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Y8 Mega Quiz 23/24

Total questions: 217

Worksheet time: 2hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Law of reflection state that - The angle of incidence is .................. to the angle of reflection.
a)
equal
b)
double
c)
half
2.

According to the Law of reflection, a light ray striking a mirror will?

a)

bounces off the mirror toward the direction it came from

b)

bounces off the mirror at the same angle it hits.

3.
What is the line MN called in the given diagram
                               
a)
incident ray
b)
reflected ray
c)
reflecting surface
d)
normal
4.
What is A?
a)
Angle of incidence
b)
Angle of reflection
c)
Incident ray
d)
Reflected ray
5.

Given that the angle of incidence = 30 degrees
a. Draw a ray diagram, labelling clearly the normal, incident ray, angle of incidence, reflected ray and angle of reflection accurately.
Which is the correct diagram? 

a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
6.
A material that reflects or absorbs all of the light that strikes it is called which of the following? 
a)
Transparent
b)
Translucent
c)
Diffuse
d)
Opaque
7.

A student placed a pencil in a cup of water. The pencil appears broken because light

a)

always travels in a straight line.

b)

bends when it passes through water.

c)

makes the water in the glass evaporate.

d)

reflects the pencil on the water's surface.

8.

Swimming pools and the ocean look shallower than they really are due to?

a)

refraction

b)

reflection

9.

Which of the following shows the principle of light refraction? Tick the correct answers.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

E

e)

F

10.
How does light behave as it enters these mediums?
a)
continue its path as straight line.
b)
bends toward the normal
c)
bends away from the normal
d)
reflects
11.

A ray of light in air is incident at an angle on one side of a rectangular glass block, as shown. Which ray diagram correctly describes the complete path of the ray of light?


(Determine if light bends towards or away from normal at each boundary)

a)
b)
c)
d)
12.

Which of the following is NOT a primary color of light?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Yellow

d)

Green

13.

How many components of white light?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

14.

Why is the spectrum of light seperated into its components of colour when white light is directed to a prism?

a)

The different colours in the white light bend away from the normal line at different angles when entering prism

b)

The different colours in the white light bend towards the normal line at different angles when entering prism

c)

The different colours in the white light bend away from the normal at same speed to each other when entering prism

d)

The different colours in the white light bend towards the normal at same speed to each other when entering prism

15.

these are examples of phenomenon of scattering of light except

a)

Sky appears blue at midday

b)

Sky appears reddish in the evening

c)

Rainbow after rain

16.

Which of the following correctly places these in order from LARGEST to SMALLEST?

a)

galaxy -- local group/cluster -- planet -- solar system -- universe

b)

universe -- local group/cluster -- galaxy -- solar system -- planet

c)

planet -- solar system -- galaxy -- local group/cluster -- universe

d)

universe -- galaxy -- solar system -- local group/cluster -- planet

17.

A Group of stars, and or star systems, star clusters, dust and gas held together by gravity is known as:

a)

Universe

b)

Galaxy

c)

Solar System

d)

Planet

18.

What Galaxy is Earth located?

a)

Andromeda

b)

Milky Way

c)

Sagittarius

d)

Snickers

19.

How many main sequence stars is in our solar system?

a)

2

b)

8

c)

1

d)

None

20.

I am located between Mars and Jupiter.

a)

Comet belt

b)

Asteroid belt

c)

Meteor belt

d)

Stars

21.

What unit is used to measure distances in space?

a)

Light year

b)

Kilometer

c)

Miles

d)

Solar unit

22.

Which object would have a stronger force of gravity?

a)

The moon

b)

The Earth

c)

A person

d)

A mouse

23.

What is the force that pulls objects together called?

a)

Rotation

b)

Revolution

c)

Orbit

d)

Gravity

24.

How many planets are in our solar system?

a)

9

b)

8

c)

7

d)

6

25.

The Earth is the ______ planet from the sun.

a)

8th

b)

5th

c)

4th

d)

3rd

26.

