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FL CCP Final Exam Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

To get the most out of class time:

a)

Read the material prior to class.

b)

Ask questions to clarify and expand on what you have learned.

c)

Both of these are good ways to actively participate in class.

d)

Neither of these is a good way to actively participate in class.

2.

What recommendation would you make to a friend who is coming up with a study plan?

a)

Study all day every Sunday

b)

Study at night because students are most productive at this time

c)

Study a little every day

d)

Study for an hour before each class

3.

What Microsoft application provides direct communication with anyone at Jtech?

a)

MS SharePoint

b)

MS Excel

c)

MS Teams

d)

MS Word

4.

Participation points may be deducted for which of the following reasons? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

Disruption

b)

Insubordination

c)

Lack of professionalism

d)

Phone usage

e)

All of the above

5.

How much time do recruiters typically spend initially reviewing a resume?

a)

1-2 minutes

b)

15-20 seconds

c)

30-45 seconds

d)

6-10 seconds

6.

Assignments will be submitted using which method?

a)

Directly in-person to the instructor

b)

Through email

c)

Via text message

d)

In the assignment in the course team

e)

Via Teams chat

7.

Who do you speak with regarding a schedule change request?

a)

Shante Turnwall, Dean of Students

b)

Brooke Nixon, Registrar

c)

Kyle Tripp, I.T. Support

d)

Aimee Hammond, Campus and Vice President

8.

What is the most professional way to contact your instructor?

a)

Using student school email address in Microsoft Teams (first.last@student.jtech.org)

b)

Using a personal email address

c)

Teams message

d)

Text message in Verity

9.

How will you access your course schedule and class grades?

a)

Teams

b)

Google

c)

Online, accessing your student portal (verity.jtech.org/student)

d)

Ask the registrar

10.

What are some note-taking methods? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

Outline method

b)

Cornell method

c)

Mind mapping

d)

Visual method

e)

All of the above

11.

What is the primary purpose of career planning?

a)

To secure a high-paying job

b)

To align personal interests and abilities with employment pathways

c)

To follow in the footsteps of family members

d)

To solely focus on short-term goals

12.

Which of the following is NOT a step in career planning?

a)

Clarify your values and interests

b)

Review your abilities, experiences, and education

c)

Stick rigidly to a predetermined career path

d)

Take advantage of professional and social networking

13.

What role do values play in career planning?

a)

They are irrelevant to career decisions.

b)

They serve as guides to direct actions and decisions.

c)

They restrict career choices.

d)

They are fixed and cannot be changed.

14.

Which of the following best describes interest inventories?

a)

Scaled surveys assessing personal relationships.

b)

Tools used to measure financial security.

c)

Assessments of career interests and activities.

d)

Tests solely focusing on academic achievements.

15.

What distinguishes a career goal from a career plan?

a)

A career goal involves personal values, while a career plan does not.

b)

A career plan is focused on the short-term, while a career goal is long-term.

c)

A career goal is a specific job or field of work, while a career plan is a strategic guide.

d)

A career goal can only be achieved through professional networking.

16.

What is the significance of practicing self-reflection in understanding personality traits?

a)

It provides feedback from family and friends.

b)

It allows for the identification of unknown traits.

c)

It helps recognize biases.

d)

It provides internal responses to past events.

17.

Why is self-awareness important in personal development?

a)

To solely focus on exploiting weaknesses

b)

To hide personal biases

c)

To understand the impact of one’s actions on others

d)

To avoid expressing traits and values to others

18.

What is learning agility associated with?

a)

Physical fitness

b)

Financial management

c)

Adaptability to new situations

d)

Technical skills

19.

How does self-awareness contribute to understanding relationships with others?

a)

By ignoring personal values and beliefs

b)

By recognizing only the known aspects of oneself

c)

By understanding how others perceive you

d)

By solely focusing on what motivates one’s behavior

20.

What distinguishes the “BLIND self” from other parts of self-awareness?

a)

It involves things you know about yourself, but others don’t.

b)

It encompasses internal responses to past events.

c)

It involves things you don’t know about yourself, but others do.

d)

It focuses on understanding what motivates your behavior.

