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Đề TM Testing Genius Part 2

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

51. System test closure activities occur;

I. After system exit criteria are met.
II. After acceptance testing is over.
III. After all project activities are finished.
IV. After the execution of all test cases.

a)

A. A five level staged framework for test process improvement

b)

B. II and IV are true

c)

C. I, II, III are true

d)

D. All of them are true

2.

52. Which of the following is a typical method of testing progress?

a)

A. Percentage of units coded

b)

B. Percentage defect breakdown by severity

c)

C. Percentage of test cases run and passed

d)

D. Percentage defect breakdown by priority

3.

53. Which of the following is a way to build the team knowledge and increase flexibility?

a)

A. Bonuses

b)

B. Cross-training

c)

C. Employee ranking

d)

D. Selective firing

4.

54. Which of the statements are correct?

I. There are two types of process improvement models as per the ISTQB Syllabus; Process reference model and content reference model.
II. Evaluation of an organization within the framework is called process reference model.
III. Software development and software testing processes can be improved using process improvement models.
IV. “Define and Redefine” is one of the steps that can be adopted during “process improvement” process.

a)

A. I, II, III true

b)

B. II, III false

c)

C. All of them are true

d)

D. All of them are false

5.

55. What is a defect taxonomy?

a)


A. A system of hierarchical categories designed to be a useful aid for reproducibly classifying defects

b)

B. A tool that facilitates the recording and status tracking of defects and changes

c)

C. A document reporting on any flaw in a system that can cause the system to fail to perform its required function

d)

D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number of defects that were present during that phase

6.

56. In an organization following an IEEE 829 test documentation standard, which of the following documents would you expect to receive immediately prior to beginning test execution?

a)

A. Test plan

b)

B. Test item transmittal report

c)

C. Test procedure specification

d)

D. Test summary report

7.

57. Which of the following captures a key difference between STEP, TMMI, TPI and CTP?

a)


A. CTP and STEP provide prescriptive roadmaps while TMMI and TPI provide means to assess improvement benefits

b)

B. TPI and STEP provide prescriptive roadmaps while TMMI and CTP provide means to assess improvement benefits

c)

C. TPI and TMMI provide prescriptive roadmaps while STEP and CTP provide means to assess improvement benefits

d)

D. TMMI and STEP provide prescriptive roadmaps while TPI and CTP provide means to assess improvement benefits

8.

58. When selecting/hiring team members to an existing team, team dynamics must be considered. Which of the following should be considered when selecting staff to a team?
I. Consider mix of technical skills and personality
II. Each person should have a defined role
III. Cross-training within teams
IV. Knowledge of software lifecycle

a)

A. I, II and III true

b)

B. I, II true

c)

C. IV true

d)

D. All of the above

9.

59. Which of the following is part of a test case according to the IEEE 829 standard?

a)

A. Exit criteria

b)

B. Output specifications

c)

C. Feature pass/fail criteria

d)

D. Risks and contingencies

10.

60. According to the ISO 9126 standard, which of the following statements is true

about the security of a system?

a)


A. Security is a functional sub characteristic

b)

B. Security is a non-functional sub characteristic

c)

C. Security is an efficiency sub characteristic

d)

D. Security is not addressed in the ISO 9126 standard

11.

61. What is TMM?


a)

A. A five level staged framework for test process improvement

b)

B. A continuous framework for test process

improvement

c)

C. A framework for effective product development

d)

D. A measure of the size of the functionality

12.

62. Which of the following statements are true?

I. Test automation tools can be used only for one project.
II. To avoid human data comparison mistakes, test data comparison tool can be used.
III. A company can utilize multiple test tools to efficiently perform their test activities.
IV. Purchasing suite of test tools from the same vendor guarantees that the tools will work together.

a)

A. II, III true. I,IV false

b)

B. I, II true. III,IV false

c)

C. II, III, IV true. I false

d)

D. I, II, IV true. III false

13.

