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EFD Procedures 300s

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the purpose of the Personnel Accountability document for the City of Edmond Fire Department?

a)

To increase the number of personnel in the department

b)

To minimize risks to personnel by accounting for their assignment and location on incidents

c)

To provide training for new recruits

d)

To manage the financial budget of the department

2.

What does PAR stand for in the context of the Personnel Accountability document?

a)

Personnel Assignment Report

b)

Personnel Accountability Report

c)

Personnel Activity Report

d)

Personnel Assessment Report

3.

What is a Roll Call in the context of the Personnel Accountability document?

a)

A list of all personnel in the department

b)

An accountability report from all company officers of an individual crew assigned to the hazard zone

c)

A training session for new recruits

d)

A financial report for the department

4.

What is defined as a hazard zone in the Personnel Accountability document?

a)

Any area that requires the use of an SCBA to operate in

b)

Any area outside the fire department

c)

Any area within the fire department building

d)

Any area that does not require special equipment

5.

What should all personnel do when the IC announces a roll call?

a)

Continue their current tasks

b)

Notify their company officer of their condition and location

c)

Leave the hazard zone immediately

d)

Report to the nearest supervisor

6.

What is the purpose of the daily roster staffing spreadsheet mentioned in the Personnel Accountability document?

a)

To track the financial expenses of the department

b)

To assist with incident accountability within the City of Edmond

c)

To schedule training sessions for personnel

d)

To manage the department's inventory

7.

What is the primary purpose of the passport accountability system?

a)

To track the location and function of all firefighters working in a hazard zone.

b)

To monitor the daily roster staffing spreadsheet.

c)

To provide unit status and PAR information.

d)

To ensure the safety of the on-duty BC.

8.

What is included in the accountability equipment for each piece of apparatus?

a)

A passport with members' name tags.

b)

A daily roster staffing spreadsheet.

c)

A radio for communication.

d)

A fire extinguisher.

9.

Where should the Velcro strip be affixed for the passport?

a)

To the dash.

b)

To the helmet.

c)

To the coat pocket.

d)

To the vehicle door.

10.

What should passports reflect?

a)

Only those crew members who are about to enter the hot zone.

b)

All members of the fire department.

c)

The daily staffing changes.

d)

The incident commander's instructions.

11.

Where should extra individual nametags be kept?

a)

On the underside of the member's helmet.

b)

In the vehicle.

c)

In the coat pocket.

d)

On the dashboard.

12.

Who does the Incident Safety Officer report directly to?

a)

Incident Commander

b)

Task Safety Officer

c)

Entry Officer

d)

Decon Safety Officer

13.

What authority does the Incident Safety Officer have in case of an imminent life-threatening situation?

a)

To halt task operations

b)

To assign new tasks

c)

To change the Incident Commander

d)

To evacuate the area

14.

What should the Incident Safety Officer do once a safety size-up has been performed?

a)

Make an Incident Safety Action Plan and inform the Incident Commander

b)

Request additional personnel

c)

Evacuate the area

d)

Report to the Task Safety Officer

15.

When should a dedicated Incident Safety Officer be assigned?

a)

At any structure fire incident

b)

At minor incidents

c)

Only during training exercises

d)

Only when requested by the Task Safety Officer

16.

What should the Incident Safety Officer do if there are significant safety issues?

a)

Report them to the Incident Commander

b)

Ignore them

c)

Handle them independently

d)

Report them to the Task Safety Officer

17.

Who is responsible for ensuring all safety precautions are being followed during a training exercise?

a)

The highest ranking fire personnel on site

b)

The Training Exercise Safety Officer

c)

The Safety Officer

d)

The Task Safety Officer

18.

What is the minimum number of personnel required for a Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

19.

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Safety Officer during a training exercise?

a)

Assigning the highest ranking fire personnel on site

b)

Ensuring all safety precautions are being followed

c)

Making sure no unnecessary risks are taken

d)

Obeying all orders of the Training Exercise Safety Officer

20.

What is the primary function of the on-deck company in a Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC)?

a)

To provide medical assistance

b)

To respond to rescue a firefighter who has encountered a Mayday situation

c)

To monitor radio traffic

d)

To conduct training exercises

21.

Who can establish the on-deck for a Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC)?

a)

The Safety Officer

b)

The highest ranking fire personnel on site

c)

The Incident Commander or his/her designee

d)

The Task Safety Officer

22.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a proactive task for managing flow paths and fire conditions?

a)

Throwing ladders to windows above grade and communicating over the radio where they were placed.

b)

Getting to the rear of the building and giving a conditions report if that has not already been done.

c)

Removing security bars from windows or doors and forcing heavily secured doors that could cause a potential egress problem.

d)

Using a fire extinguisher to put out small fires in the building.