21.

Which of the following is NOT a lifestyle trade-off related to work-life balance?

a)

Urban/suburban/rural setting

b)

Close/far from work

c)

Preferred work hours

d)

Warm/cold climate

22.

Employability skills are:

a)

Specialized skills applicable to a specific job only.

b)

Skills that cannot be transferred to other job positions.

c)

A set of transferrable skills such as communication or critical thinking skills.

d)

Skills unrelated to job performance.

23.

What do aptitudes refer to?

a)

Personal preferences in lifestyle choices.

b)

Natural abilities and talents that people possess.

c)

Learned skills acquired through education.

24.

Which of the following is NOT recommended?

a)

Simply sit back and listen. Don’t take notes so you can take in all of the information without distractions.

b)

Ask relevant questions about the lecture material.

c)

Maintain eye contact with the instructor.

d)

Silence your phone so you can focus on the course content.

25.

Which of the following is NOT an example of experiences that contribute to personal development?

a)

Jobs

b)

Participation in community and religious groups

c)

Reading books

d)

Internships

26.

Which factor is NOT mentioned as a reason why balance between work and personal life is important?

a)

It ensures physical health and well-being.

b)

It leads to burnout.

c)

It increases productivity.

d)

It decreases overall life satisfaction.

27.

Which part of self-awareness involves understanding your core personality traits and personal values? 

a)

Your OPEN self

b)

Your BLIND self

c)

Your HIDDEN self

d)

Your UNKNOWN self

28.

How can individuals prioritize their goals effectively?

a)

By focusing solely on long-term goals

b)

By disregarding the importance of short-term goals

c)

By distinguishing between short-term, medium-term, and long-term goals

d)

By avoiding setting deadlines for goals

29.

What does the SMART acronym stand for in goal setting?

a)

Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound

b)

Structured, Managed, Analyzed, Reviewed, Tracked

c)

Strategic, Motivational, Aspirational, Resilient, Timely

d)

Significant, Meaningful, Aligned, Reflective, Transformative

30.

How do successful people reach their goals according to the provided information?

a)

By setting vague goals with no deadlines

b)

By keeping their goals secret from others

c)

By identifying who can help, sharing goals, and being persistent

d)

By avoiding adjustments to goal deadlines

31.

What is a resume primarily used for?

a)

To showcase your hobbies and interests

b)

To provide proof of your educational background

c)

To convince an employer to bring you in for an interview

d)

To list your personal preferences and lifestyle choices

32.

Which section is NOT typically included in a resume?

a)

Summary

b)

Skills

c)

Hobbies

d)

Experience

33.

What is the purpose of a cover letter?

a)

To provide a summary of your work experiences

b)

To introduce yourself and explain why you’re a great fit for the job

c)

To list your contact information and education

d)

To request an interview with the employer

34.

What should you avoid when designing your resume?

a)

Using consistent font styles and sizes

b)

Including graphics, logos, and photos

c)

Left-aligning paragraphs

d)

Using headers and footers for organization

35.

Which of the following is NOT a part of a cover letter?

a)

Your contact information

b)

Relevant reasons for applying to the job

c)

A summary of your education

d)

A professional closing

36.

Human capital refers to:

a)

Physical assets owned by individuals

b)

The skill set, knowledge, and other intangible assets of individuals

c)

Financial investments in stocks and bonds

d)

Real estate properties owned by individuals

37.

What is financial literacy?

a)

Our knowledge of facts, concepts, principles, and tools of money management

b)

The ability to handle day-to-day financial matters.

c)

The degree to which we can meet current financial obligations.

d)

The ability to make informed and confident personal money decisions.

38.

What is the purpose of financial planning?

a)

To evaluate our financial health relative to our education and career choice

b)

To develop a plan of action to achieve our financial goals

c)

To define our financial goals

d)

To monitor and control progress toward financial goals

39.

How many steps are there in the financial planning process?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

10

40.

What is the difference between financial literacy and financial capability?

a)

Financial literacy is our knowledge of money management, while financial capability is our ability to handle day-to-day financial matters.

b)

Financial literacy involves making informed money decisions, while financial capability is the degree to which we can meet financial obligations.

c)

Financial literacy is understanding money concepts, while financial capability is our ability to save and invest for the future.

d)

Financial literacy is being financially responsible, while financial capability is achieving financial well-being.

