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Rhythm Strip Interpretations Quiz WK 2 (115)

Total questions: 47

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the interpretation of rhythm strips require to measure?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Heart rate

c)

Duration and intervals

d)

Body temperature

2.

What is the purpose of EKG evaluation in rhythm strip interpretations?

a)

To measure blood sugar levels

b)

To gather data regarding different waveforms and their patterns

c)

To check body temperature

d)

To measure oxygen levels

3.

What is the first step in the five-step process to interpretation?

a)

Determine the Atrial & Ventricular Rate

b)

Identify P-Wave Morphology

c)

Determine Rhythm & Regularity

d)

Measure blood pressure

4.

What does the P-Wave reflect in the five-step process to interpretation?

a)

Ventricular depolarization

b)

Atrial depolarization

c)

Blood pressure

d)

Heart rate

5.

What tool is used to measure the distance between P-waves and between QRS Complex in the five-step process to interpretation?

a)

Ruler

b)

Calipers

c)

Stethoscope

d)

Thermometer

6.

What is the average stroke volume (SV) in a normal sinus rhythm (NSR) patient?

a)

50 mL

b)

70 mL

c)

90 mL

d)

110 mL

7.

In the absence of valvular disease, a patient in NSR with normal ejection fraction (EF) should have:

a)

Low SV and high CO

b)

High SV and low CO

c)

Normal SV and normal CO

d)

Low SV and low CO

8.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of sinus bradycardia?

a)

Rhythm

b)

Rate

c)

P-Wave

d)

Blood Pressure

9.

What is one of the potential effects of sinus bradycardia in athletes?

a)

Increased heart rate

b)

Decreased heart rate

c)

Increased blood pressure

d)

Decreased blood pressure

10.

What is the primary focus when measuring the QRS complex in sinus bradycardia?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Electrical activity of the ventricles

d)

Oxygen saturation

11.

What does the term "HR" stand for in medical terminology?

a)

Heart Rate

b)

High Risk

c)

Hemoglobin Ratio

d)

Health Record

12.

What does "PR Interval" refer to in an ECG reading?

a)

The time between the start of the P wave and the start of the QRS complex

b)

The duration of the QRS complex

c)

The interval between two consecutive R waves

d)

The length of the T wave

13.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Sinus Tachycardia?

a)

Heart rate above the patient's normal resting HR

b)

Heart rate below the patient's normal resting HR

c)

Irregular heart rhythm

d)

Absence of P waves

14.

What is the origin of Sinus Dysrhythmia?

a)

Sinus node

b)

Atrioventricular node

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Purkinje fibers

15.

What is a distinguishing feature of a condition that appears very similar to NSR?

a)

P-P & R-R intervals are regular

b)

P-P & R-R intervals are irregular

c)

HR progressively widens & narrows following breathing patterns

d)

HR remains within normal limits

16.

What is the action of the vagus nerve that relays information between the brain and heart called?

a)

Tension

b)

Relaxation

c)

Vagal tone

d)

Contraction

17.

What happens to the pressure inside the chest cavity when a patient inhales?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It remains the same

d)

It fluctuates

18.

What happens to the heart rate (HR) when a patient exhales?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It remains the same

d)

It fluctuates

19.

What occurs when the SA Node stops firing?

a)

Continuous electrical activity

b)

No electrical impulse is initiated or conducted through the normal conduction system

c)

Atrial and ventricular contraction

d)

Increased heart rate

20.

What is a brief period of pause in electrical activity called when the SA Node stops firing?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Asystole

d)

Arrhythmia

21.

What does it look like when the SA Node initiates an impulse that is blocked and not conducted to the atria?

a)

Sinus Tachycardia

b)

Sinus Bradycardia

c)

Sinus Arrest

d)

Atrial Flutter

22.

What is the main difference between Sinus Exit Block and Sinus Arrest in terms of the duration of pause?

a)

Sinus Exit Block is not correlated with the P-P or R-R interval, whereas Sinus Arrest is.

b)

Sinus Exit Block is correlated with the P-P or R-R interval, whereas Sinus Arrest is not.

c)

Both Sinus Exit Block and Sinus Arrest are correlated with the P-P or R-R interval.

d)

Neither Sinus Exit Block nor Sinus Arrest are correlated with the P-P or R-R interval.

23.

What happens during a Sinus Exit Block?

a)

SA node fails to fire.

b)

SA node fires but is blocked.

c)

There is a pause in electrical activity.

d)

There is no direct correlation with the P-P interval.

24.

What happens during a Sinus Arrest?

a)

SA node fails to fire.

b)

SA node fires but is blocked.

c)

There is no pause in electrical activity.

d)

There is a direct correlation with the P-P interval.

