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Air Law - Final test

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to ICAO Annex 13, what is the definition of the term accident?

a)

An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

b)

A person is fatally or seriously injured, or the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure, or the aircraft is missing or is completely innaccessible.

c)

A person receives minor injuries, or the aircraft sustains minor damage.

d)

A person is fatally or seriously injured, or the aircraft sustains minor damage or structural failure.

2.

Multiple choise - To which state shall the final report of an accident or serious incident be sent to with minimum delay

a)

The State of Registry

b)

The State of the Operator

c)

The State of Design

d)

The State of Manufacture

e)

The ICAO, when the aircraft involved is of maximum mass of over 2250 kg

3.

One of the main objectives of ICAO is to...

a)

approve new international airlines.

b)

approve air fares set by international airlines.

c)

develop the principles and techniques for international air navigation.

d)

approve new international airlines operating jet aircraft.

4.

ICAO - Objectives of ICAO wew established and are ratified by the...

a)

Chicago Convention 1944.

b)

Geneva Convention 1948.

c)

Warsaw Convention 1929.

d)

Geneva Convention 1936.

5.

What does the abbreviation "IATA" stand for?

a)

International Air Transport Association.

b)

International Air Trading Association.

c)

International Airport Training Association.

d)

International Aviation Transportation Association.

6.

What is ICAO Annex 2 about?

a)

Personnel Licensing.

b)

Rules of the Air.

c)

Operation of Aircraft.

d)

Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks.

7.

Which of these is a primary function of IATA?

a)

To give individual airlines policy guidelines.

b)

To help airlines if they were indicted by a customer.

c)

To support critical issues in Aviation.

d)

To perform the job of a lawyer in order to represent an Airline when sued.

8.

Registration marks may consist of...

a)

Symbols.

b)

Nationality symbols.

c)

just letters.

d)

Combination of number and letters.

9.

The validity of an instrument rating (IR) is 2 years

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Type ratings shall be established

a)

all the answers are correct

b)

for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority

c)

only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum of 2 pilots

d)

none of the answers are correct

11.

two of the requirements for the issuance of an ATPL(A) license are...

a)

100 hours of simulator (30 hours maximum in an FNPT)

b)

75 hours of simulator (30 hours maximum in an FNPT)

c)

100 hours of simulator (25 hours maximum in an FNPT)

d)

250 hours of simulator (70 hours maximum in an FNPT)

12.

A MPL gives you the right to act as a PIC in commercial air travel

a)

True

b)

False

13.

ICAO Annex 2 - Definitions - The person charged with the safe conduct of a flight is the...

(a)  

14.

An IFR flight within advisory airspace shall submit a fligh plan

a)

True

b)

False

15.

VFR at 9500 ft shall mantain at least...

a)

1500 m horizontally and 1000 m vertically with clouds

b)

1000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically with clouds

c)

1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically with clouds

d)

1500 m horizontally and 300 ft vertically with clouds

16.

Minimum height of NVFR in non-mountainous area is

a)

1000 ft from the highest obstacle in a 8 SM radius

b)

2000 ft from the highest obstacle in a 8 Km radius

c)

1000 ft from the highest obstacle in a 6 Km

d)

300 m from the highest obstacle in a 8 Km radius

17.

A red pyrotechnic discharged from aerodrome control to an aircraft in flight means...

a)

notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

b)

aerodrome unsafe, do not land.

c)

return for approach.

d)

cleared to land.

18.

after a communication failure you see a green light from the tower and thereafter a red pyrotechnic, you must land ASAP

a)

True

b)

False

19.

An aircraft under VFR while flying above 3000 ft in a magnetic track of 170º...

a)

shall fly in an even level

b)

shall fly in an even level + 500 ft

c)

shall fly in an odd level

d)

shall fly in an odd level + 500 ft

20.

Aircraft A and B are approaching each other on convergin courses in VMC at the same level. Who has the right of way?

a)

Both

b)

Noone

c)

Aircraft B providing it has aircraft A on its left

d)

Aircraft A providing it has aircraft B on its right

21.

Squawk (a)   is used for unlawful interference

22.

ATC has told us to turn right heading 190º for sequencing. After 2 minutes we experience a comunication failure, we must

a)

Set 7500 in the transponder

b)

rejoin the track as son as possible

c)

Wait 7 minutes and then rejoin the track

d)

Wait 20 minutes and then rejoin the track

23.