23.

What should the initial on-deck crew stage?

a)

All RIC equipment.

b)

All medical equipment.

c)

All firefighting equipment.

d)

All communication equipment.

24.

Which of the following is NOT considered standard equipment for each RIC?

a)

Portable radio.

b)

Flashlight.

c)

Wire cutters.

d)

Fire hose.

25.

What is the RIC air pack made up of?

a)

A SCBA cylinder with a low-pressure regulator connection.

b)

A SCBA cylinder with a high-pressure regulator connection.

c)

A SCBA cylinder with both low-pressure and high-pressure regulator connections.

d)

A SCBA cylinder with no regulator connection.

26.

What is the length of the RIC tag line?

a)

100 feet.

b)

150 feet.

c)

200 feet.

d)

250 feet.

27.

What type of axe should typically be carried by the RIC?

a)

Flat-head axe.

b)

Pick-head axe.

c)

Double-bit axe.

d)

Pulaski axe.

28.

Who should carry the thermal camera?

a)

The officer.

b)

The firefighter.

c)

The paramedic.

d)

The engineer.

29.

What is one reason a hoseline should be left uncharged?

a)

It allows for increased maneuverability if it needs to be deployed to another location.

b)

It ensures the hoseline is always ready for immediate use.

c)

It prevents the hoseline from being damaged.

d)

It helps in identifying the type of fire.

30.

What is the primary responsibility of the RIC Officer when a victim has been located?

a)

Managing the team and providing communication to the IC.

b)

Securing the RIC tag line to the outside of the structure.

c)

Aggressively searching for the victim.

d)

Providing medical assistance to the victim.

31.

Which tool is NOT listed as a tool for the RIC Officer?

a)

Thermal camera

b)

Radio

c)

Flashlight

d)

Halligan

32.

What should the Search firefighter do after locating the victim?

a)

Communicate to all members that the victim has been located.

b)

Wait for confirmation/acknowledgement from team members.

c)

Reset the victim’s PASS device.

d)

Convert the victim’s SCBA waist strap to a crotch strap.

33.

Which of the following is NOT a tool used by the Navigation/Air Supply firefighter?

a)

RIC tag line

b)

Hoseline

c)

Thermal camera

d)

Flashlight

34.

What should the search firefighter do if they do not locate the victim?

a)

Move to the victim's location.

b)

Perform a sweep in the immediate vicinity of the victim looking for a secondary exit.

c)

Conserve energy for the removal if no secondary exit is found.

d)

Inform the RIC officer if a secondary exit is found and extend the tagline from the tie-off point to the new exit location.

35.

What should the search firefighter do if there are only three members on the RIC?

a)

Move to the victim's location.

b)

Perform a sweep in the immediate vicinity of the victim looking for a secondary exit.

c)

Conserve energy for the removal if no secondary exit is found.

d)

There will only be one search position.

36.

What should the search firefighter do if there are only two members on the RIC?

a)

Move to the victim's location.

b)

Perform a sweep in the immediate vicinity of the victim looking for a secondary exit.

c)

Conserve energy for the removal if no secondary exit is found.

d)

Search will be shared by the officer and the air navigation position.

37.

What is the purpose of on-deck staging?

a)

To monitor the fireground and be ready to deploy to a MAYDAY.

b)

Perform a sweep in the immediate vicinity of the victim looking for a secondary exit.

c)

To conserve energy for the removal if no secondary exit is found.

d)

To assist the Navigation/Air Supply firefighter with the emergency air supply.

38.

What should be done if a MAYDAY is called?

a)

Another on-deck crew should be established as quickly as feasible.

b)

Perform a sweep in the immediate vicinity of the victim looking for a secondary exit.

c)

Conserve energy for the removal if no secondary exit is found.

d)

Assist the Navigation/Air Supply firefighter with the emergency air supply.

39.

What is the purpose of the procedure outlined in section 304.1?

a)

To increase the chance of survival when a firefighter becomes lost, trapped, or is in trouble.

b)

Perform a sweep in the immediate vicinity of the victim looking for a secondary exit.

c)

To conserve energy for the removal if no secondary exit is found.

d)

To assist the Navigation/Air Supply firefighter with the emergency air supply.