63. Which of the following is an IEEE 829 template that contains a section entitled

“Features Not to Be Tested”?

a)

A. Test plan

b)

B. Test item transmittal report

c)

C. Test design specification

d)

D. Test policy

14.

64. Select the correct statements about safety critical systems;

I. Risk management reduces the likelihood and / or impact of a risk.
II. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) technique is used mainly for safety critical systems.
III. All safety critical systems are subject to sector specific regulations only.
IV. Full traceability from requirements to evidence is required in some safety critical systems

a)

A. I, II, IV true, III false

b)

B. II, III, IV true, I false

c)

C. I, IV true, II, III false

d)

D. All of the above true

15.

65. Which of the following is a cost of quality that accounts for a portion of the testing budget?

a)

A. External failure

b)

B. Internal failure

c)

C. Probe effect

d)

D. Project risk

16.

66. Which of the following can be a task in the test closure activities?

a)

A. Writing a test summary report

b)

B. Writing an incident report

c)

C. Writing a test plan

d)

D. Writing a test log

17.

67. Which of the following is a test design technique covered in BS 7925/2 that can be

converted into a decision table?

a)

A. Boundary value analysis

b)

B. State transition diagram

c)

C. Cause-effect graph

d)

D. Statement coverage

18.

Q. 68: Which of the following lists the steps in the IEEE 1044 lifecycle in proper order?

a)

A. Recognition, Action, Investigation, Disposition

b)

B. Recognition, Investigation, Action, Disposition

c)

C. Discovery, Action, Investigation, Resolution

d)

D. Discovery, Investigation, Action, Resolution

19.

69. Select the correct statement regarding test planning and control

a)

A. Test controlling is a one-time activity that will occur at the beginning of the test effort.

b)

B. Test planning includes identifying test activities and resources required for the test effort.

c)

C. Complex relationships (many to many, one to many) cannot exist among test conditions, test cases and test procedures.

d)

D. Risk and Test coverage is not a metric for test planning and control.

20.

70. What is a review?

a)

A. An evaluation of a product or project status to ascertain discrepancies from planned results and to recommend improvements.

b)

B. An independent evaluation of software products or processes to ascertain compliance to standards, guidelines, specifications, and/or procedures.

c)

C. Testing of software or specification by manual simulation of its execution.

d)

D. A systematic evaluation of software acquisition, supply, development, operation, or maintenance process, performed by or on behalf of management.

21.

71. Scenario: You work for a company that produces Ground X-ray machines and have just been assigned to work as the Test Manager on a newly-started project developing PC-based software to interpret the output from such machines using complex mathematical formulae. The software will be developed to work with the output from all Ground X-ray machines (including those from other manufacturers),

which output the X-ray data to an agreed international standard (note that this standard is currently in the process of being updated). The unique setting point of the new software will be that it provides users with a graphical user interface; while current similar software packages (both from your company and others) do not have this feature.It has been decided that the V life cycle model shall be used, using the following development phases.

# Analyze and Specify Software Requirements
# Specify Software Design
# Detailed Component Design
# CodingGiven the following test phases:

i. Component Testing
ii. Non-Functional Testing
iii. Component Integration Testing
iv. Hardware – Software Integration Testing
v. System Testing
Vi. Regression Testing
Assuming that acceptance testing will be included in your project test plan, which of the above would you also include?

a)

A. ii, iii, iv

b)

B. ii, iv, vi

c)

C. I, iii, v

d)

D. i, v, vi

22.

72. Which ONE of the following do you believe is the greatest risk to this software?

a)

A. The software will not be compatible with other manufacturer’s machines

b)

B. The complex mathematical formulae will not be implemented correctly

c)

C. The software will not be compatible with the new international standard

d)

D. The usability of the graphical user interface is poor

23.