Which of the following is part of a solar system?

a)

Star

b)

Planets

c)

Moons

d)

All of the above

27.

The sun is a star.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

A star reflects light.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

How long is one full revolution on Earth?

a)

1 day

b)

1 year

c)

24 hours

d)

24 years

30.

How long is one full rotation on Earth?

a)

24 minutes

b)

24 days

c)

1 day

d)

1 hour

31.

One year is the same as ___________ days

a)

300

b)

365

c)

563

d)

24

32.

1 day is the same as __________ hours.

a)

1

b)

12

c)

24

d)

48

33.

In what direction does the sun rise?

a)

North

b)

East

c)

South

d)

West

34.

The sun appears to move across the sky each day because ______.

a)

the Earth is rotating on its axis

b)

the Earth is revolving around the sun.

c)

the sun moves across the sky

35.
What causes seasons?
a)
The distance of a planet from the sun
b)
The gravitational pull of the Earth and Moon
c)
The tilt and revolution of Earth around the sun
d)
Changing temperatures on Earth
36.
What happens when the area you live in tilts away from the sun?
a)
It is summer
b)
It is spring
c)
It is fall
d)
It is winter
37.
If it is winter in the Northern Hemisphere, what season is it in the Southern Hemisphere?
a)
Spring
b)
Fall
c)
Winter
d)
Summer
38.
To "revolve" means to _________________
a)
rotate
b)
spin
c)
move
d)
orbit
39.
When a planet spins on its axis, it is said to ___________________.
a)
orbit
b)
rotate
c)
revolve
d)
eclipse
40.
What causes the different phases of the moon?
a)
Earth's shadow falling on the moon
b)
The change in the positions of Earth, the moon, and the sun
c)
The change in Earth's position in its orbit around the sun
d)
The moon's revolution around Earth
41.
How does tides form?
a)
by the earth going around the sun
b)
the earth going around the moon
c)
the sun going around the mars
d)
the moon going around the earth
42.

Light travels through air, water, glass and many other materials. What path does it travel to get from one place to another?

a)

sideways

b)

back and forth

c)

straight

d)

up and down

43.
What force holds the planets in motion around the sun?
a)
Magnetic
b)
Electrical
c)
Gravitational
d)
Air Resistance
44.
a)
Reflection
b)
Refraction
45.
Most of the elements on the periodic table are classified as _____.
a)
Metals
b)
Nonmetals
c)
Metalloids
d)
Periods
46.
These are found on the Periodic Table.
a)
Compounds
b)
Elements
c)
Mixtures
47.

Metals are found on the ______________ side of the periodic table.

a)

nonmetals

b)

left

c)

right

d)

metals

48.
Each column in the periodic table is called a _________ .
a)
period
b)
group
c)
cluster
d)
unit
49.
Two elements chemically bonded form
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
mixture
d)
solutions
50.
Periods on the periodic table are __________.
a)
Horizontal Rows
b)
Vertical Columns
51.
Groups on the periodic table are __________.
a)
Horizontal Rows
b)
Vertical Columns
52.

Elements in the same group have : (2 correct answers)

a)

Similar chemical properties

b)

Similar names

c)

Same number of outer (valence) electrons)

d)

The same number of protons

53.

one or two letters that represent the name of an element

a)

element name

b)

element symbol

c)

atomic number

d)

atomic mass

54.

Which group of the periodic table is composed of inert (not reactive) gases?

answer choices

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

halogens

d)

noble gases

55.

Which is an alkali metal?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Iron

c)

Sodium

d)

Europium

56.

Which is a halogen?

a)

Helium

b)

Chlorine

c)

Oxygen

d)

Neptune

57.

Elements in a .................. have similar chemical properties.

a)

period

b)

group

c)

row

58.

Name this group: These metals are the most reactive.

a)
b)
c)
d)
59.

