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Science 8 Final Quizzes

Total questions: 214

Worksheet time: 5hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
All living organisms are made up of ____.
a)
Cells
b)
Bacteria
c)
Organs
d)
Tissue
2.

A plant growing towards a light source is an example of which of the following?

a)

attracting a mate

b)

destroying infectious germs

c)

responding to a stimuli

d)

obtaining moisture from the air

3.

Infants will often smile when they hear a parent’s voice. In this situation, the parent’s voice is considered

a)

stimulus

b)

response

c)

adaptation

d)

resource

4.
The basic unit of life is called a (n)
a)
atom
b)
compound
c)
cell
d)
energy
5.
Which of the following characteristics of living things best explains why your legs and arms get longer and stronger as you get older? 
a)
living things respond to their environment
b)
living things maintain internal balance
c)
living things are made of cells
d)
living things grow and develop
6.

Which of the following is an example of homeostasis?

a)

adapting to your environment

b)

maintaining an appropriate respiration rate

c)

the sum of all of your chemical reactions

d)

being composed of more than one cell

7.

Which characteristic of living things is represented in the picture?

a)

Share similar chemicals

b)

Grows and develops

c)

Responds to stimuli

d)

Evolves (as a population)

8.
What is an organism that consists of one cell?
a)
unicellular
b)
multicellular
c)
nucleus
d)
organelle
9.
What is an organism that consists of more than one cell?
a)
unicellular
b)
multicellular
c)
nucleus
d)
Organelle
10.

Responding to change helps an organism to survive. Which are a response to change in an environment? There are two correct choices.

a)

A cell reproduces asexually.

b)

You get hot and sweat.

c)

A cell only grows in a certain environment.

d)

Hummingbirds migrate to the south for the winter.

11.
Which of the following characteristics of living things best explain a cat having a litter of kittens?
a)
living things respond to their environment
b)
living things maintain homeostasis
c)
living things reproduce
d)
living things are based on a genetic code
12.

Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have DNA.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Prokaryotic cells do not have…….

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

cell membrane

c)

DNA

d)

genetic material

14.
Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have a nucleus.
a)
True
b)
False
15.

Which type of cell?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

c)

Both

d)

Neither

16.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
17.

Plants and animal cells are examples of ___ cells

a)

prokaryotic cells

b)

eukaryotic cells

c)

both eukaryotic and prokaryotic

d)

neither

18.

Which organelle is responsible for storing a eukaryotic cells genetic material?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

19.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Prokaryotic cell?

a)

unicellular

b)

floating DNA

c)

very small

d)

complex

20.

What is the main function of ribosomes in cells?

a)

To control what enters and exits the cell

b)

To produce energy

c)

To contain DNA

d)

To make proteins

21.

What distinguishes a eukaryotic cell from a prokaryotic cell?

a)

Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles

b)

Eukaryotic cells are smaller

c)

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus

d)

Eukaryotic cells have no DNA

22.

What is the role of the cell membrane?

a)

To control what goes in and out of the cell

b)

To provide structural support

c)

To make proteins

d)

To produce energy

23.

Please label the cell pictured.

a)

nucleus

b)

cell membrane

c)

organelles

1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
24.

Match the following cells to their pictures.

a)
1.

Animal Cell

b)
2.

Plant Cell

c)
3.

Bacteria Cell

25.

Plant cells and animal cells are both ​ (a)   cells. ​ (b)   cells contain cell walls that offer them more support. They also have ​ (c)   that hold water & nutrients for the cells.

Choose from the below words
eukaryotic
Plant
vacuoles
lysosomes
Animal
prokaryotic
26.

DNA is located in the nucleus

a)

prokaryotes

b)

eukaryotes

27.

Do not have a nucleus

a)

prokaryotes

b)

eukaryotes

28.

Eukaryotic cells are

a)

the smallest of cells

b)

those without DNA inside of a nucleus

c)

more complex than prokaryotic cells

d)

found only making up multicellular organisms

29.

Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

a)

have a nucleus

b)

have DNA

c)

do not have DNA

d)

have DNA in the form of chromosomes

30.

Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have a

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

cell membrane and cytoplasm

31.
What type of instrument would you use to look at cells?
a)
Telescope
b)
Giroscope
c)
Microscope
d)
None of the above
32.

