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DMS Summative 2

Total questions: 44

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Base of Support increases as the distance between

feet increases

a)

True

b)

False

2.

What would be the best option for the pelvic rotation mechanism when we are walking?

a)

Pelvic rotation in transverse plane minimize drop in center of gravity by effectively lengthening the limbs

b)

Pelvic minimizes rise in CoG by effectively shortening limb

c)

Hip abductors and erector spinae muscle work to minimize pelvic rotation

d)

M. iliopsoas as the prime mover of the pelvic rotation

3.

The smaller the BOS, the higher stability we have

a)

True

b)

False

4.

syndesmosis is one of the type of synarthrosis joints which is immoveable

a)

True

b)

False

5.

What do rotator cuff muscles responsible for?

a)

Responsible to produce circumduction in shoulder (combination of flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation)

b)

maintaining the stability of the shoulder joint by keeping the humeral head in the glenoid fossa

c)

responsible for the lateral flexion of the shoulder

d)

no function

6.

What is the prime flexor of the knee joint?

a)

Tibialis anterior

b)

Extensor digitorum longus

c)

hamstring muscles

d)

quadriceps femoris muscles

7.

How can we differentiate Fibrocartilage with the other types of cartilage?

a)

Associated with hyaline cartilage and with the dense connective tissue

b)

The matrix is impregnated with elastic fiber which gives the tissue its accentuated resilience and flexibility

c)

present in the nose, larynx, ventral ends of ribs, articulating surfaces of movable joints of the body, tracheal rings, and bronchi

d)

Most common cartilage of the body

8.

There was a boy named Biels who once dreamed of winning a 40km marathon. He worked hard everyday only to find he wasn’t talented and fit enough to participate in the 40km marathon. So he gave up and became a medstud instead to learn muscle and stuff. What kind of muscle is the best for marathon runners?

a)

White muscle

b)

Cardiac muscle

c)

Red muscle

d)

Muscle

9.

What would be the best option for zones of ossification characteristic?

a)

Active mitosis among chondrocytes which form parallel stacks of crowded flattened cells

b)

The matrix between cells become impregnated with calcium and phosphorus and stains basophilic

c)

Enlargement of chondrocytes which accumulate the glycogen

d)

Reabsorption of spongy bone in the center of the diaphysis enlarges the medullary cavity

10.

What happens when PTH is given intermittently?

a)

RANKL will increase while the OPG will decrease

b)

Matrix production and formation will decrease

c)

Formation of the bonnet will increase and the differentiation will increase

d)

It becomes catabolic

11.

Which of the following is TRUE about the etiology of osteoporosis in menopause?

a)

Increased expression of RANK and RANKL

b)

Increased serum estrogen

c)

Increased osteoblast activity

d)

Decreased synthetic activity of osteoblast

12.

The resorption phase in the bone remodeling cycle lasts for months

a)

True

b)

False

13.

During skeletal muscle contraction, The A band of the sarcomere becomes shortened

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The highly ordered arrangement of myofilaments and triads allows skeletal muscles to contract efficiently

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Nabiel decides to exercise using a dumbbell after a stressful day. What type of skeletal muscle contraction is he using when he lifts the dumbbell towards his body?

a)

isometric contraction

b)

tetanus contraction

c)

Concentric contraction

d)

Eccentric contraction

16.

A general practitioner in Indonesia can make a Visum et Repertum

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Which article (pasal) states that “setiap orang yang diminta penndapatnya sebagai ahli kedokteran kehakiman atau dokter dan atau ahli lainnya wajib memberikan keterangan ahli demi keadilan.”

a)

KUHAP pasal 133

b)

KUHP pasal 133

c)

KUHAP pasal 120

d)

KUHAP pasal 179

18.

Which of the following is NOT a legal evidence?

a)

Expert’s statement (keterangan ahli)

b)

Doctor’s statement (surat keterangan medis)

c)

Defendant’s statement (keterangan terdakwa)

d)

Letter (Surat)

19.

what is the most important bone protein ?

a)

elastin

b)

collagen

c)

polysaccharide

d)

albumin

20.

which of these is not a function of calcium?

a)

blood clotting

b)

complement activation

c)

maintain excitability of neurons

d)

gives flexibility to bone

21.