73. Which ONE of the following do you believe would add greatest value

to the testing on this project?


a)

A. Employing external usability testing expertise

b)

B. Using inspections on the development outputs

c)

C. Auditing compliance with the X-ray data standard

d)

D. Requiring 100% decision coverage of all code

24.

74. Which ONE of the following would you support as an approach to be used for

acceptance testing of this software?

a)

A. Contract acceptance testing

b)

B. Alpha testing

c)

C. Beta testing

d)

D. Factory acceptance testing

25.

75. Scenario: Your test team has been created by transferring the testers who previously worked on prior versions of the X-ray interpretation software, although one of those most familiar with the complex formulae has gone on maternity leave. It has been agreed that this team member can be replaced, and testers with the following traits are available for selection.

Which ONE of would you choose to join your test team?


a)

A. With a background in X-ray interpretation formulae

b)

B. Qualified to ISTQB Advanced Test Analyst level

c)

C. Experience in GUI test automation

d)

D. Experienced in usability testing

26.

76. Scenario: A rival company has announced that they are developing a competing software product and their published date for release is one month ahead of your planned release date, which is currently b months away. The project manager- has been told to move your release date to just 4 month’s time.

Which ONE of the following suggestions would you support to accomplish this reduction:

a)

A. Change to an agile life cycle

b)

B. Increase resources for development and testing

c)

C. Change to a two stage incremental life cycle with the formulae and the user interface as the two stages

d)

D. Reduce the planned testing

27.

77. Which of the following life cycles do you believe is most likely being used on this project?

a)

A. V

b)

B. Spiral

c)

C. Agile

d)

D. W

28.

78. Which of the following types of test management document

do you believe you have been given?

a)

A. Master Test Plan

b)

B. Phase Test Plan

c)

C. Test Strategy

d)

D. Test Policy

29.

79. Give the following figures for the testing on a project, and assuming the failure rate

for initial tests remains constant and that all retests pass, what number of tests remain to be run.

Tests planned: 1000

Initial tests run: 500

Initial tests passed: 350

Retests run: 80

a)

A. 700

b)

B. 720

c)

C. 784

d)

D. 570

30.

80. Scenario: The following figures for the testing on a project (with three main functions) show the number of risks at different levels of risk exposure identified and analyzed and the number subsequently mitigated bar the testing.

a)

A. Risk-based testing was not used on the project

b)

B. Risk based testing was used to target the highest risk functions

c)

C. Risk-based testing was used to target the lowest risk functions

d)

D. Risk-based testing was used to target the highest level risks

31.

81. Which ONE of the following statements most closely reflects the risk in the project

before and after the mitigation by testing?

a)

A. Function C is now the lowest risk function

b)

B. Only two high level risks have not been mitigated

c)

C. Function B is now the highest risk function

d)

D. The most risks were mitigated in Function C

32.

82. Which of the following is the primary test basis for acceptance testing?

a)

A. High-level design specification

b)

B. Low-level design specification

c)

C. Requirements specification

d)

D. Defect reports from earlier releases

33.

83. Which of the following is a general testing principle from the ISTQB Foundation syllabus?

a)

A. Probe effect

b)

B. Defect clustering

c)

C. Boundary value analysis

d)

D. Incident reporting

34.

84. You are working as the system test manager on a large project. Following an

incremental lifecycle model, the development team plans to deliver three bundles of features, labeled Critical, Important, and Enhancing, to the test team on the first working day of March, April, and May, respectively. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A. There is no need to write a system test plan for a project that is following an incremental lifecycle model, as such plans are only written for V-model projects.

b)

B. The system test plan should include an entry criterion that requires a feature complete build delivered to system test prior to any test execution.

c)

C. The system test plan should govern which specific features are included in each of the three bundles, and disallow any changes in that feature selection.

d)


D. The system test plan should specify how the test team will perform regression testing for the Critical and Important features when the Enhancing bundle of features is delivered.

35.