A disease causing organism

a)

Pathogen

b)

Poison

c)

Vaccine

d)

Prokaryote

33.
Are microorganisms helpful or harmful?
a)

Helpful

b)

Harmful

c)

Both

d)

Neither

34.

Where you would find microorganisms?

a)

in ponds, lakes, and oceans

b)

on food that is rotten

c)

everywhere

d)

in animals, plants, and humans

35.

Which of the following is necessary for photosynthesis?

a)

Sunlight

b)

Oxygen

c)

Glucose

d)

Soil

36.

Which of the following is a product of photosynthesis?

a)

Water

b)

Glucose

c)

Sunlight

d)

Carbon dioxide

37.

Which of the following is produced during cellular respiration?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Glucose

38.

Which of the following are needed for cellular respiration?

a)

Carbon dioxide and sunlight

b)

Oxygen and glucose

c)

Water and carbon dioxide

d)

ATP and Oxygen

39.

What organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cell wall

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Chloroplast

40.

The reactants of photosynthesis are:

a)

glucose and water

b)

carbon dioxide and water

c)

glucose and oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

41.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

carbon dioxide and water

b)

glucose and oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

d)

glucose and water

42.

Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Nitrogen

43.

Mitochondria are responsible for what?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Cellular respiration

c)

Fermentation

d)

Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration

44.

you breathe in oxygen for

a)

photosynthesis

b)

fermentation

c)

mitosis

d)

cellular respiration

45.

What are the inputs (reactants) of photosynthesis? (a)  

Choose from the below words
carbon dioxide, water, sunlight
oxygen and glucose
soil and nutrients
sugar and yeast
46.

Cellular Respiration's goal is to (a)  

Choose from the below words
make water
make ATP
make glucose
make oxygen
47.

Which of the following is the best description of the process photosynthesis?

a)

Water, oxygen, and light are inputs while carbon dioxide and glucose are outputs

b)

Water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and light are inputs and glucose is the output.

c)

Water, carbon dioxide, and light are inputs while oxygen and glucose are outputs.

d)

Glucose, oxygen, and light are inputs while carbon dioxide and water are outputs.

48.

Why are many plants green?

a)

plant cells are green

b)

plants absorb green light

c)

chlorophyll reflects green light

d)

rigid cell walls are green

49.

What is the role of the immune system?

a)

To pump blood throughout the body

b)

To protect the body from disease-causing agents

c)

To contain disease-causing organisms to a single area of the body

d)

To give Mr. Elwonger something to test us over

50.

What are the two groups of the immune system?

a)

Acquired and Innate

b)

Acquired and Learned

c)

External and internal

d)

Complex and simple

51.

The innate immune system is...

a)

Always working and doesn't require any special preparation

b)

Needs to be "primed" before it can work to its full effectiveness

c)

Very specific and only defends against a specific pathogen

d)

Not very effective at preventing intruders

52.

Which of these is an example of innate immunity? (TWO correct answers, pick both)

a)

Skin

b)

Antibodies

c)

T-Cells

d)

Mucus

53.

Which of these is an example of acquired immunity? (TWO correct answers, select both)

a)

Macrophages

b)

T-Cells

c)

Antibodies

d)

Antigens

54.

Which of the following regarding viruses and bacteria is not true?

a)

Viruses are non-living

b)

Bacteria are living

c)

Viruses can reproduce outside of a host cell

d)

Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses

55.

Vaccinations work by...

a)

Strengthening the immune system by chemically changing B-cells

b)

Tricking the body into thinking the needle is a pathogen

c)

Injecting dead or weakened bacteria or viruses (or proteins from them) into the bloodstream to trigger the production of antibodies

d)

Vaccines don't work and are just the government's way of injecting microchips into the population so they can keep track of us.

56.
The human body has both internal and external defense against disease.  Which of these includes only internal defenses?  
a)
hair and inflammation
b)
white blood cells and sweat
c)
inflammation and white blood cells
d)
skin and mucus
57.

Why might you become ill after visiting a friend who is sick with the flu?

a)

The room your friend was in was too warm.

b)

You ate the same kind of food your friend ate.

c)

You did not dress properly.

d)

The virus that causes the flu entered your body.

58.

Part of the body's defense against pathogens, in which fluid and white blood cells leak from blood vessels into tissues and destroy pathogens by breaking them down?

a)

Protective barrier

b)

Inflammatory response

c)

Immune response

d)

Stomach acid

59.