Refer to figure. What type of entry procedure should we follow if we are approaching LPC on a heading of 202º?

a)

Direct entry

b)

Parallel entry

c)

Offset entry

d)

either offset or parallel entry

24.

The entry sectors have a zone fllexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of...

a)

b)

15º

c)

10º

d)

20º

25.

ATC: "Hold over GDV, non-standard, inbound track 010º." If you are on a heading of 050º the entry procedure should be...

a)

parallel

b)

offset

c)

direct

d)

either offset or parallel

26.

At FL140 the outbound leg should be of...

a)

1.5 min

b)

2 min

c)

30 sec

d)

1 min

27.

When flying a holding pattern with the outbound leg lenght based on DME distance, the outbound leg terminates...

a)

as soon as the limiting DME distance is reached

b)

0.5 NM prior to reaching the limiting DME distance

c)

1 NM prior to reaching the limiting DME distance

d)

half a minute prior to reaching the limiting DME distance

28.

The buffer area beyond the boundary of the holding area extends to...

a)

5 NM

b)

5 km

c)

3 km

d)

3 NM

29.

ICAO Holding procedures - Turns in nil wind conditions should be at...

a)

20º Bank angle, or 3º per second; whichever is lesser

b)

25º Bank angle, or 3º per second; whichever is lesser

c)

20º Bank angle, or 3º per second; whichever is larger

d)

25º Bank angle, or 3º per second; whichever is larger

30.

If a pilot deviates from the holding procedure, he is at risk of...

a)

Losing the appropriate obstacle clearence

b)

Descending bellow the approach minima

c)

Losing radio contact with ATC

d)

Losing control of the aircraft

31.

The TL (Transition Level) has a fixed value

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Mode A...

a)

broadcasts your aircraft's pressure altitude

b)

is also know as independent parallel approaches

c)

is also know as dependent parallel approaches

d)

broadcasts an identifying code

33.

Maximum intercepting angle while flying by vectors from ATC to parallel runways is (a)   º

34.

When radar is not available in parallel departures...

a)

spacing between runways should not be less than 2500 ft

b)

the course divergence after take-off must be >45º and spacing between runways should not be less than 1525 m

c)

they cannot be continue

d)

the course divergence after take-off must be >15º

35.

When may the pilot disregard a Resolution Advisory (RA) issued by ACAS?

a)

When ATC instructions are in conflict with RA'S indications

b)

Under no circumstances may a pilot disregard the RA indications

c)

When following the RA would jeopardize the safety of the aircraft

d)

When visually acquired information that the RA is erroneous

36.

An ACAS RA is triggered "CLIMB CLIMB" and a few seconds later you hear "DESCENT DESCENT". What should you do?

a)

CLIMB - DESCENT = 0; so stay at the current level

b)

Obey immediatly the RA

c)

The second RA is an error, so continue climbing

d)

Inform ATC about the RAs and ask for instructions

37.

ATC instructions has priority over RAs

a)

True

b)

False

38.

DER stands for...

a)

Departure Extended Centerline

b)

Departure End of the Runway

c)

Distance En-Route

39.

CFIT stands for...

a)

Controlled Flight Into Terrain

b)

Caution From Identical Terminals

c)

Climb Finally In full Thrust

40.

In airspace Class C bellow FL100 AMSL, the maximum speed for IFR and VFR flights is...

a)

250 kt IAS for both

b)

250 kt IAS for the VFR and not applicable to the IFR

c)

Not applicable

d)

250 kt IAS for the IFR and not applicable to the VFR

41.

CTR stands for...

a)

Control Area

b)

Control Zone

c)

Controlled Airspace

d)

Air Traffic Zone

42.

The lateral limit of a CTR must extend at least 5 km from the aerodrome in the direction of the main runway

a)

True

b)

False

43.

In Class A airspace...

a)

ATC clearance is not required

b)

IFR flights are not allowed

c)

All aircraft are separated from each other

d)

ATC is not available

44.

In Class D airspace...

a)

IFR are separated from VFR

b)

VFR are separated from IFR

c)

There is not an speed limit

d)

IFR from IFR are granted with ATC service

45.