25.

What can cause Sinus Exit Blocks?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Medication toxicity

c)

Physical exercise

d)

High cholesterol

26.

What is an ectopic impulse in the context of atrial dysrhythmias?

a)

An impulse that originates from the SA node

b)

An impulse that interrupts the inherent rate

c)

An impulse that maintains the inherent rate

d)

An impulse that originates from the AV node

27.

If atrial ectopic beats are generating impulses faster than the SA Node, it will __________________ the SA Node.

a)

Inhibit

b)

Suppress

c)

Override

d)

Ignore

28.

What is the rhythm in which the pacemaker site shifts between the SA Node, other sites in the atria, and/or AV junction?

a)

Premature Atrial Complexes (PACs)

b)

Wandering Atrial Pacemaker

c)

Atrial Fibrillation

d)

Ventricular Tachycardia

29.

How many different P wave morphologies must be present in the same lead to diagnose a Wandering Atrial Pacemaker?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

30.

Atrial Flutter occurs when a rapid impulse originates in which part of the heart?

a)

Atrial tissue or reentry pathway

b)

Ventricular tissue

c)

Sinoatrial node

d)

Purkinje fibers

31.

What might Atrial Flutter lead to if not treated?

a)

More atrial dysrhythmias

b)

Lower heart rate

c)

Increased blood pressure

d)

Decreased oxygen levels

32.

What are Flutter Waves also called?

a)

P-Waves

b)

T-Waves

c)

F-Waves

d)

QRS-Waves

33.

What does each F Wave represent?

a)

Atrial contraction

b)

Ventricular contraction

c)

Atrial depolarization

d)

Ventricular depolarization

34.

What is the ratio of F waves to QRS complexes?

a)

1:1

b)

2:1

c)

3:1

d)

4:1

35.

What happens if the atria cannot contract completely?

a)

Increase in Cardiac Output

b)

Decrease in Cardiac Output

c)

No change in Cardiac Output

d)

Irregular Cardiac Output

36.

What is the initial goal in treating Atrial Fibrillation?

a)

Increase heart rate

b)

Stabilize patient by slowing ventricular rate

c)

Increase atrial contraction

d)

Decrease ventricular contraction

37.

What is the increased risk when blood begins to collect and pool in the atria during Atrial Fibrillation?

a)

Heart attack

b)

Stroke

c)

Thrombus formation

d)

Hypertension

38.

What is the ventricular rate threshold for Uncontrolled Atrial Fibrillation?

a)

> 60 bpm

b)

> 80 bpm

c)

> 100 bpm

d)

> 120 bpm

39.

What is the term for abnormal cells causing multiple electrical impulses in Atrial Fibrillation?

a)

Ectopic Foci

b)

Atrial Nodes

c)

Ventricular Nodes

d)

Cardiac Foci

40.

What does a prolonged PR interval on an EKG suggest?

a)

Ventricular tachycardia

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

First-degree heart block

d)

Premature ventricular contraction

41.

What does a "bundle branch block" look like on an EKG?

a)

A prolonged PR interval

b)

A shortened QT interval

c)

A wide QRS complex

d)

Multiple P waves before each QRS complex

42.

What is the clinical significance of a "peaked" T wave on an EKG?

a)

It is a normal variant in healthy individuals.

b)

It may indicate hyperkalemia.

c)

It signifies ventricular hypertrophy.

d)

It is indicative of acute myocardial infarction.

43.

Which condition is often associated with a "delta wave" on an EKG?

a)

Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome

b)

Long QT Syndrome

c)

Brugada Syndrome

d)

Ventricular fibrillation

44.

Which of the following best describes sinus bradycardia?

a)

A heart rate less than 60 bpm with a regular rhythm

b)

A heart rate more than 100 bpm with an irregular rhythm

c)

A heart rate less than 60 bpm with an irregular rhythm

d)

A heart rate more than 100 bpm with a regular rhythm

45.

What is the significance of an inverted T wave on an EKG?

a)

It is a normal variant in children and some adults.

b)

It may indicate myocardial ischemia.

c)

It signifies rapid heart rate.

d)

It is indicative of atrial fibrillation.

46.

What is the correct sequence of the cardiac conduction system?

a)

AV node → SA node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers

b)

SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers

c)

Purkinje fibers → SA node → AV node → Bundle of His

d)

Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → SA node → AV node

47.

What is the normal range for the PR interval on an EKG?

a)

0.12 to 0.20 seconds

b)

0.20 to 0.40 seconds

c)

0.05 to 0.10 seconds

d)

0.01 to 0.08 seconds