Choose all the items that are elements.

a)

NaCl (table salt)

b)

Sulfur

c)

O2

d)

Water

e)

Air

60.

Choose all of the items that are compounds.

a)

NaCl (table salt)

b)

Sulfur

c)

O2

d)

Water

e)

Air

61.

Choose all of the items that are mixtures

a)

NaCl (table salt)

b)

Sulfur

c)

O2

d)

water

e)

Air

62.

Students in Mrs. Clark's science class are investigating a substance that has the following properties

-shiny

-bends easily

-hard, not easily broken


Based on these properties how would you classify the substance?

a)

metal

b)

nonmetal

c)

metalloid

63.
The Modern Periodic Table of Elements is arranged by
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
valence electrons
d)
number of isotopes
64.
Sodium (Na) is found in group 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
65.
The atomic number tells you what?  READ THE ANSWERS CAREFULLY
a)
only the number of electrons
b)
 only the number of protons
c)
only the number of neutrons
d)
the number of both electrons and protons in an atom.
66.
What does the atomic mass tell you? 
a)
Basically,the number of electrons and protons
b)
The number of neutrons
c)
Basically, the number of protons and neutrons
d)
The number of protons.
67.
What does the 6 represent?
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
element name
d)
chemical symbol 
68.
What does 12.011 represent?
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
element name
d)
chemical symbol 
69.

neutron

a)

A subatomic particle that has a positive charge and that is found in the nucleus of an atom

b)

not able to conduct heat or electricity, little to no metallic luster

c)

A subatomic particle that has a negative charge

d)

A small particle in the nucleus of the atom, with no electrical charge

70.

A subatomic particle that has a positive charge and that is found in the nucleus of an atom

a)

Proton

b)

elecrtron

c)

groups

d)

neutrons

71.

A subatomic particle that has a negative charge

a)

nobles gases

b)

protons

c)

electrons

d)

neutrons

72.

What is the first part of the digestive system that your food travels though?

a)

stomach

b)

mouth

c)

small intestine

d)

esophagus

73.

What is the second part of the digestive system that your food travels though?

a)

stomach

b)

mouth

c)

small intestine

d)

esophagus

74.

What is the third part of the digestive system that your food travels though?

a)

stomach

b)

mouth

c)

small intestine

d)

exophagus

75.

What is the fourth part of the digestive system that your food travels though?

a)

stomach

b)

mouth

c)

small intestine

d)

esophagus

76.

What are the three parts of the mouth that help with digestion?

a)

saliva

b)

taste buds

c)

teeth

d)

gums

e)

tongue

77.

Which of the following is NOT an example of dairy?

a)

yogurt

b)

milk

c)

cheese

d)

Cheerios

78.

Which of the following is TRUE about fiber?

a)

It is a nutrient that comes in two forms: natural and added. The natural form is much better for you than the added form.

b)

a mineral that our body needs in small amounts to

help muscles relax and contract. This nutrient also helps move blood throughout your body (blood pressure)

c)

a nutrient that helps digest and pass foods that

we eat and makes our bodies absorb sugar more slower

79.

Which of these is a good source of fiber?

a)

a hamburger

b)

cheese

c)

bacon

d)

whole grain bread

80.

Where does digestion start?

a)

Feet

b)

Throat

c)

Stomach

d)

Mouth

81.

Chewing is which kind of digestion?

a)

physical

b)

chemical

82.

What is the function of the small intestine?

a)

most chemical digestion and nutrient absorption

b)

waste exits body

c)

chews food

83.

What is the function of your excretory system?

a)

Absorb nutrients

b)

Fight infection

c)

Get rid of waste

d)

Nothing

84.

What is the function of the stomach?

a)

chew food

b)

store food temporarily and aid chemical digestion

c)

physically breakdown food

d)

the stomach has no function

85.

Which of these is NOT one of the 7 food groups?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Dairy

d)

Lipids

86.

Which of these are types of carbohydrate?

a)

Starch

b)

Sugar

c)

Amino acids

d)

Fatty acids

87.