41.

Which of the following is NOT a protected characteristic under anti-discrimination laws in employment?

a)

Education level

b)

Race

c)

Disability

d)

Pregnancy

42.

What is the primary purpose of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)?

a)

Ensuring employee safety in the workplace

b)

Preventing discrimination based on age

c)

Establishing minimum wage and overtime pay standards

d)

Regulating employer-sponsored retirement plans

43.

How often must covered non-exempt employees receive overtime pay under the FLSA?

a)

Weekly

b)

Bi-weekly

c)

Monthly

d)

Annually

44.

Which of the following is NOT a right afforded to employees under OSHA?

a)

Requesting an OSHA inspection

b)

Refusing to work in hazardous conditions

c)

Filing a complaint with OSHA anonymously

d)

Requesting immediate termination of employment

45.

What does a flexible spending account (FSA) allow employees to do?

a)

Invest in the stock market

b)

Save for retirement

c)

Pay for health care and dependent care expenses with pre-tax dollars

d)

Receive employer-sponsored life insurance

46.

What is the primary advantage of employer-sponsored retirement plans?

a)

Higher interest rates

b)

Tax benefits for contributions

c)

Unlimited borrowing options

d)

Immediate payout upon employment termination

47.

Under the FLSA, which of the following is NOT considered as part of “hours worked”?

a)

Time spent on mandatory training sessions

b)

Time spent commuting to and from work

c)

Time spent on call and available for work

d)

Time spent on breaks and lunch periods

48.

What is the purpose of creating a personal budget?

a)

To increase debt

b)

To control spending and achieve financial goals

c)

To ignore income and expenses

d)

To overspend on variable expenses

49.

Which of the following is an example of a fixed expense?

a)

Rent

b)

Electricity bill

c)

Entertainment

d)

Credit card bills

50.

What does the 50/30/20 rule in budgeting suggest?

a)

Allocate 50% of income to savings, 30% to needs, and 20% to wants

b)

Spend 50% of income on wants, 30% on savings, and 20% on needs

c)

Allocate 50% of income to needs, 30% to wants, and 20% to savings

d)

Spend 50% of income on needs, 30% on wants, and 20% on savings

51.

What are the five steps in the financial planning process?

a)

Set goals, spend less, save more, invest wisely, review progress

b)

Evaluate financial health, define goals, develop a plan, implement, review

c)

Spend wisely, invest aggressively, save sporadically, review occasionally

d)

Earn more, spend freely, save occasionally, review rarely

52.

Which of the following is NOT a key to achieving financial success?

a)

Spending less than what is earned

b)

Building an emergency fund

c)

Accumulating debt for unnecessary purchases

d)

Saving and investing for the future

53.

What is the term for the degree to which one can fully meet current financial obligations and feel secure in their financial future?

a)

Financial literacy

b)

Financial capability

c)

Financial well-being

d)

Financial success

54.

What does net worth represent?

a)

Total earnings in a year

b)

Total debt accumulated

c)

Financial condition on a specific date

d)

Total expenses in a month

55.

Which of the following is NOT a type of asset?

a)

Cash equivalents

b)

Automobile loans

c)

Investment assets

d)

Tangible assets

56.

What is the S.T.A.R.R. technique in interviewing?

a)

A strategy for conducting group interviews

b)

A technique used to evaluate job candidates based on their past experiences

c)

A method used to answer behavioral interview questions

d)

A method used to assess technical skills in an interview

57.

What is the primary consequence of NOT paying debts?

a)

Decreased credit score

b)

Increased borrowing capacity

c)

Improved financial health

d)

Lower insurance rates

58.

How should debts be prioritized for repayment?

a)

By loan length

b)

By favorite creditor

c)

By alphabetical order

d)

By interest rate

59.

What strategy involves paying off the debt with the smallest amount owed first?

a)

Debt avalanche

b)

Debt consolidation

c)

Debt snowball

d)

Debt negotiation

60.