40.

When should a Mayday call be made according to section 304.2?

a)

When a firefighter is lost, trapped, or in trouble.

b)

When a firefighter performs a sweep in the immediate vicinity of the victim looking for a secondary exit.

c)

When a firefighter conserves energy for the removal if no secondary exit is found.

d)

When a firefighter assists the Navigation/Air Supply firefighter with the emergency air supply.

41.

What is the first step in the Mayday procedure?

a)

Activate the orange button on the radio or on the lapel microphone.

b)

Declare Mayday, Mayday, Mayday, and then state the required information.

c)

Control breathing.

d)

Intermittently activate the PASS device.

42.

What information should be stated after declaring Mayday, Mayday, Mayday?

a)

Who, What, Where

b)

When, Why, How

c)

Who, When, Where

d)

What, Why, How

43.

What should be done if unable to get out of the structure during a Mayday?

a)

Control breathing.

b)

Intermittently activate the PASS device.

c)

Shelter-in-place.

d)

Follow hoselines.

44.

What should interior crews do during a Mayday?

a)

Continue fire control efforts.

b)

Maintain radio silence except for additional Maydays, Priority Traffic, and Status Changes.

c)

Attempt to resolve the Mayday.

d)

All of the above.

45.

What is the purpose of the Emergency Scene Traffic Control policy?

a)

To create a safe work zone for the City of Edmond Fire Department and other emergency personnel.

b)

To ensure all members maintain an acute awareness of the high risk of working around moving traffic.

c)

To implement measures necessary for the safety of all personnel operating on the incident scene.

d)

All of the above.

46.

What is the primary responsibility of local law enforcement during roadway emergencies?

a)

To provide medical assistance to injured individuals.

b)

To manage traffic and protect the incident scene.

c)

To repair damaged vehicles.

d)

To conduct criminal investigations.

47.

According to the Edmond Fire Department, what should the first-arriving apparatus do at a roadway incident?

a)

Park directly in front of the incident scene.

b)

Position itself to block the immediate area and establish a physical barrier.

c)

Park at a distance of 100 meters from the incident scene.

d)

Wait for further instructions from local law enforcement.

48.

At what angle should apparatus be parked away from the curb during a roadway incident?

a)

15 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

45 degrees

d)

60 degrees

49.

What is the purpose of closing at least one lane next to the incident lane during a roadway emergency?

a)

To allow emergency personnel to take a break.

b)

To provide a clear path for emergency vehicles.

c)

To protect the scene, patients, and emergency personnel.

d)

To reduce noise levels at the incident scene.

50.

When establishing vehicle placement, how far should the front bumper of the fire truck be from the longitudinal pavement marking line?

a)

1 foot

b)

2 feet

c)

3 feet

d)

4 feet

51.

What is the purpose of keeping traffic moving when possible during an incident?

a)

To reduce fuel consumption

b)

To prevent additional accidents upstream of the initial incident

c)

To allow emergency vehicles to pass

d)

To clear the scene faster

52.

Who should traffic flow be coordinated with during an incident?

a)

Fire department

b)

Law enforcement

c)

Ambulance services

d)

Public works

53.

What is the responsibility of all members of the Edmond Fire Department during an incident?

a)

To ensure a safe traffic incident management area is created and maintained

b)

To direct traffic away from the scene

c)

To provide medical assistance

d)

To extinguish the fire

54.

Where should law enforcement officers and ambulances park during an incident?

a)

Upstream of the fire apparatus

b)

Downstream of the fire apparatus

c)

Next to the fire apparatus

d)

In the buffer space

55.

What is the minimum length of the Downstream Taper in a Traffic Incident Management Area?

a)

20-50 feet

b)

50-100 feet

c)

100-150 feet

d)

150-200 feet

56.

How far apart should cones be placed in the Upstream Taper (Buffer/Transition Zone)?

a)

10 feet

b)

20 feet

c)

1 foot per mile per hour of the posted speed limit

d)

5 feet

57.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended action when exiting the apparatus?

a)

Exit from the non-traffic side or curb side

b)

Ensure compartment and apparatus doors are closed

c)

Communicate with all members that traffic has come to a complete stop

d)

Exit from the traffic side if it is quicker

58.

What should crews do to avoid being struck by a passing vehicle when exiting the apparatus?

a)

Exit quickly without checking traffic

b)

Check that traffic has stopped

c)

Exit from the traffic side

d)

Leave doors open for quick re-entry

59.