85. You are working on a project to develop a browser-based information system for a state legislature. You are the system test manager. The system test team is responsible for functional and non-functional testing. During the requirements specification period, the test team leads a quality risk analysis effort for the project. The quality risk analysis identifies over 25 different defects in the requirements specification, including a situation where the number of concurrent users of the system was significantly under-estimated. Which of the following is a way in which this early testing activity directly benefits test execution?

a)

A. By raising the stature of the test team in the eyes of project management.

b)

B. By demonstrating the fallibility of the business analysts who wrote the requirements specification.

c)

C. By providing reasons to cancel the project prior to wasting too much money on it.

d)

D. By preventing bugs that would otherwise arise during test execution.

36.

86. You are working as the test manager on a project to allow customers to make on-line home mortgage loan applications. The bank has provided a flowchart that shows the decision points for determining whether someone can receive a loan, and, if so, for how much and at what interest rate. This document is likely to be the most important input for which of the following test process activities?

a)

A. To write a test plan

b)

B. To generate exit criteria

c)

C. To design functional test cases

d)

D. To design non-functional test cases

37.

87. Assume you are responsible for system testing of an embedded system that is used to control a gas station fuel pump. Assume that you have received a functional specification, but no specification of non-functional characteristics like response time, reliability, or security. Which of the following statements is tare?

a)

A. You should attempt to get information that will allow you to develop non-functional tests as well as functional tests

b)

B. System testing never addresses non-functional characteristics, so this is not a problem

c)

C. Non-functional characteristics are not important for embedded systems like this one

d)

D. You can assume these non-functional characteristics were addressed in integration testing

38.

88. A company is developing a new type of software application and wants very much to be first to market. The system test execution period is scheduled for twelve weeks.

Four weeks into system test execution, the marketing manager learns that their closest competitor is within six weeks of releasing a version of this type of application. He convinces the project management team to release the application as it currently exists, removing four features which are too buggy for delivery and documenting workarounds or limitations for the other known bugs. This decision violates the exit criteria defined in the system test plan.

The four withheld features, fixes for the remaining known bugs, plus any additional bug fixes or enhancements requested by early adopters, are to be delivered in a maintenance release due out thirteen weeks after initial release.

Which of the following statements about this situation is certainly true?

a)

A. This release decision was ill advised, as the quality problems will definitely cost the company market share.

b)

B. The test manager should resign in protest to protect her reputation from being associated with such a poor product.

c)

C. There are no consequences associated with making decisions like this, as quality levels are really quite arbitrary.

d)

D. The maintenance release will need significant regression testing if the company wants to ensure the features which are released now are not broken by that release

39.

Q. 89. You are working as a test manager at an organization that maintains an existing, profitable family of applications. Releases to these applications undergo a different number of levels of testing and a different extent of testing depending on whether the release is considered low, medium, or high risk. Which of the following is a test management document where you would find a discussion of how to determine the risk of a release, the levels of testing required, and the extent of testing?

a)

A. Test strategy

b)

B. System test plan

c)

C. Component test plan

d)

D. Test design specification

40.

90. Consider the following excerpt from a system test plan:

Tests shall be run in four stages, with all tests within a stage run before the next stage is started. The stages are formed by dividing the system test set into four non-overlapping subsets as follows:

1. To identify the tests for stage one, select one test for each very high and high risk items identified in the quality risk analysis.
2. To identify the tests for stage two, select one test for each major functional area identified in the system requirements.
3. To identify the tests for stage three, select one test for each other risk item identified in the quality risk analysis for which test cases were generated.
4. Stage four consists of all remaining tests.

In which section of an IEEE 829-compliant test plan would you expect to find this statement?

a)

A. Approach

b)

B. Risks and contingencies

c)

C. Staffing and training needs

d)

D. Exit criteria

41.

91. What is a test level?

a)

A. The individual element to be tested

b)

B. A group of test activities that are organized and managed together

c)

C. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests

d)

D. A source to determine expected results to compare with the actual result

42.