One of your body's first defense against an incoming pathogen is/are

a)

white blood cells

b)

your skin

c)

red blood cells

d)

antibiotics

60.

Viruses need to invade a cell in order to reproduce and make more of the virus. True or false?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

61.

Skin and mucous are your body's first line of defense against invaders. Their job is to keep out anything that is from the outside. This type of defense is

a)

specific.

b)

non-specific.

62.

The cell-mediated and humoral responses are both specific immune responses because they target specific invaders. Something they have in common is that they both involve cells that keep a memory of the invader. These cells trigger the immune system to respond quickly if the invader ever returns.

a)

memory cells

b)

antibodies

c)

mast cells

d)

cytotoxic T-cells

63.

How many lines of defence in our body?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

64.

Which of the following lines are non-specific defense?

a)

First line

b)

Second line

c)

Third line

65.

Which of the following are involved in the first line of defence?

a)

Skin

b)

Acid in the stomach

c)

Sweat and sebum oil

d)

Tears and ear wax

e)

White blood cell

66.

Which of the following is involved in the second line of defence?

a)

White blood cell

b)

Skin

c)

Tears

d)

Hydrochloric acid in stomach

67.

Which of the following is a specific defense in the body?

a)

First line

b)

Second line

c)

Third line

68.

Label the states of matter

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
69.

Sort the states of matter

a)

Solid

1.

Definite shape and volume

b)

Liquid

2.

Definite volume but no definite shape

c)

Gas

3.

No definite shape or volume

70.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Definite shape and volume

Particles are tightly packed together

Examples include ice, wood, and metal

No definite shape but definite volume

Particles are loosely packed together

Examples include water, oil, and milk

No definite shape or volume
Particles are far apart
Examples include oxygen, nitrogen, and carbon dioxide

Highly ionized gas

Consists of positively charged ions and free electrons

Examples include lightning and stars

Particles vibrate in fixed position

Particles are touching but move freely

Particles move at high speed

Particles are at extreme speed and temperture

Solids
Liquids
Gases
Plasma
71.

How do particles move if in a solid?

a)

Not at all.

b)

Quickly

c)

Slow

d)

They don't move they vibrate

72.

What is condensation?

a)

water vapor turns to gas

b)

Gas turning into liquid

c)

Liquid turning into a water vapor

d)

Solid turning into gas

73.

The colder the temperature, the _______ the particle's motion.

a)

Faster

b)

Slower

c)

Smaller

d)

Larger

74.

When the temperature increases, the pressure ____.

a)

Decreases

b)

Stays the Same

c)

Increases

d)

Need more information

75.

Molecules are constantly moving, this is known as _______ Theory of Matter.

a)

Movement

b)

Atomic

c)

Potential

d)

Kinetic

76.

Why does food coloring diffuse faster in hot water vs cold water?

a)

Molecules are more dense allowing them to move faster

b)

Molecules have more energy allowing them to move faster

c)

The food coloring attaches to water molecules, slowing them down

d)

Molecules have more weight with more food coloring

77.

What is sublimation?

a)

Solid to Liquid

b)

Liquid to gas

c)

Gas to Solid

d)

Solid to gas

78.
If the tops were removed from the cylinders, the following would happen:
a)
The solid would fly out of the container
b)
The liquid would fly out of the container.
c)
The gas would fly out of the container.
d)
They ALL would fly out of the container.
79.
This image shows:
a)
Molecules in solid have the greatest amount of energy.
b)
Molecules in a liquid have the greatest amount of energy.
c)
Molecules in a gas have the greatest amount of energy.
d)
They have equal amounts of energy.
80.

This state of matter has a constant volume, but fits the space of the container holding it.

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

81.

This state of matter has a firm, unchanging physical structure.

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

82.

Which process could cause a material to change state from gas to liquid?

a)

Adding heat

b)

Adding energy

c)

Removing particles

d)

Removing energy

83.

If I add heat to a solid, how will the motion of the particles be affected?

a)

They will move slower

b)

They will stop moving

c)

They will move faster

d)

They will move to a different container

84.
Define a liquid.
a)
Indefinite shape, indefinite volume
b)
Definite shape, definite volume
c)
Found in stars
d)
Definite volume, indefinite shape
85.
The speed of the molecules determines the _____.
a)
volume
b)
density
c)
pressure
d)
temperature
86.
Which is true about liquids and solids?
a)
Definite shape
b)
Definite shape and volume
c)
Definite volume
d)
No definite shape or volume
87.
How is a gas defined?
a)
Indefinite shape, indefinite volume
b)
Definite shape, definite volume
c)
Found in stars
d)
Definite volume, indefinite shape
88.