Which of these is a physiological osteoblast-osteoclast imbalance?

a)

high blood alkalike phosphatase levels

b)

hyperactive GH

c)

excessive Ca deposition

d)

hyperparathyroidism

22.

which of these is a calcium binding protein

a)

osteopontin

b)

osteonectin

c)

osteocalin

d)

thrombosponsin

23.

which of these is false

a)

reduction in bone mass is happening to everyone gradually as they age

b)

osteopetrosis is characterized by abnormal osteoclast function

c)

osteoporosis is easily diagnosed using radiographs

d)

people with osteoporosis have a more curved spine

24.

Which is the cell that is responsible for Rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

CD4 cell

b)

B cell

c)

plasma cell

d)

lymphocyte

25.

Which is true about osteoarthritis

a)

edema of the joint

b)

deposition of uric acid crystals

c)

cartilage is all/almost all degraded

d)

loss of vascularization of bone

26.

Which is not a preventative measure for osteoporosis

a)

reduce alcohol consumpton

b)

weight bearing exercise

c)

protein consumption

d)

medication

27.

etiology of mycoplasma arthritis

a)

M tuberculosis

b)

e.coli

c)

mycoplasma hominis

d)

klebsiella

28.

Reduction treatment for femoral and neck fracture in children

a)

Closed reduction with external fixation

b)

Closed reduction with immobilization

c)

Closed reduction with continuous traction

d)

Closed reduction + closed pinning

29.

Pick the correct match of mechanism of injury and fracture pattern

a)

Twisting force - Short oblique fracture

b)

Tension force - Butterfly fragment

c)

Compression force - short oblique fracture

d)

Bending force - spiral fracture

30.

Which one is NOT the primary malignant tumor that causes pathological fracture?

a)

Osteosarcoma

b)

Chondrosarcoma

c)

Carcinoma in breaset and kidney

d)

Ewings tumor

31.

Analgesic drug given to patients with MILD PAIN according to WHO 3-step analgesic ladder

a)

Codein

b)

Epidurals

c)

Propoxyphen

d)

NSAID

32.

Which one that will increase thrombosis and cause vasoconstriction

a)

COX-1

b)

COX-2

33.

Drugs that specifically mainly focus on COX-1 inhibition

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Celecoxib

c)

Indomethacin

d)

Meclofenamate

34.

Which are NOT the following Radiological appearance of Rheumatoid Arthritis

a)

Uric acid crystal desposition

b)

Sclerotic area

c)

Cartilage erosion

d)

Bone becomes darker

35.

“Sandwich vertebrae” found in ?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteopetrosis

c)

Hyperparathyroidism

d)

Gout

36.

What is the appropriate exercise for patient with hip OA?

a)

ROM exercise and weight loss

b)

high intensity workout

c)

isotonic exercise with leg work

d)

push up

37.

Among these is physical modalities in PMR to treat knee injury..

a)

Aquatic exercise

b)

corset

c)

spinal orthoses

d)

sling and swathe

38.

cryotherapy is cold therapy, can be done by applying ice pack on the site of injury.

a)

true

b)

false

39.

A 45 years old man came to the clinic with complaints of joint pain. He can point out where the pain is, and the pain has been 8 weeks. Upon examination you can see swelling in PIP and DIP. on radiology there is spur formation and sub-condyle sclerosis. What is most plausible diagnosis?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Gout arthritis

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

Pseudogout

40.

What is the definite diagnosis of gout arthritis?

a)

tophus appearance upon biopsy

b)

uric acid titer is 4 mg/dL

c)

chronic palmar MIP joint swelling

d)

history of hip arthroplasty

41.

when DMARD should be considered for use in patient with RA?

a)

the patient has contraindication of MTX

b)

no good prognosis after 3 months and acute GA after 6 months after MTX and low-dose glucocorticoid

c)

the patient has peptic ulcer and history of kidney disease

d)

good prognosis after 3 months and no acute GA after 6 months after MTX and low-dose glucocorticoid

42.

Among these, what is the prophylactic pharmacological treatment in patients with open fracture?

a)

antibiotics

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Steroids

d)

opioids

43.

among these included in internal fixation procedure..

a)

Traction

b)

immobilization using cervical spine

c)

fixating distal portion of bone using plate and screws

d)

amputation of the limb

44.

What type of fracture is this?

a)

comminuted

b)

compound

c)

oblique

d)

transverse