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CMAA Exam Cram #5

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Current Procedure Terminology is abbreviated as

a)

CPT

b)

CT PRO TERM

c)

CP TERM

d)

NONE OF THESE

2.

centers for Medicare and Medicaid services

a)

CMS

b)

AMA

c)

PHI

d)

CPT

3.

Modifiers are added or changed information regarding procedures or services.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

4.

Which of the following should be considered when updating a provider's Medicare fee schedule?

a)

Resource-Based Relative Value Scale

b)

Usual, Customary, and Reasonable

c)

Utilization Review

d)

Insurance payments

5.

When the patient completes the assignment of benefits form, they are agreeing that the payment for their services provided will go to ____________.

a)

the insurance company

b)

the provider

c)

the patient's employer

d)

the patient

6.

The medical assistant should know which of the following as a correct statement regarding a patient's protected health information?

a)

patients can have access to their psychotherapy notes

b)

patients own their medical records

c)

patients have the right to remove any information they choose from the medical record

d)

a patient has the right to be told about the uses and disclosures from their medical record

7.

What must be done to ensure appropriate transmission of PHI to another provider?

a)

fax a cover sheet that contains a confidentiality disclosure statement

b)

deidentify the patient record

c)

call the receiver prior to sending the fax to verify medical necessity

d)

include the HIPAA policy with the fax

8.

A patient has both Medicare and Medicaid insurance, which of the following statements by the medical assistant is an acceptable way to explain the patient's insurance benefits?

a)

Your Medicaid coverage is secondary to your Medicare coverage

b)

You will pay for the services up front and your insurance will reimburse you

c)

Medicare will cover 50% of your costs

d)

After you pay your co payment, I will bill the rest to your insurance

9.

Using indexing rules, in which of the following sections of the filing system will the medical assistant place the record of a patient names Ann-Marie Jensen-Davis?

a)

J

b)

D

c)

M

d)

A

10.

Who would the provider refer the patient with an elevated white blood cell count to see?

a)

Pulmonologist

b)

Cardiologist

c)

Gynocologist

d)

Hematologist

11.

Which specialist would the medical assistant schedule an appointment for a patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

a)

Gastroenterologist

b)

Anesthesiologist

c)

Endocrinologist

d)

Mycologist

12.

A medical assistant is scheduling an outpatient diagnostic procedure for a patient. Which of the following instructions should the MA give to the patient?

a)

bring your most recent progress note

b)

be prepared to stay overnight

c)

make sure you bring your identification with you

d)

bring your admission packet with you

13.

The provider gets called away for a family emergency. How should the medical assistant address the scheduled appointments for that day?

a)

tell the patients in the waiting room that they have been assigned to a different provider

b)

call tomorrows scheduled appointments and let them know the provider will not be available

c)

tell today's patient's the provider is unavailable and they will need to reschedule

d)

call patients and let them know the provider has a family emergency

14.

In which of the following cases can the patient's original medical record be removed from the provider's office?

a)

when the provider is seeing the patient in the emergency room

b)

the patient is deceased

c)

when a subpoena has been issued

d)

when the insurance company is conducting an internal audit

15.

What agency specifies that a patient may be charged for copies of their medical record?

a)

NCHS

b)

OSHA

c)

HIPAA

d)

PHI

16.

If a patient is scheduled for outpatient surgery and they have questions about possible complications who should the medical assistant refer the patient to?

a)

Anesthesiologist

b)

Clinical medical assistant

c)

Triage nurse

d)

Provider

17.

A returning patient is considered a new patient after how much time has gone by without seeing the provider?

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

2 years

d)

5 years

18.

A medical assistant is scheduling a patient who is gravida 3 for a biopsy. Which of the following is characteristic of this patient?

a)

it's the patient's third pregnancy

b)

the patient has stage 3 carcinoma

c)

it's the patient's third biopsy

d)

the patient has had 3 concussions

19.

An electronic record of health-related information on an individual that conforms to nationally recognized interoperability standards and that can be created, managed, and consulted by authorized clinicians and staff across more than one healthcare organization

(a)  

20.

An electronic record of health-related information about an individual that can be created, gathered, managed, and consulted by authorized clinicians and staff within a single healthcare organization.

(a)  

21.

A person younger than the age of majority (usually 18 to 21 years of age) who is married, in the armed forces, living apart from parents or a guardian, or self-supporting.

(a)  

22.

