000

b)

8000

c)

800

d)

600

236.

What is the rate of change for the population grown without a parasite from day 200 to day 400?

a)

200 days

b)

a loss of approximately 15 beetles/200 days

c)

a loss of approximately 30 beetles/200 days

d)

30 beetles

237.

As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation?

a)

The population will increase exponentially

b)

The growth rate will approach 0.

c)

The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.

d)

The growth rate will not change.

238.

Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another. As moose populations increase, for example, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation for the wolf population

which of the factors accounts for the effect of the moose population?

a)

dt

b)

N

c)

r

d)

K

239.
Which kind of dispersion is #1?
a)
clumped
b)
random
c)
uniform
240.

Dispersal pattern 1 is one of the most common in nature because...

a)

there is power in numbers

b)

its easier for organisms to fight diseases with this pattern

c)

its easier to obtain resources

d)

there is less competition

241.
Which of the following is an example of a density-independent limiting factor?
a)
A parasite
b)
A natural disaster
c)
A decrease in prey
d)
A food shortage
242.
All of the following are density-dependent factors that limit animal populations EXCEPT.
a)
weather
b)
predation
c)
food competition
d)
birthrate
243.

What are 2 ways animals may deal with a decrease in energy availability?

a)

fat storage

b)

loose leaves

c)

migration

d)

mimicry

244.

What is one way plants deal with a decrease of energy?

a)

fat storage

b)

loose leaves

c)

store excess water

d)

stare proteins

245.

What property of water allows it to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules?

a)

High heat capacity

b)

Polarity

c)

Low density as a solid

d)

Nonpolarity

246.

Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis in plant cells?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Lysosome

d)

Ribosome

247.

What is the main function of the Golgi Body in a cell?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Energy production

c)

Cell division

d)

Processing and packaging of proteins

248.

What property of water allows it to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules?

a)

High heat capacity

b)

Polarity

c)

Low density

d)

Nonpolarity

249.

Which type of molecule is most likely to diffuse through a cell membrane without the need for a channel or carrier protein?

a)

Large, polar

b)

Small, non-polar

c)

Large, non-polar

d)

Small, polar

250.

What is the primary function of the Golgi apparatus in a cell?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Energy production

c)

Cell division

d)

Processing and packaging of proteins

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Zoology Exam Part 2

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Zoology Exam Part 2

quiz

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•

9th - 12th Grade