Which of the following is NOT a wealth-building principle?

a)

Paying credit card balances in full each month

b)

Spending more than earned

c)

Saving by paying oneself first

d)

Participating in a retirement plan at work

61.

What is the term for the value of the next best alternative that must be forgone?

a)

Opportunity cost

b)

Trade-off

c)

Net worth

d)

Standard of living

62.

When deriving logical conclusions, what is a “conclusion”?

a)

A conclusion is a statement or judgment that is reached after considering evidence or reasoning.

b)

A conclusion is a statement that is made without considering evidence or reasoning.

c)

A conclusion is a guess or assumption without any evidence or reasoning.

63.

When deriving logical conclusions, what is an “argument”?

a)

A statement that is not supported by evidence.

b)

A random collection of ideas.

c)

A disagreement between two people.

d)

A set of statements used to support or prove a claim.

64.

Which of the following is NOT a question you might ask when evaluating the strength of an argument?

a)

Are the reasons plausible based on all known evidence?

b)

Does the argument present a full picture of the issue?

c)

What is the main conclusion of the argument?

d)

Is the argument using clear, fair, and impartial language?

65.

What is the difference between a fact and an opinion?

a)

A fact is a statement that can be proven or verified to be true, while an opinion is a personal belief or judgment that cannot be proven or verified.

b)

A fact is a statement that is based on personal beliefs or judgments, while an opinion is a statement that can be proven or verified to be true.

c)

A fact is a statement that can be proven or verified to be false, while an opinion is a personal belief or judgment that cannot be proven or verified.

d)

A fact is a statement that is subjective and can vary from person to person, while an opinion is an objective statement that is universally accepted.

66.

Which of the following should NOT be used when providing reasoning for an argument? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

All of the above

b)

All or nothing

c)

Appeal to ignorance

d)

Personal attack

e)

Appeal to authority

67.

Which of the following is a skill necessary for effective problem-solving? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

Logical reasoning

b)

Creativity

c)

Memorization

d)

Critical thinking

68.

What is always the first step in problem-solving?

a)

Identify and understand the problem

b)

Make a decision

c)

Look for solutions

d)

Monitor and seek feedback

69.

This stage in problem-solving focuses on gaining more information about the problem, increasing understanding, fact-finding and analysis, and building a more comprehensive picture of the goals and barriers.

a)

Identifying the problem

b)

Looking for solutions

c)

Structuring the problem

d)

Implementation  

70.

You never need to review outcomes and any additional problems that occurred, just be glad it's over

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Using emotional intelligence, the ability to recognize the emotions of yourself and others, can help guide you to an appropriate solution.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

What is a job interview?

a)

An employer’s assessment of fit for a specific job; the employer decides if they want to keep going with the hiring process

b)

A mutual assessment of fit for a specific job; both the person applying for the job and the employer decide if they want to keep going with the hiring process

c)

A candidate’s assessment of fit for a specific job; the candidate decides if they want to keep going with the hiring process

73.

Which of the following is NOT a key factor evaluated during the interview process?

a)

Height and weight

b)

Professionalism

c)

Attitude

d)

Career goals

74.

What are some actions to help you prepare for a specific interview?

a)

Research the company, practice common interview questions, dress professionally, prepare questions to ask the interviewer

b)

Wear casual attire

c)

Arrive late to the interview

d)

Bring a friend to the interview

75.

The best way to show confidence in an interview is to...

a)

Maintain good eye contact, sit up straight, speak clearly and confidently, and be prepared to answer questions about your experience and qualifications

b)

Interrupt the interviewer, speak over them, and act arrogant and dismissive

c)

Fidget, look around the room, speak softly, and exaggerate your experience and qualifications

d)

Avoid eye contact, slouch, mumble, and be unprepared for questions

76.

A thank you letter or email should be sent within 24 hours of your interview.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

You should prepare 3-4 questions to ask the interviewer.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Appropriate dress for an interview is:

a)

Work coveralls

b)

Tank top and shorts

c)

Sweats and a hoodie

d)

Neat and professional looking

79.