A document used to collect data about elements of a patient visit that can become part of a patient record or be used for management purposes.

(a)  

23.

A record of a patient's fees.

(a)  

24.

a part of a computer system or network that is designed to block unauthorized access while permitting outward communication.

(a)  

25.

Sealed or unsealed typed or handwritten material, including letters, postal cards, postcards, and business reply mail.

(a)  

26.

A register for daily business transactions is called a(n):

a)

sheet

b)

excel sheet

c)

day sheet

d)

task sheet

27.

Define Copayment

a)

providers who agree to write off the difference between the amount charged by the provider and the approved fee established by insurer

b)

An amount of money that is paid at the time of medical service

c)

Amount of money a patient must pay out of pocket

28.

A specify amount of money a patient must pay out of pocket before the insurance carrier begin paying.

a)

Coinsurance

b)

Deductible

c)

Participating Provider (PAR)

d)

Copayment

29.

Providers health insurance to the medically indigent population through a cost-sharing program between federal and state government for those who meet specific eligibility criternia.

a)

Medicare

b)

Managed Care

c)

Tricare

d)

Medicaid

30.

Authorize dependents of military personnel to receive treatment from civilian providers at the expense of federal government.

a)

Medicaid

b)

Medicare

c)

Tricare

d)

CHAMPVA

31.

The maximun amount a third-party will pay for particular procedure or service.

a)

Allowed amount

b)

Deductible

c)

Copayment

d)

Coinsurance

32.

How can a medical office can accommodate patients who have vision loss?

a)

Braille Signage

b)

Large print forms

c)

Braille forms

d)

Accommodations for electronic forms

e)

All of the above

33.

When are regular referrals needed?

a)

A patient wants to change providers

b)

A provider decides that the patient needs to see a specialist

c)

When coding providers' notes

d)

When answering questions from insurance companies

34.

True of False: Consent is required for minors in a life-threatening situation.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

What is the Notice of Privacy Practices?

a)

The patients employer

b)

Statement of the patients diagnosis

c)

Statement explaining emergency preparedness

d)

Statement signed by the patient that describes how private health information is protected

36.

True or False: Cross-reference sheets are needed for numeric filing systems.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

What is involved in terminal numbering system?

a)

Giving patients consecutive numbers as they join the practice

b)

Using a combination of a letter and a number

c)

Assigning colors to different numbers

d)

Assigning consecutive numbers to patients while separating the digits in the number into groups of twos or threes

38.

When are patients scheduled in wave booking?

a)

Every 20 minutes

b)

Only in the morning

c)

At the same time each hour

d)

Intermittently throughout the day

39.

True or False: Patients have no choice in the providers they see.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

What is an explanation of benefits (EOB)?

a)

Explains what services Medicare will not cover

b)

The amount the patient pays after each visit

c)

A document that identifies what was paid, reduced, or denied

d)

The percentage of the premium that the patient must cover

41.

An M.A. is checking in a patient who is hearing impaired. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

a)

Speak loudly to the patient

b)

Use firm touch to get the patient's attention

c)

Stand within the patient's field of vision

d)

Minimize hand gestures when speaking to the patient

42.

A patient calls into the office to report that her medication is "not working." Which of the following responses should the medical assistant make?

a)

"I will notify the provider about the situation"

b)

"You should keep taking the medication until it works"

c)

"You should double the dose of the medication"

d)

"I will call the pharmacy to authorize a refill"

43.

An M.A. is approached by a patient who is angry and yelling. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

a)

Display emotion

b)

Remain calm

c)

Avoid apologizing

d)

Speak loudly

44.

When communication on the telephone with a patient, which of the following actions by an M.A. demonstrates the use of appropriate technique for outgoing calls?

a)

Placing the patient on hold when accessing informaiton

b)

Speaking with an unchanging pitch

c)

Holding the receiver a minimum of 5 cm from the mouth

d)

Allowing the patient to be the one to end the call

45.

An M.A. is speaking with a patient. Which of the following might occur as a barrier to communication?

a)

Empathy

b)

Rapport

c)

Stereotyping

d)

Active listening

46.
Which is the best way to greet an established patient entering the office?
a)
"Hello"
b)
"Your name please"
c)
"Good afternoon, Mrs. Johnson"
d)
"You must be the 9:30 appointment"
47.
Which of the following is the purpose of an encounter form?
a)
To save time and improve accuracy in data entry
b)
To establish financial responsibility
c)
To update the status of a Workers' Compensation case
d)
To verify patient demographics
48.
Prior to patient leaving the office, the CMAA asks patient to pay 10% of a $100 office visit. Which best describes this fee?
a)
Coinsurance
b)
Deductible
c)
Copayment
d)
Allowed Charge
49.
Which of the following types of referrals is used in an emergent situation?
a)
Routine
b)
Urgent
c)
Stat
d)
Soon as possible
50.
all the pages of a patient's medical record must include which of the following information?
a)
insurance ID number
b)
patient address
c)
patient name
d)
soc security number
51.