What were J. J. Thomson's three contributions to the atomic theory?

a)

Discovered the electron

b)

Discovered the nucleus -did the gold foil experiment

c)

Used the cathode ray tube in his discovery

d)

Created a model of the atom with electrons moving around the nucleus in fixed orbits

e)

Created the "plum pudding" model of the atom

89.

What were Ernest Rutherford's three contributions to atomic theory?

a)

Discovered that the atom is mostly empty space

b)

Discovered the nucleus- did the gold foil experiment

c)

Used the cathode ray tube in his discovery

d)

Discovered the electron

e)

Discovered that the proton had a positive charge

90.
Which model of the atom proposed that atoms were positive spheres with negative electrons in them?
a)
Heliocentric Model
b)
Solid Sphere Model
c)
Plum Pudding Model
d)
Planetary Model
91.
Which scientist saw the atom as a solid sphere?
a)
Dalton
b)
Thomson
c)
Rutherford
d)
Bohr
92.
Who came up with this model of an atom?
a)
J.J. Thompson
b)
Ernest Rutherford
c)
Neils Bohr
d)
James Chadwick
93.
Who's model is this?
a)
Thomson
b)
Rutherford
c)
Democritus
d)
Bohr
94.
In Dalton's Atomic Theory, all elements consist of __________ that cannot be divided.
a)
Atoms
b)
Parts
c)
Molecules
d)
Hydrogen
95.
In the Thomson Model, he discovered the existence of what particle?
a)
Electrons
b)
Protons
c)
Neutrons
d)
Quarks
96.
Rutherford’s experiment determined that the nucleus of an atom is tiny, dense and  ______ charged. 
a)
neutrally
b)
negatively
c)
positively
97.
Democritus believed that the smallest particles, were atomos, the Greek word for 
a)
small
b)
uncut or indivisible
c)
basic
98.
Neutrons are found in the...
a)
Nucleus
b)
Electron Cloud
c)
Electrons
d)
Protons
99.
Electrons have a ___________ charge.
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
c)
Neutral
100.

Label the parts of an atom.

a)Electron Orbit
b)Electron
c)Neutron
d)Proton
e)Nucleus
1
2
3
4
5
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
101.

What is the most current atomic model?

a)

b)

c)

d)

102.
Rutherford's gold foil experiment provided evidence that...
a)
negative and positive charges are spread evenly throughout the atom.
b)
alpha particles have a positive charge.
c)
gold is not a dense as previously thought.
d)
there is a dense positively charged nucleus at the center of an atom.
103.
Atoms are made up of three basic parts, which are -
a)
Protons, neutrons, electrons
b)
neutrinos, protons, neutrons
c)
quarks, protons, electrons
d)
electrons, neutrons, and quarks
104.
The nucleus is made up of -
a)
neutrons and electrons
b)
protons and neutrons
c)
protons and electrons
d)
electrons and quarks
105.

Atoms are made up of ________________

a)

energy

b)

electrons

c)

subatomic particles

d)

gasses

106.

Explain the structure of an atom according to the Rutherford model.

a)

Large, positively charged nucleus at the center, surrounded by positively charged electrons

b)

Small, dense, negatively charged nucleus at the center, surrounded by positively charged electrons

c)

Large, dense, negatively charged nucleus at the center, surrounded by negatively charged electrons

d)

Small, dense, positively charged nucleus at the center, surrounded by negatively charged electrons orbiting the nucleus

107.
What did Rutherford's nuclear model of atom propose in 1911?
a)
The majority of the mass of an atom is concentrated in a small, positively charged nucleus at the center.
b)
Atoms are made up of small, indivisible particles called protons and electrons.
c)
Electrons orbit the nucleus in a fixed path.
d)
Atoms are mostly empty space.
108.
What type of particles did Rutherford use in his scattering experiment?
a)
Alpha particles
b)
Gamma particles
c)
Beta particles
d)
Neutrons
109.
What was the purpose of Rutherford's gold foil experiment?
a)
To investigate the structure of the atom
b)
To discover a new particle
c)
To measure the speed of light
d)
To study the properties of gold
110.