A practiced 60-90 second introduction to who you are is called an:

a)

Sales Pitch

b)

Monologue

c)

Elevator Speech

d)

Improve

80.

What are three types of interview questions?

a)

Behavioral, open-ended, and hypothetical

b)

Structured, unstructured, and semi-structured

c)

Closed-ended, probing, and leading

d)

Multiple choice, Situational, and Technical

81.

What is the main benefit of setting SMART goals?

a)

To ensure goals are vague and flexible

b)

To provide a clear and structured path to achieve goals

c)

To focus solely on long-term objectives

d)

To avoid setting deadlines for goals

82.

Which of the following is a key component of effective time management?

a)

Procrastination

b)

Setting priorities

c)

Ignoring deadlines

d)

Multitasking without a plan

83.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of effective time management?

a)

Increased productivity

b)

Reduced stress

c)

More free time

d)

Guaranteed success in all tasks

84.

What is the primary purpose of a budget?

a)

To track daily activities

b)

To plan and control financial resources

c)

To list personal goals

d)

To organize household chores

85.

Which of the following is NOT a common method for managing stress?

a)

Regular exercise

b)

Maintaining a healthy diet

c)

Ignoring the stressors

d)

Practicing mindfulness

86.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of networking in career development?

a)

Access to job opportunities

b)

Increased industry knowledge

c)

Guaranteed job placement

d)

Professional growth and mentorship

87.

What is the main purpose of a professional portfolio?

a)

To showcase your skills and accomplishments

b)

To list your personal hobbies

c)

To provide a detailed family history

d)

To display your favorite quotes

88.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for effective time management?

a)

Setting clear priorities

b)

Procrastinating tasks

c)

Using a planner or calendar

d)

Breaking tasks into smaller steps

89.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a SMART goal?

a)

Specific

b)

Measurable

c)

Achievable

d)

Vague

90.

What are life skills crucial for?

a)

Everyday survival

b)

Only financial management

c)

Sports and extracurricular activities

d)

Learning new languages

91.

What role does higher education play in career development?

a)

It guarantees a job in your field of study

b)

It provides specialized knowledge and skills that can enhance your career prospects

c)

It is unnecessary for career success

d)

It limits your career options

92.

What is the significance of adapting to new skills in the workplace?

a)

It makes you less appealing to employers

b)

It is only necessary in technology-related fields

c)

It can help you remain valuable and versatile in a rapidly changing job market

d)

It is discouraged in most professions

93.

How can continuous skill development benefit your career in the long term?

a)

It can lead to job stagnation

b)

It makes changing careers more difficult

c)

It can open up opportunities for advancement and higher salaries

d)

It is unnecessary in most fields

94.

Why is skill development important for your career?

a)

It decreases your value in the job market

b)

It's not necessary if you have a degree

c)

It helps you stay competitive and relevant in your field

d)

It ensures you never have to learn anything new

95.

Professionalism in the workplace includes:

a)

Wearing casual clothes to feel more comfortable

b)

Using slang and colloquial language in all communications

c)

Maintaining a positive attitude and being respectful

d)

Frequently calling in sick for minor discomforts

96.

What is an effective way to handle criticism during a performance review?

a)

Ignore the feedback and continue working as before

b)

Take it personally and argue with the reviewer

c)

Reflect on the feedback and ask for suggestions to improve

d)

Complain to coworkers about the unfair review

97.

Which of the following is a key interview skill?

a)

Speaking quickly to share as much information as possible

b)

Listening carefully and responding thoughtfully to questions

c)

Avoiding eye contact to show respect

d)

Interrupting the interviewer to show enthusiasm

98.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of professionalism?

a)

Being punctual for meetings and appointments

b)

Taking responsibility for your mistakes

c)

Gossiping about colleagues during breaks

d)

Dressing appropriately for your role

99.

__________ are abilities / is ability in giving and receiving different kinds of information.

a)

Two ways communication

b)

Communication skills

c)

Presentation skills

d)

Observation skills

100.

Examples of communication skills are

a)

active listening, non verbal communication, giving feedback, written communication

b)

going live on instagram and maintaining followers

c)

talking on the phone, facetime, texting etc

d)

being able to have a conversation