The amount a patient must pay before insurance pays anything

a)

Co-insurance

b)

Deductible

c)

Co-payment

d)

Encounter

52.

Part of the office's accounting functions, to include recording, classifying, and summarizing financial transactions

a)

Subsidiary journal

b)

Cross-reference

c)

Deductible

d)

Bookkeeping

53.

Reference to corresponding information in a separate location

a)

Direct filing

b)

Bookkeeping

c)

Cross-reference

d)

Encounter form

54.

Document consisting of proof of posting sections, month-to-date accounts receivable proof, and year-to-date accounts receivable proof

a)

Invoice

b)

Individually identifiable information

c)

Accounts receivable ledger

d)

End-of-day summary

e)

Allowable amounts

55.

The limit that most insurance plans put on the amount that will be allowed for reimbursement for a service or procedure

a)

Invoice

b)

Individually identifiable information

c)

Accounts receivable ledger

d)

End-of-day summary

e)

Allowable amounts

56.

A document that provides detailed information about charges, payment, and remaining amounts owed to a provider

a)

Invoice

b)

Individually identifiable information

c)

Accounts receivable ledger

d)

End-of-day summary

e)

Allowable amounts

57.

A small amount of cash available for expenses such as postage, emergency supplies, and miscellaneous small items

a)

Petty cash fund

b)

Encounter forms

c)

Daily Journal

d)

Allowable amounts

58.

The model in which providers set the fees for procedures and services

a)

Disbursement

b)

Fee-for-service

c)

Cross-reference

d)

Coinsurance

59.

The record of the funds that are distributed to specific expense accounts

a)

Day sheet

b)

Cross-reference

c)

Deductible

d)

Disbursement

60.

A request for payment

a)

Day sheet

b)

Statement

c)

Co-payment

d)

Disbursement

61.

A system that provides national uniform payments after adjustments across all practices throughout the country is called the Resource-based Relative Value Scale (RBRVS)

a)

True

b)

False

62.

A list of items contained within a package is called a Packing Slip

a)

True

b)

False

63.

A daily record of financial transactions and services rendered is known as a Day Sheet

a)

True

b)

False

64.

The system in which the only information needed for filing and retrieval is a patient's name is known as the direct filing system

a)

True

b)

False

65.

A document that provides information about charges, payments, and remaining amounts owed to a provider

a)

Tickler file

b)

Packing slip

c)

Day sheet

d)

Accounts Receivable Ledger

66.

The co-payment is a fee collected at the time of service. Coinsurance is the percentage of the health care costs the patient is responsible for after the deductible has been met

a)

What is the difference between a co-payment and co-insurance?

b)

What is a day sheet?

c)

What is the difference between and EHR and an EMR?

67.

Cross reference sheets are needed for numeric filing systems because the patient is not identified by name

a)

True

b)

False

68.

A form of cost-sharing that kicks in after the deductible has been met

a)

Disbursement

b)

Coinsurance

c)

Daily Journal

d)

Co-payment

69.

A document that describes items purchased or services rendered and shows the amount due

a)

Subsidiary journals

b)

Invoice

c)

Coinsurance

d)

Encounter form

70.

The properties that are owned by a business are known as assets

a)

True

b)

False

71.

The properties that are owned by a business are known as liabilities

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The equity of those to whom money is owed (creditors) are known as liabilities

a)

True

b)

False

73.

The equity of those to whom money is owed (creditors) are known as guarantors

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Generally medical practices use three basic filing systems: Alphabetic, Numeric and Subject

a)

True

b)

False

75.

The oldest, simplest and most commonly used system of filing

a)

Numeric by number

b)

Color-coding by color

c)

Alphabetic by name

d)

Subject by subject

76.

The alphabetic filing by name system is also know as the direct filing system because the only information needed for filing or retrieval is a patients name

a)

True

b)

False

77.