Physical or chemical?

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

111.

Physical or chemical?

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

112.

Physical or chemical?

a)

Chemical

b)

Physical

113.

Physical or Chemical?

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

114.

Physical or chemical?

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

115.

Physical Properties can be ________

a)

observed without changing the matter being studied

b)

observed and measured but the matter has to be changed

c)

observed and measured without changing the matter being studied

116.

How are chemical properties observed?

a)

during chemical reactions

b)

when a chemical is poured in a beaker

c)

when a chemical is at room temperature

117.

Flammability means the ability to _______ and is a _________ property.

a)

melt; chemical

b)

rust; physical

c)

change; physical

d)

burn; chemical

118.
Which one of these is a chemical property?
a)
melting point
b)
boiling point
c)
color
d)
flammability
119.
Which is an example of a physical property?
a)
ability to react with acid
b)
 state of matter
c)
flammability
d)
ability to react with oxygen
120.

What is the outcome of observing a chemical property?

a)

Nothing

b)

A new substance is formed with different properties

c)

NaCl

d)

A rise in thermal conductivity

121.

Density is a(n)....

a)

Chemical Property

b)

Physical Property

c)

Not a property

122.
One cup of water is left outside for two days when it was checked there was only half a cup left. What happened?
a)
evaporation; chemical change
b)
condensation; physical change 
c)
evaporation; physical change
d)
condensation; chemical change
123.

Which electromagnetic waves have the highest frequencies and the shortest wavelengths?

a)

microwaves

b)

visible light

c)

gamma rays

d)

x-rays

124.

A wave with a large wavelength will have a ______ frequency and _____ energy

a)

high, low

b)

low, high

c)

high, high

d)

low, low

125.

Which type of waves are used in broadcasting?

a)

infrared rays

b)

X-rays

c)

radio waves

d)

gamma rays

126.

Select the correct order of waves on the EMS from the longest wavelength to the shortest wavelength

a)

Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma

b)

Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio

c)

Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio

d)

Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma

127.

Electromagnetic waves that help your body produce vitamin D are called?

a)

Ultraviolet rays

b)

X-rays

c)

Radio waves

d)

Gamma rays

128.

How are electromagnetic waves different from other waves?

a)

They have very short wavelengths

b)

They transmit energy instead of matter

c)

They can travel through empty space

d)

They can change direction by reflection

129.

Which section of the spectrum is the ONLY one we can see?

a)

Ultraviolet Rays

b)

Gamma Rays

c)

X-Rays

d)

Visible Light

130.

As the frequency of an electromagnetic wave increases, the amount of energy in that wave...

a)

increases.

b)

stays the same.

c)

decreases.

131.

High frequency waves have _________ wavelengths.

a)

varying

b)

long

c)

the same

d)

short

132.

Which electromagnetic waves are used in devices such as heat lamps & TV remote controls?

a)

Ultraviolet Rays

b)

Microwaves

c)

Infrared Rays

d)

Gamma Rays

133.

The electromagnetic spectrum includes the complete range of electromagnetic waves placed in order of:

a)

increasing amplitude

b)

increasing frequency

c)

increasing wavelength

134.

Match the following

a)

Radio waves

1.

Has the longest wavelengths and the lowest frequency

b)

Microwaves

2.

Used in cell phone communication and police radar systems

c)

Infrared rays

3.

It is used in thermal imaging

d)

UV rays

4.

Overexposure to this can result in sunburns and skin cancer

e)

Gamma Rays

5.

Has the highest energy of all electromagnetic radiation and is the most damaging to human tissue

135.

Used for medical imaging to diagnose health issues in bones and teeth

a)

visible light

b)

ultraviolet rays

c)

x-rays

d)

gamma rays

136.

What is the difference between frequency and wavelength?

a)

The shorter wavelength, the less frequency.

b)

The longer the wavelength, the frequency is greater.

c)

The longer the wavelength, the frequency is less.

137.

Which term means the distance from the crest of one wave to the next crest?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

138.

Which term means the number of waves that pass a point in 1 second?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

139.

Increasing the amplitude of a wave ______ the wave’s energy.

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Does not change

140.