"Meat, eggs, cheese, beans, nuts and seeds." These foods are all good sources of which nutrient?

a)

Simple carbohydrates

b)

Fats (lipids)

c)

Complex carbohydrates

d)

Protein

88.

What is the major function of lipids (fats) in the body?

a)

Growth and repair

b)

Energy; make up part of cell membranes so essential for normal growth

89.

Why does starch need to be digested (broken down)?

a)

It is too big to be absorbed in the small intestine

b)

It is too small to be absorbed in the small intestine

90.

Proteins are broken down into _____ _____.

(a)  

91.

Starch is broken down into (a)   .

92.

Which chemical reagent is used to test for sugars?

a)

Benedict's

b)

Biuret

c)

Iodine

93.

Which chemical reagent is used to test for proteins?

a)

Benedict's

b)

Biuret

c)

Iodine

94.

Which chemical reagent is used to test for starch?

a)

Benedict's

b)

Biuret

c)

Iodine

95.

What colour is iodine in the presence of starch?

a)

Red

b)

Orangey-brown

c)

Green

d)

Blue-black

96.

What is the name for the finger-like projections in the small intestine that provide a large surface area for the absorption of food?

(a)  

97.

Soft bones and teeth may be caused by a diet that lacks

a)

zinc

b)

protein

c)

calcium

d)

vitamin A

98.

Scurvy is caused by a deficiency in ______

a)

Protein

b)

Sunlight

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Iron

99.

Saliva begins the chemical digestion of

a)

proteins

b)

starches

c)

fats

d)

nutrients

100.

Your body needs proteins for

a)

malnourishment

b)

insulation

c)

energy

d)

growth and repair

101.

Bile is produced in the liver

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

102.

The pancreas releases digestive juices into the small intestine

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

103.

Which digestive substance, produced by the liver and stored in the gall bladder, is critical for digestion and absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins?

a)

Amylase

b)

Lipase

c)

Bile

d)

Pepsin

104.

Name the pictured organ

a)

stomach

b)

small intestine

c)

liver

d)

Pancreas

105.

Which digestive organ is where most chemical digestion and absorption of nutrients takes place?

a)

pancreas

b)

small intestine

c)

liver

d)

Mouth

106.

Which organ absorbs water into the bloodstream before excretion?

a)

gall bladder

b)

large intestine

c)

liver

d)

Lungs

107.

Which is the oesophagus?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

108.
The purpose of carbohydrates is:
a)
to provide a layer of insulation for protection.
b)
to boost the immune system and fight off infection.
c)
to provide the body with energy.
d)
to help us get a good night's rest.
109.
Grains are a good source of...
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Sugar
d)
Water
110.
What measures energy in food?
a)
Calories
b)
Ruler
c)
Thermometer
d)
Food label
111.

Name this organ

a)

small intestines

b)

large intestines

c)

esophagus

d)

stomach

112.

What is the function of the gall bladder?

a)

Stores bile

b)

Produces bile

c)

Filters blood

d)

Secretes insulin

113.

How are magnets oriented when they attract each other?

a)

North pole to North pole

b)

South pole to South pole

c)

North pole to South Pole

114.

How are magnets oriented when they repel each other?

a)

Like poles next to each other

b)

Opposite poles next to each other

115.

What does it mean when objects repel each other?

a)

Move closer together

b)

Move farther apart

c)

They explode

116.

In order for electricity to flow, the circuit must be

a)

open

b)

closed

117.

This material allows electrons to flow easily

a)

Conductor

b)

Insulator

c)

Grounding

118.

This material does not allow electrons to flow easily.

a)

Conductor

b)

Insulator

c)

Grounding

119.

Metal is a good conductor

a)

True

b)

False

120.

How do objects become positively charged?

a)

They gain electrons

b)

They lose electrons

c)

Rubbing or Friction

121.