What is the purpose of proper apparatus placement at the scene of an incident?

a)

To block traffic completely

b)

To assure other responding resources of easy access and a safe working area

c)

To create a buffer zone for pedestrians

d)

To minimize the use of emergency lights

60.

What is the primary purpose of positioning apparatus in a specific manner at an incident scene?

a)

To provide a physical barrier for responders to operate

b)

To create a visual distraction for oncoming traffic

c)

To block all lanes of traffic

d)

To provide a resting area for responders

61.

How far should the "safe traffic incident management area" extend from the incident itself?

a)

10-20 feet

b)

30-40 feet

c)

50-100 feet

d)

150-200 feet

62.

What principle should be included in the "safe traffic incident management area" whenever possible?

a)

"Lane plus one"

b)

"Lane minus one"

c)

"Double lane"

d)

"Single lane"

63.

What is one of the reasons for angling the apparatus at an incident scene?

a)

To provide greater lateral protection of the scene

b)

To block all lanes of traffic

c)

To create a visual distraction

d)

To provide a resting area for responders

64.

What should personnel do to avoid crossing medians or moving lanes of traffic?

a)

Position apparatus so that personnel will not be required to cross medians or moving lanes of traffic

b)

Cross medians quickly

c)

Walk in the middle of the road

d)

Ignore the traffic

65.

What should members do when stepping outside the established work zone or traffic lanes?

a)

Use extreme caution

b)

Run quickly

c)

Ignore the traffic

d)

Walk in the middle of the road

66.

According to Table 1, what is the length of the safe transition/buffer zone for residential areas with speeds less than 35 mph?

a)

50 feet

b)

100 feet

c)

150 feet

d)

200 feet

67.

According to Table 1, what is the length of the safe transition/buffer zone for commercial 4-lane roads with speeds greater than 55 mph?

a)

50 feet

b)

100 feet

c)

150 feet

d)

200 feet

68.

What should be done if the safety of operating personnel cannot be assured during a traffic incident?

a)

Continue the flow of traffic

b)

Stop the flow of traffic

c)

Increase the speed of traffic

d)

Ignore the safety concerns

69.

Who will respond to motor vehicle incidents on roadways according to the Edmond Fire Department's policy?

a)

The closest fire company and Rescue 1 or Truck 2

b)

Only the Battalion Chief

c)

The nearest police department

d)

Any available fire department unit

70.

What is the purpose of the buffer space in the roadway incident response diagram?

a)

To park fire trucks

b)

For workers' safety

c)

To store equipment

d)

For public viewing

71.

Which roads are specifically mentioned for high-speed incident response by the Edmond Fire Department?

a)

I-40 and Highway 77

b)

I-35 and Highway 66

c)

I-44 and Highway 75

d)

I-20 and Highway 50

72.

What additional action may be taken when conditions merit during incidents on I-35 and Highway 66?

a)

Request additional units for lateral protection

b)

Increase the speed limit

c)

Close the highway

d)

Call for police backup

73.

What is the primary purpose of using emergency lighting at the initial stages of a traffic incident?

a)

To provide better visibility for the emergency responders

b)

To alert drivers approaching from the opposite direction

c)

To illuminate the work area for better efficiency

d)

To signal the end of the incident

74.

What should be done with headlights while operating at an emergency incident?

a)

They should be turned off if they adversely affect traffic

b)

They should be kept on at all times

c)

They should be flashed intermittently

d)

They should be directed towards the incident

75.

What is the minimum number of 28" reflective traffic cones that all Engine Companies must carry?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

10

d)

20

76.

What message should be on the field deployable traffic sign provided to all fire companies?

a)

Emergency Scene Ahead

b)

Caution: Work Zone

c)

Slow Down: Incident Ahead

d)

Detour: Incident Ahead

77.

How many traffic deterrent lights should be provided on all fire companies?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

78.

What is the minimum size of upright traffic cones that the Edmond Fire Department shall use for emergency scene purposes?

a)

18 inches

b)

24 inches

c)

28 inches

d)

32 inches

79.

Who is responsible for deploying the traffic incident sign at roadway incidents?

a)

The first arriving company

b)

The apparatus operator

c)

The incident commander

d)

The traffic control officer

80.

What should be used to provide additional warning for drivers at a traffic incident scene?

a)

Reflective tape

b)

Traffic cones

c)

Traffic deterrent lights

d)

Directional arrows

81.

How far apart should cones be placed when the roadway speed limit is 55 MPH?

a)

15 feet

b)

25 feet

c)

35 feet

d)

55 feet

82.