This type of filing allows for unlimited expansion without the need for periodic shifting of folders, or shelves; it also provides additional confidentiality to the patients chart

a)

Alphabetic by name

b)

Alphabetic Color Coding

c)

Numeric Filing

d)

Direct filing

78.

Patients may be assigned consecutive numbers but the digits are separated into groups of two or threes, and they are then read Right to Left

a)

Consecutive numeric system

b)

Terminal digit system

c)

Middle digit filing system

79.

This system of filing begins with the middle digits, followed by the fist digit and then by the terminal digits

a)

Consecutive numeric system

b)

Terminal digit system

c)

Middle digit filing

80.

This type of filing is typically reserved for general correspondence; can be alphabetic or alphanumeric

a)

Alphabetic by name

b)

Numeric Color coding

c)

Subject filing

d)

Terminal digit system

81.

What is the most commonly used service for the delivery of mail?

a)

USPS

b)

UPS

c)

FedEx

d)

Amazon

82.

The USPS is a branch of the US Government

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Can be: sealed or unsealed, typed or handwritten, a letter, post card or business mail, weighing 13 ounces or less, price for use changes regularly

a)

First-class mail

b)

Priority mail

c)

Standard mail

d)

Registered mail

e)

Insured mail

84.

First-class mail that weighs more than 13 ounces is called

a)

First-class mail

b)

Priority mail

c)

Standard mail

d)

Registered mail

e)

Insured mail

85.

This mail includes advertising, promotional, directory, or editorial material - or any combination of such material

a)

First-class mail

b)

Priority mail

c)

Standard mail

d)

Registered mail

e)

Insured mail

86.

Mail that has insurance coverage against loss or damage

a)

Certified mail

b)

Registered mail

c)

Insured mail

87.

Mail of all classes protected by registering and requesting evidence of its delivery - receiver must sign for item and then a green receipt card is mailed back to the mailer to "prove" delivery

a)

Certified mail

b)

Registered mail

c)

Insured mail

88.

First class mail that also give the mail added protection by offering insurance, tracking and return receipt options

a)

Certified mail

b)

Registered mail

c)

Insured mail

89.

A provider bought a new piece of equipment for $2,000

The office put down $500 and has a balance of $1500

What part of the equation is the provider's assets?

a)

The $500 the office put down

b)

The $1500 the provider still owes

c)

The $2000 the provider paid for the new equipment

d)

None of these sums of money are considered assets

90.
Which of the following filing systems protects patient privacy and allows for unlimited expansion? 
a)
Subject
b)
Alphabetical
c)
Numeric
d)
Chronological
91.
Which of the following forms is used to submit health insurance claims for a provider's office?
a)
UB-04
b)
CMS-1500
c)
CMS-1490S
d)
DE2501
92.
Which of the following should a medical administrative assistant complete if a provider believes Medicare might not cover a procedure?
a)
Medicare Summary Notice(MSN)
b)
Remittance Advice (RA)
c)
Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)
d)
Explanation of Benefits(EOB)
93.
Which of the following parts of Medicare pays for hospitalization?
a)
Part A
b)
Part B
c)
Part C
d)
Part D
94.
What is the purpose of a provider matrix?
a)
Create flexible waiting times for patients
b)
Determine patient appointment times
c)
Differentiate between new & established patients
d)
Designates when a provider is unavailable
95.
What is the primary reason for a CMAA to document no-shows and cancellations with less than 24 hours notice
a)
Ensure billing accuracy
b)
Expedite insurance claims
c)
Maintain schedule integrity
d)
Accurate patient records
96.
Which of the following is is the party who is financially responsible for payment?
a)
Beneficiary
b)
Adjudicator
c)
Fiscal Agent
d)
Guarantor
97.
Who is responsible for obtaining preauthorization for a scheduled hospital admission?
a)
Patient
b)
Hospital Business Office
c)
Plan Administrator
d)
Provider's Office
98.
When a patient signs an Advance Directive, who should sign as a be the witness?
a)
Attorney
b)
Family Member
c)
Non-Affliated Individual
d)
Provider
99.
Which of the following terms indicates the improper release of PHI?
a)
Libel
b)
Felony
c)
Breach of Contract
d)
Breach of Confidentiality
100.
Which of the following describes the "birthday rule" that designates who holds the primary insurance?
a)
Parent whose birth month & year occur last
b)
Parent whose DOB occurs earlier in the year
c)
Parent whose birth month & year occur earlier
d)
Parent whose DOB occurs later

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