92. While planning for a project, you predict that each one thousand (1,400) new or changed lines of code will contain 50 defects when delivered for system testing, based on historical averages for your organization. The development manager tells you that she has estimated 50,000 new or changed lines of code for this project.

During system testing, the system test team discovers approximately 4,000 defects before the system is finally released. The test execution period lasts about 500 longer than estimated.
Given the information above, what can you say is certainly true about this project?

a)

A. More new or changed lines of code were delivered than planned,

b)

B. More defects per 1,000 new or changed tines of code were found.

c)

C. The increase in test execution time was proportional to the increase in defects.

d)

D. The development team experienced staff turnover during the project.

43.

93. Consider the following potentials benefits and risks associated with writing a test plan whip the requirements specification is being finalized:

1. Arranging support from other project participants
2. Identifying requirements that create test project risks
3. Revising the test plan when requirements are finalized
4. Canceling the project (and the test effort) if sponsors do not approve requirements identifying requirements that create product (quality) risks

Which are potential benefits and which are risks?

a)

A. Benefits: 2, 3, 5; Risks: f , 4

b)

B. Benefits: 2, 3; Risks: I, 4, 5

c)

C. Benefits: 1, 2, 5; Risks: 3, 4

d)

D. Benefits: 1; Risks: 21 3, 4, 5

44.

94. Consider the following table, which shows major risk categories, test results, and bugs.

(Image)

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A. Significant risks remain in the category of functionality

b)

B. Significant risks remain in the category of usability

c)

C. No risks remain in the category of maintainability

d)

D. No risks remain in the category of portability

45.

95. Consider the following project activities:

I. Write the project plan
II. Write the test plan
III. Assign developers to fix hogs
IV. Report test status
V. Obtain project sponsors
Test estimation addresses which of these activities?

a)

A. II, III, and IV only

b)

B. I, II, and lII only

c)

C. I and I only

d)

D. II and IV only

46.

96. You are writing a system test plan and are describing the test items. Consider the following project team members:

I. Release engineering manager
ii. Project manager
III. Technical support manager
IV. Marketing manager
V. Business analyst

With whom are you most likely to collaborate when writing this section of the test plan?

a)

A. I and III

b)

B. IV and V

c)

C. I and II

d)

D. II and III

47.

97. Consider the following events that can occur during test execution:

I. A test passes
II. A test reveals a bug
III. A test release is delivered late to testing
IV. A tester resigns
V. A confirmation test passes

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A. I, II, and III reduce quality risk

b)

B. I, II, and V reduce quality risk

c)

C. II, IV, and V reduce quality risk

d)

D. II, Ill, and IV reduce quality risk

48.

98. Which of the following statements captures the difference between project (planning)

and product (quality) risks?

a)

A. Project risks have a higher likelihood, while product risks have a higher impact

b)

B. Product risks can be eliminated by use of good technology, while project risks always exist

c)

C. Project risks affect all project stakeholders, while product risks affect only testers

d)

D. Product risks affect the success of the product, while project risks affect the success of the project

49.

99. Assume you are developing a product for mass-market sales. Suppose that a

risk analysis identifies potential performance defects as a high-level risk. Which of the

following statements is true?

a)

A. You should wait until system test execution to reduce the performance risks.

b)

B. You should assume that your customers would deal with performance risks.

c)

C. You should identify actions to take throughout the lifecycle to reduce the performance risks.

d)

D. You should assume that the development manager would deal with performance risks.

50.

100. A requirements specification contains the following excerpt:

The system messages shall score at or below the 8th grade reading level on the Flesch-Kincaid grade level scale.

Which of the following quality risk items can be derived from this requirements specification excerpt?

a)

A. Messages returned too slow

b)

B. Messages lost behind active window

c)

C. Messages presented in the wrong language

d)

D. Messages too difficult to understand