Which has the SHORTEST wavelength and therefore the highest frequency/most energy? Hint: These waves are also used in cancer treatments.

a)

Gamma Rays

b)

Radio Waves

c)

Ultraviolet Rays

d)

X-rays

141.

Which wave has a low frequency, a long wavelength, and low energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

Not enough information to determine

142.

Which wave has a high frequency, a short wavelength, and high energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

Not enough information to determine

143.

Match the following terms of Light Properties.

a)
1.

Refraction

b)
2.

Reflection of all visible light

c)
3.

Absorption of all visible light

144.

How does light travels?

a)

In a straight line

b)

in a curved path

c)

in a zig-zag path

145.

A leaf is green because

a)

All colors are reflected except green

b)

The light is not part of the EM

c)

All colors are absorbed except green

d)

The sun light shining on the leaf is green

146.
Question Image

Match these parts of a light wave

a)

Amplitude

1.

height of the wave

b)

wavelength

2.

distance from crest to crest or trough to trough

c)

crest

3.

top

d)

trough

4.

bottom

e)

frequency

5.

how often waves occur

147.

match these types of energy with how they can be used

a)

Infrared

1.

"seeing" the heat of a person or animal in the dark

b)

Radio

2.

music, communication

c)

Microwaves

3.

cooking

d)

Ultraviolet (UV)

4.

growing plants, tanning, cleaning

e)

X-Rays

5.

"seeing" inside the body (bones)

148.

Refraction occurs when waves enter a new ​ (a)   and change ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
medium
speed
obstacle
air
solid
liquid
gas
149.
What type of wave behavior is pictured above?
a)
Refraction
b)
Reflection
c)
Absorption
d)
Diffraction
150.
What type of wave behavior is pictured above?
a)
Refraction
b)
Reflection
c)
Absorption
d)
Diffraction
151.
What type of wave behavior is pictured above?
a)
Refraction
b)
Reflection
c)
Absorption
d)
Diffraction
152.

What is the definition reflection?

a)

The bending of waves as they enter a new medium

b)

Bouncing back of waves from a surface that it can’t pass through

c)

The bending of waves as they pass through openings or around corners

d)

When two interfering waves have a displacement in the same direction, two crests and two troughs overlap. Increased amplitude.

153.

What is the definition of Refraction?

a)

The bending of waves as they enter a new medium

b)

When two interfering waves have a displacement in the opposite direction, crest and trough overlap. Zero amplitude.

c)

When two interfering waves have a displacement in the same direction, two crests and two troughs overlap. Increased amplitude.

154.

What is the definition of Diffraction?

a)

The bending of waves as they enter a new medium

b)

Bouncing back of waves from a surface that it can’t pass through

c)

When two interfering waves have a displacement in the opposite direction, crest and trough overlap. Zero amplitude.

d)

The bending of waves as they pass through openings or around corners

155.
Which of the figures represents reflection?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
156.
Which of the following represents refraction?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
157.

Match the following

a)

Reflection

1.

seeing your image in a mirror

b)

Refraction

2.

seeing a rainbow after a rainshower

c)

Diffraction

3.

hearing sound from the hallway

d)

Scattering

4.

the reason the sky is blue

e)

Transmission

5.

light passing through the windows

158.

Match the following

a)

Wave changes direction when moving from one medium to another

1.

Refraction

b)

Wave stays in the same medium but bends around an obstacle.

2.

Diffraction

c)

Wave encounters a barrier that causes the wave to return.

3.

Reflection

d)

Wave completely passes through a medium.

4.

Transmission

e)

Waves combine together to form a larger wave.

5.

Interference

159.

Which of these words are parts of waves or wave behaviour? Tick all the correct ones!

a)

Wavelength

b)

Amplitude

c)

Frequency

d)

Bombast

e)

Reflection

160.

What is frequency?

a)

The number of waves per second

b)

The time for one complete wave

c)

The length of one complete wave

161.

To get a good reflection, a surface should be...

a)

Sparkly

b)

Rough

c)

Smooth

d)

Metal

162.

Waves transfer (a)  

Choose from the below words
Matter
Molecules
Energy
Atoms
163.

The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection

a)

Law of Reflection

b)

Law of Light

c)

Incidence Ray

d)

The Normal

164.

The ray of light that strikes a mirror

a)

Reflected Ray

b)

Incidence Ray

c)

Angle of Incidence

d)

Angle of Reflection

165.