What should be used by all department members on a roadway incident scene to ensure visibility?

a)

Bunker gear

b)

ANSI-compliant traffic safety vests

c)

Reflective jackets

d)

Flashlights

83.

What is the only exception to the rule requiring personnel to don ANSI approved vests prior to arrival?

a)

Firefighters engaged in active firefighting activities

b)

Personnel involved in training exercises

c)

Administrative staff visiting the site

d)

Volunteers assisting with traffic control

84.

Who has the discretion to determine the level of warning devices to be deployed in inclement weather conditions?

a)

The Incident Commander (IC)

b)

The Fire Chief

c)

The Safety Officer

d)

The Senior Firefighter

85.

What is the purpose of the document mentioned in section 306.1?

a)

To ensure the physical and mental conditions of members do not deteriorate during prolonged deployment

b)

To outline the procedures for fire equipment maintenance

c)

To provide guidelines for community fire safety education

d)

To establish protocols for fire station cleanliness

86.

Which of the following is NOT listed as an example of when rehabilitation operations may begin?

a)

Structure fires

b)

Grass fires

c)

Routine training exercises

d)

Trench rescue

87.

What should be contacted for on-scene assistance if the incident warrants it?

a)

Ambulance Transport Service and/or Red Cross

b)

Local police department

c)

Fire equipment suppliers

d)

Community volunteers

88.

What is recycling defined as in section 306.3.1?

a)

A timely and efficient means of air replacement and re-hydration of companies while maintaining their assignment

b)

The process of reusing firefighting equipment

c)

The procedure for disposing of hazardous materials

d)

The method of rotating personnel during long shifts

89.

What is the primary responsibility of company officers or acting company officers regarding their personnel during an incident?

a)

To ensure all personnel are wearing proper uniforms

b)

To monitor the welfare of their personnel at all times and determine if recycling or a formal rehab is appropriate

c)

To assign new tasks to personnel every hour

d)

To conduct training sessions during the incident

90.

What should companies operating on an incident do to maintain a steady stream of resources?

a)

Recycle themselves in a timely manner

b)

Take long breaks between tasks

c)

Avoid rehydration to save time

d)

Report to the IC only at the end of the incident

91.

What is the minimum rest period for personnel undergoing formal rehabilitation?

a)

5 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

20 minutes

92.

Who is responsible for ensuring that all personnel are hydrated and given time to become physically suited for reassignment?

a)

The Incident Commander

b)

The Company Officer

c)

The Safety Officer

d)

The Logistics Officer

93.

What must the Company Officer do when a formal rehab is appropriate?

a)

Notify the IC of a status change and the re-assignment of a Unit(s) to Rehab

b)

Immediately send all personnel back to work

c)

Cancel the incident

d)

Assign new tasks to the personnel

94.

What is the purpose of the Rehab officer notifying the IC when each individual unit arrives to the rehab location?

a)

To ensure the IC knows the exact location of all units

b)

To prevent the IC from losing accountability of a company in transit to the rehab location

c)

To update the IC on the progress of the incident

d)

To request additional resources

95.

Who is responsible for informing the rehab unit where to set up on the incident site?

a)

The Rehab officer

b)

The IC or Logistics officer

c)

The Paramedic/EMT

d)

The Company In-Transit

96.

What should the Rehab officer notify the CP about?

a)

When the rehab unit is ready to leave the scene

b)

When each individual crew arrives at the Rehab location

c)

When medical supplies are running low

d)

When the incident is over

97.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a necessary resource for the Rehab officer to provide?

a)

Shelter

b)

Fluids

c)

Medical supplies

d)

Food

98.

What should be included in the medical supplies for the Rehab area?

a)

Trauma kit, oxygen administration equipment, defibrillator

b)

Bandages, antiseptics, painkillers

c)

First aid kit, splints, crutches

d)

Surgical tools, anesthesia, IV fluids

99.

What is the purpose of assigning a Paramedic/EMT to the Rehab area?

a)

To provide transportation for injured personnel

b)

To monitor and check vitals of personnel in Rehab

c)

To manage the logistics of the incident site

d)

To supervise the entire incident response

100.

What is the scope of the document mentioned under section 307.1?

a)

To provide information on how to use the Scott Emergency Support System in emergency situations

b)

To outline the responsibilities of the Rehab officer

c)

To describe the general procedures for medical monitoring

d)

To detail the logistics of setting up a rehab unit