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PS3/IPA3 Quiz 5-6

Total questions: 46

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Quiz 5: Which are formulations of oxybutynin?

a)

Rectal

b)

Topical gel

c)

Oral

d)

Patch

2.

Quiz 5: Which of the following would interact with Myrbetriq?

a)

Antihypertensive

b)

CYP2D6 substrates

c)

NSAIDs

d)

Anticholinergic drugs

3.

Quiz 5: Which of the following have both an indication for BPH and hypertension?

a)

Doxazosin

b)

Terazosin

c)

Mirabegron

d)

Tamsulosin

e)

Solifenacin

4.

Quiz 5: What are some notable side effects which patients should be counseled on when starting Cardura and other similar medications?

a)

Constipation

b)

Orthostasis

c)

Increased BP

d)

Difficulty urinating

e)

Dizziness

5.

Quiz 5: Which would have anticholinergic side effects?

a)

Avodart

b)

Flomax

c)

Vesicare

d)

Ditropan

e)

Detrol

6.

Quiz 5: Which of the following are associated with tolterodine?

a)

QTc prolongation

b)

Gynecomastia

c)

Renal dose adjustments

d)

Hepatic dose adjustments

e)

Anticholinergic side effects

7.

Quiz 5: What are some notable side effects of dutasteride?

a)

Gynecomastia

b)

Orthostasis

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Reduced libido

8.

Quiz 5: Which of the following should be dose-adjusted in renal impairment?

a)

Solifenacin

b)

Finasteride

c)

Doxazosin

d)

Mirabegron

9.

Quiz 5: Which of the following is true regarding Myrbetriq?

a)

Indicated for urinary incontinence

b)

Dose-adjusted in renal impairment

c)

Dose-adjusted in hepatic impairment

d)

Can cause increased blood pressure

e)

Extended-release tablets and extended-release oral suspension are not substitutable on a mg-per-mg basis

10.

Quiz 5: Which of the following is ONLY available by mouth?

a)

Doxazosin

b)

Mirabegron

c)

Oxybutynin

d)

Finasteride

11.

Quiz 5: Which of the following are associated with terazosin?

a)

First dose syncope

b)

Renal impairment dose adjustment

c)

Hepatic impairment

d)

Priapism

e)

Increased risk falls in elderly

12.

Quiz 5: Which of the following should have a warning on the bottle stating that pregnant women should not touch the pills (teratogenic)?

a)

Finasteride

b)

Dutasteride

c)

Oxybutynin

d)

Tamsulosin

13.

Quiz 5: What are indications for mirabegron?

a)

Neurogenic bladder

b)

Urinary incontinence

c)

Overactive bladder

d)

Urinary urgency

e)

BPH

14.

Quiz 5: Which are appropriate counseling points for patients starting Flomax?

a)

Take at bedtime

b)

May cause dizziness

c)

Take about 30 min after the same meal each day

d)

Must take with adequate fluids

15.

Quiz 5: Which of the following is available as an OTC patch to treat overactive bladder?

a)

Tamsulosin

b)

Dutasteride

c)

Oxybutynin

d)

Terazosin

16.

Quiz 5: What is the mechanism of action of Mybetriq?

a)

Direct antispasmodic effect on smooth muscle

b)

Relaxes bladder neck

c)

Blocks conversion of testosterone to DHT

d)

Relaxation of the bladder detrusor muscle

17.

Quiz 5: In addition to BPH, what other indication does finasteride have?

a)

Erectile dysfunction

b)

Hypertension

c)

Overactive bladder

d)

Male pattern baldness

18.

Quiz 5: Which are commonly seen adverse effects with Flomax?

a)

Rhinitis (runny nose)

b)

Dizziness

c)

Difficulty with ejaculation

d)

Reduction in urinary flow

e)

Glaucoma-like effects

19.

Quiz 5: Which of the following should be dose-adjusted in renal impairment?

a)

Tolterodine

b)

Tamsulosin

c)

Terazosin

d)

Oxybutynin

20.

Quiz 5: What is the mechanism of action of Avodart?

a)

Direct antispasmodic effect on smooth muscle

b)

Relaxes bladder neck

c)

Blocks conversion of testosterone to DHT

d)

Relaxation of the bladder detrusor muscle

21.

Quiz 5: Which are oral alpha-blockers?

a)

Flomax

b)

Cardura

c)

Hytrin

d)

Detrol

22.

Quiz 6: What are two drug classes in Advair?

a)

Short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA)

b)

Long-acting beta agonist (LABA)

c)

Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

d)

Long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)

e)

Short-acting beta agonist (SABA)

23.

Quiz 6: What are the two drug classes in Symbicort?

a)

Short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA)

b)

Long-acting beta agonist (LABA)

c)

Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

d)

Long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)

e)

Short-acting beta agonist (SABA)

24.

Quiz 6: How is tiotropium formulated in the US?

a)

Dry powder inhaler

b)

Respimat

c)

Nebulizer

d)

Metered dose inhaler (MDI)

25.