The ray that bounces off the mirror.

a)

Angle of Reflection

b)

Incidience Ray

c)

Reflected Ray

d)

Angle of Reflection

166.

The angle between the incident ray and the normal. (X on the diagram)

a)

Angle of X-Ray

b)

Angle of Reflection

c)

Angle of Incidence

d)

Angle of Normal

167.

The angle between the reflected ray and the normal (labelled Y on the diagram).

a)

Angle of Incidence

b)

Angle of Reflection

c)

Angle of Normal

d)

Angle of Light

168.

An imaginary line that is drawn at a right angle (90 degrees) to a mirror (Green line)

a)

Reflection Ray

b)

Normal

c)

Incidence Ray

d)

Light Ray

169.

If the angle of incidence in the diagram is 80°, the angle of reflection will be:

a)

10°

b)

100°

c)

90°

d)

80°

170.
The illustration shows a light ray striking an object.
In the illustration, the light ray striking the object is-
a)
absorbed
b)
stopped
c)
reflected
d)
refracted
171.

In order to see a picture it must

a)

produce light

b)

reflect light

c)

absorb light

172.

Light always travels in a

a)

straight line

b)

wavy line

c)

curved line

d)

zig-zag line

173.

A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror and the angle of incidence is 25 degrees. What is the angle of reflection?

a)

A. 0 degrees

b)

B. 50 degrees

c)

C. 90 degrees

d)

D. 25 degrees

174.

Given that the angle of incidence = 30 degrees


Which is the correct diagam?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

175.

How would you increase the size of the shadow on the screen?

a)

move the solid objects closer to the light source

b)

move the light source away from the solid objects

c)

move the solid objects closer to the screen

d)

decrease the size of the solid objects

176.

A section of the lithosphere that slowly moves over the asthenosphere.

a)

plate

b)

lithosphere

c)

boundary

177.

The theory that pieces of Earth’s lithosphere are in constant motion.

a)

Theory of Gravity

b)

Theory of Continental Drift

c)

Theory of Plate Tectonics

178.

What is the source of plate tectonic movement?

a)

earthquakes

b)

convection currents

c)

volcanoes

179.

True or False: Oceanic crust is newer and more dense than continental crust.

a)

True

b)

False

180.

Plate boundary where plates divide, or move apart from one another.

a)

Divergent Boundary

b)

Transform Boundary

c)

Convergent (Collision) Boundary

d)

Convergent (Subduction) Boundary

181.

Plate boundary where plates collide and one boundary sinks below the other one.

a)

Divergent Boundary

b)

Transform Boundary

c)

Convergent (Collision) Boundary

d)

Convergent (Subduction) Boundary

182.

Plate boundary where continental plates collide.

a)

Divergent Boundary

b)

Transform Boundary

c)

Convergent (Collision) Boundary

d)

Convergent (Subduction) Boundary

183.

Plate boundary where plates slide horizontally past each other.

a)

Divergent Boundary

b)

Transform Boundary

c)

Convergent (Collision) Boundary

d)

Convergent (Subduction) Boundary

184.

Mid-ocean ridges are caused at this type of plate boundary.

a)

Divergent Boundary

b)

Transform Boundary

c)

Convergent (Collision) Boundary

d)

Convergent (Subduction) Boundary

185.

Rift valleys are caused at this type of plate boundary.

a)

Divergent Boundary

b)

Transform Boundary

c)

Convergent (Collision) Boundary

d)

Convergent (Subduction) Boundary

186.

Volcanic mountains form at this type of plate boundary when part of a subducting plate melts and rises through the crust.

a)

Divergent Boundary

b)

Transform Boundary

c)

Convergent Boundary

187.

Subduction zones form at this type of plate boundary because of the density of the plates.

a)

Divergent Boundary

b)

Transform Boundary

c)

Convergent Boundary

188.

Wegener had evidence to support his Theory of Continental Drift.  Which of these are pieces of evidence he had:

a)

The continents seem to fit together like puzzle pieces (matching coastlines)

b)

The similar rocks and rock layers on the coasts of continents that match up

c)

all of these

d)

Fossils records also support similar species found on matching coastlines

189.

The Wegener's theory that the continents have not always been in their present locations but have moved there over millions of years

a)

Continental Drift Theory

b)

Plate Tectonics

c)

Alfred Wegener

d)

Lystrasaurus

190.
Scientists hypothesize that a super continent existed 200 million years ago.  This continent is called
a)
America
b)
Super Earth
c)
Pangea
d)
Eurasia
191.