Multiple Choise - In Class B airspace...

a)

VFR are separated from VFR

b)

IFR are separated from IFR

c)

IFR are separated from VFR

d)

VFR are separated from IFR

46.

In Class E airspace IFR are separated from others IFR as far as practicable

a)

True

b)

False

47.

RNP 1 means that the aircraft navigation system must be able to...

a)

verify its position within a circle of 1 NM radius for at least 95% of time

b)

verify its position within a circle of 1 NM diameter at all times

c)

verify its position within a circle of 1 NM radius for at least 99% of time

d)

verify its position within a circle of 10 NM radius at all times

48.

The basic ATS route designator consists of (1) ____ followed bya a number from (2) ____.

a)

(1) two letters; (2) 1 to 9999.

b)

(1) one letter; (2) 1 to 999.

c)

(1) one letter; (2) 1 to 9999.

d)

(1) two letters; (2) 1 to 999.

49.

Name the three phases of and emergency

a)

UNCERFA, ALERTFA nad DETRESFA

b)

INCERFA, ALERTFA and DISTRESFA

c)

INCERFA, ALERFA and DETRESFA

d)

UNCERFA, ALERFA and DISTRESFA

50.

MCLM: 130000 kg ; MCZFM: 120000 kg ; MCTOM: 135000 kg

a)

WTC HEAVY

b)

WTC MEDIUM

c)

WTC LIGHT

d)

WTC SUPER

51.

Two aircraft are flying in the same Magnetic Track in RVSM airspace, the minimum separations is...

a)

1000 ft

b)

2000 ft

c)

4000 ft

d)

300 m

52.

Minimum lateral separation between two traffics using the same NDB is...

a)

15º and 15 NM

b)

15º and 30 NM

c)

30º and 15 NM

d)

30º and 30 NM

53.

Minimum timed separation fro aircrafts flying at the same level if the first one is flying 40 kts faster is...

a)

10 min

b)

5 min

c)

3 min

d)

6 min

54.

Minimum separation between departing aircrafts with the same track and same vertical profile is...

a)

1 min

b)

3 min

c)

5 min

d)

2 min

55.

The arriving wake turbulance radar separation minima between a medium aircraft following a heavy aircraft is

a)

5 NM

b)

2 min

c)

6 NM

d)

5 min

56.

If a Heavy aircraft departs behind a light aircraft from an intermediate position on runway...

a)

the wake turbulance separation is 3 min

b)

the wake turbulance separation is 2 min

c)

the wake turbulance separation is not applicable

d)

the wake turbulance separation is 5 NM

57.

The arriving wake turbulance non-radar separation minima between a medium aircraft following a heavy aircraft is

a)

3 min

b)

2 min

c)

3 NM

d)

2 NM

58.

The arriving wake turbulance non-radar separation minima between a light aircraft following a medium aircraft is

a)

3 min

b)

2 min

c)

4 min

d)

3 NM

59.

EAT stands for...

(a)  

60.

An EAT is transmitted to an aircraft by the most expeditious means when it is expected that is has to hold for...

a)

10 minutes or more

b)

30 minutes or more

c)

5 minutes or more

d)

20 minutes or more

61.

A pilot will receive an EAT as soon as practicable when the expected approach delay is...

a)

5 minutes

b)

20 minutes

c)

10 minutes or more

d)

15 minutes or more

62.

A revised EAT is given if it deviates from the previously transmitted time by...

a)

3 minutes or more

b)

30 minutes or more

c)

5 minutes or more

d)

10 minutes or more

63.

PSR stands for...

(a)  

64.

Instructing the aircraft to turn by 30º or more is part of the SSR Identification Procedures

a)

True

b)

False

65.

In advisory airspace (Class F airspace), an Air Traffic Advisory Service may be provided to...

a)

controlled flight only

b)

IFR flight only

c)

VFR flight only

d)

all flights

66.

Use the AIP to determine the tower (TWR) frequency of Ibiza

a)

121.930

b)

118.300

c)

118.505

d)

119.300

67.

AIP - Whats the highest altitude AMSL in feets that you can be within ZONA C in Gran Canaria?

(a)  

68.

3 "L" in the ground draw by the rescue unit means that...

a)

they have found all personnel

b)

they have found only some personnel

c)

the operation is completed

d)

they are not able to continue. Returning to base

69.

Whats the frequency for APRON W-SOUTH in LEMD?

(a)