Quiz 6: Methylprednisolone is available in which of the following formulations?

a)

Oral

b)

Topical gel

c)

Transdermal patch

d)

Injection

e)

Suppository

26.

Quiz 6: How is fluticasone/salmeterol formulated in the US?

a)

Dry powder inhaler

b)

Respimat

c)

Nebulizer

d)

Metered dose inhaler (MDI)

27.

Quiz 6: Which of the following are indications for budesonide?

a)

Rhinitis (intranasal formulation)

b)

Crohn’s Disease (oral formulation)

c)

Asthma (inhaled formulation)

d)

COPD (inhaled formulation)

e)

Pneumonia (parenteral formulation)

28.

Quiz 6: Which are potential consequences of long-term prednisone use?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Need for tapering if planning to stop

c)

Reduction in bone density

d)

Depression / mood changes

e)

Suppressed immunity

29.

Quiz 6: Which adverse effects are expected following the use of Combivent Respimat?

a)

Shakiness

b)

Sedation

c)

Nervousness

d)

Oral thrush

e)

Dry mouth

30.

Quiz 6: What are some useful counseling points to provide to a patient prescribed Medrol DosePak?

a)

May reduce ability to fight an infection

b)

Avoid taking too close to bedtime due to possible insomnia

c)

Take with food or milk to reduce risk of stomach upset

d)

May affect blood glucose (if patient also has diabetes mellitus)

e)

May affect blood pressure (if patient also has hypertension)

31.

Quiz 6: What may be a consequence of taking tiotropium?

a)

Worsening of BPH if applicable

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Worsening of glucose control if applicable

d)

Thrush

e)

Worsening of narrow-angle glaucoma if applicable

32.

Quiz 6: What are the two drug classes in Duoneb?

a)

Short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA)

b)

Long-acting beta agonist (LABA)

c)

Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

d)

Long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)

e)

Short-acting beta agonist (SABA)

33.

Quiz 6: Which of the following is ONLY available as an oral formulation?

a)

Methylprednisolone

b)

Dexamethasone

c)

Prednisone

d)

Prednisolone

e)

Budesonide

34.

Quiz 6: How is budesonide/formoterol formulated in the US?

a)

Dry powder inhaler

b)

Respimat

c)

Nebulizer

d)

Metered dose inhaler (MDI)

35.

Quiz 6: How does Tessalon work?

a)

Numbs the uvula, thus suppressing cough

b)

Acts on NMDA receptors in medulla to raise threshold for cough

c)

Loosens and thins phlegm and bronchial secretions

d)

Acts on opioid receptors in the medulla to raise threshold for cough

36.

Quiz 6: When counseling a patient on Advair Diskus, what is important to mention?

a)

Prime before first use

b)

Shake well

c)

Keep with you for emergencies

d)

Wash mouth out after each use

37.

Quiz 6: What class of drug is Spiriva?

a)

Short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA)

b)

Long-acting beta agonist (LABA)

c)

Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

d)

Long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)

e)

Short-acting beta agonist (SABA)

38.

Quiz 6: How is levalbuterol formulated?

a)

Nebulizer

b)

Oral liquid

c)

Metered dose inhaler (MDI)

d)

Dry powder inhaler

39.

Quiz 6: Which food allergy should be considered for certain formulations of Spiriva?

a)

Gluten

b)

Shellfish

c)

Tree nut

d)

Soy

e)

Dairy/lactose

40.

Quiz 6: Which is a common and expected side effect of inhaled albuterol?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Shaking

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Sedation

41.

Quiz 6: Which of the following is correct regarding Xopenex and ProAir?

a)

ProAir is the R-enantiomer of Xopenex

b)

Xopenex is available as an oral liquid

c)

Xopenex is longer acting than ProAir

d)

Xopenex is the R-enantiomer of ProAir

42.

Quiz 6: Which of the following medications has been associated with fatal exposure in children?

a)

Benzonatate

b)

Dexamethasone

c)

Prednisone

d)

Albuterol

43.

Quiz 6: Which of the following formulations is albuterol available as in the US?

a)

Inhalation powder

b)

Metered dose inhaler (MDI)

c)

Nebulizer solution

d)

Oral

e)

Parenteral

44.

Quiz 6: Which of the following regarding budesonide is CORRECT?

a)

It is considered first-line for status asthmaticus / acute bronchospasm

b)

May lead to growth restriction in pediatrics with chronic use

c)

Patients with milk protein allergy should avoid one of the fomulations

d)

Oral dose is adjusted in patients with hepatic impairment; however not for topical / inhaled

e)

Geriatric patients should not receive the inhaled formulation

45.

Quiz 6: Which of the following regarding prednisolone are CORRECT?

a)

It is available as an oral formulation

b)

It is available as an ophthalmic solution

c)

May exacerbate conditions related to dyspepsia

d)

May exacerbate psychiatric disorders

e)

Highly sedative

46.

Quiz 6: Select all of the inhaled medications which can be used in an asthma exacerbation

a)

Combivent

b)

ProAir

c)

Xopenex

d)

Pulmocort

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