What is the correct order (starting from the surface) of Earth’s layers?

a)

crust, outer core, inner core, mantle

b)

mantle, outer core, inner core, crust

c)

crust, mantle, outer core, inner core

d)

outer core, inner core, crust, mantle

192.
What is the difference between the lithosphere and asthenosphere that makes up the mantle?
a)

The lithosphere is is made of dense solid meal while the asthenosphere is made of liquid molten metal

b)
The lithosphere is a mixture of gasses while the asthenosphere is made of solid rock
c)
The lithosphere is molten rock that moves while the asthenosphere is ridid and thin
d)
The lithosphere is made of solid rock while the asthenosphere is more flexible hot rock that moves.
193.

Most geologists think that the movement of Earth’s plates is caused by _______

a)

convection currents in the mantle

b)

continental drift.

c)

subduction in the mantle

d)

conduction of heat energy

194.
What are the two types of crust
a)
continental and oceanic
b)
ocean and upper
c)
lower and upper
d)
pizza and subway
195.

Sea-floor spreading is ...

a)

when continents collide.

b)

what happens at the mid-oceanic ridge where a divergent boundary is causing two plates to move away from one another resulting in spreading of the sea floor.

c)

when continents subduct.

d)

none of these.

196.

During the 1950's, patterns like the ones shown in the diagram below were found within the crust on the ocean floor.  What did this discovery provide evidence for?

a)

two plates converging

b)

two plates sliding past each other

c)

New rock is being formed at the mid-ocean ridge at a divergent boundary

d)

how hot spot volcanoes form

197.

The diagram illustrates that

a)

seafloor spreading occurs when two plates collide

b)

the oldest oceanic crust is located far from where the plates are separating

c)

the continents are slowly moving toward each other

d)

the youngest oceanic crust is located far from where it is separating

198.

Magnetic bands on the ocean floor are evidence that Earth’s magnetic field changes.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

199.

The process where cold, dense oceanic slabs are subducted under continental lithosphere.

a)

Slab Pull

b)

Ridge Push

c)

Magnetic Reversal

d)

Convection Current

200.
The process where newly formed rock at mid-ocean ridges pushes the older oceanic slab in front of it.
a)
Ridge Push
b)
Slab Pull
c)
Convection Current
d)
Magnetic Reversal
201.

Match the following

a)
1.

divergent

b)
2.

convergent

c)
3.

transform

202.

Match the following as either Continental crust or Oceanic crust

a)

Continental

crust

1.

older

b)

Continental

crust

2.

less dense

c)

Oceanic

crust

3.

recycles

d)

Oceanic

crust

4.

basalt rock

e)

Continental

crust

5.

thicker

203.

How do scientists detect tectonic plate motion?

a)

They measure the amount of change in ocean depth using meter sticks.

b)

They collect data using submarines and deep-ocean robots.

c)

They detect motion using special equipment, such as GPS.

d)

They calculate the difference in the time it takes Earth to make one complete revolution around the Sun, and use this information to determine growth in plates.

204.

One well-known transform boundary is the San Andreas fault system in ____________.

a)

California

b)

North Dakota

c)

Hawaii

d)

China

205.

Motion along a transform plate boundary causes

a)

Earthquakes

b)

Volcanoes

206.

Volcanoes are often found near what kind of plate boundaries?

a)

Convergent and divergent

b)

Transform

207.

What kind of plate boundary forms mountain ranges?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

208.

Most volcanoes and earthquakes occur along plate boundaries on the circum-Pacific belt, which is better known as the _____.

a)

Ring of Sauron

b)

Ring of Fire

209.

A type of fault in which rocks on either side move past each other sideways with little up or down motion.

a)

Epicenter

b)

Normal Fault

c)

Reverse Fault

d)

Strike Slip Fault

210.

Where do volcanoes typically form?

a)

At plate boundaries.

b)

In the middle of tectonic plates.

211.

Which layer is made (mostly) of SOLID iron and nickel?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

212.

Which layer of the Earth is the THINNEST?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

213.

Which layer of the earth is responsible for convection currents?

a)

crust

b)

outer core

c)

mantle

d)

inner core

214.

Identify the layer of the earth labeled # 6

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

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