How do objects become negatively charged?

a)

They gain electrons

b)

They lose electrons

c)

Rubbing or Friction

122.

This is a measure of electrical resistance

a)

Current

b)

Volt

c)

Ohms

d)

Ampere

123.

Force resulting from interaction between electrically charged particles

a)

Magnetic Force

b)

Electromagnetic Force

c)

Electric Force

d)

Current

124.

As the distance between magnets increases-the attraction between them will

a)

Decrease

b)

Stay the Same

c)

Increase

125.

How can the strength of an electromagnet increase?

a)

Remove the battery

b)

Remove loops (coils) of wire from around the iron nail

c)

Add more loops (coils) of wire around the iron nail

d)

Remove the iron nail, leaving only the coils of wire

126.

What is magnetic force?

a)

Attraction or repulsion that arises between electrically charged particles because of their motion

b)

How strong a magnet is

c)

Force resulting from interaction between electrically charged particles

d)

The size or quantity of something

127.

What type of circuit is shown in the picture?

a)

Series circuit

b)

Parallel circuit

c)

Open circuit

128.

When an electric current can travel along more than one path, it is traveling in a—

a)

Open circuit

b)

Series circuit

c)

Closed circuit

d)

Parallel circuit

129.

The magnetic field is strongest at

a)

the north pole only

b)

in the middle

c)

at both poles

d)

at the south pole only

130.

Which direction will the electricity travel?

a)

Neutral to positive

b)

Positive to negative

c)

Negative to positive

d)

Neutral to negative

131.

The buildup of charges on an object is called

a)

Current electricity

b)

Static electricity

c)

Electromagnetism

d)

Magnetic field

132.

What type of circuit is shown in the picture?

a)

parallel circuit

b)

open circuit

c)

series circuit

133.

What is a circuit?

a)

The buildup of electric charges

b)

A complete, closed path through which electric charges flow

c)

Opposition to the flow of charge

d)

Electric potential

134.

An iron nail wrapped with copper wire and attached to a battery makes —

a)

Permanent magnet

b)

Electromagnet

c)

Compass

d)

Metal magnet

135.

A coiled current carrying wire is called

a)

an electromagnet

b)

a solenoid

c)

a compass

d)

a ferromagnet

136.

Electromagnets can be

a)

turned on and off

b)

made stronger

c)

made from iron

d)

made weaker

137.
A break in Earth's crust along which rocks move is called a ________.
a)
plate
b)
rift
c)
fault
d)
breach
138.
What is the name of the single landmass that began to break apart 200 million years ago?
a)
Panthalassa
b)
Laurasia
c)
Gondwanna
d)
Pangaea
139.
What is the process by which oceanic crust sinks beneath a deep-ocean trench and back into the mantle at a convergent plate boundary?
a)
Subduction
b)
Induction
c)
Abduction 
d)
Reduction
140.
___________ is the theory that pieces of Earth's lithosphere are in constant motion, driven by convection currents in the mantle.
a)
Seismic waves
b)
Convection current
c)
Divergent boundary
d)
Plate tectonics
141.

What type of event will occur at this boundary?

a)

Earthquake

b)

Volcano Eruption

c)

Tornado

d)

Mountain Building

142.

Which of these events can ONLY happen on a DIVERGENT BOUNDARY?

a)

Rift Valley

b)

Mountain

c)

A peninsula

d)

An Insanely complex, long answer that you will click out of instinct.

143.
What is the name for this plate boundary?
a)
Constructive
b)
Destructive
c)
Conservative
d)
Collison
144.
What is the name of this plate boundary?
a)
Destructive
b)
Constructive
c)
Collision
d)
Conservative
145.
What is the name of this plate boundary?
a)
Conservative
b)
Collision
c)
Destructive
d)
Constructive
146.
What is the point on the earths surface directly above the point of origin of the earthquake?
a)
Focus
b)
Epicentre
147.
What are the shocks caused by an earthquake?
a)
Seismic waves
b)
Seismograph
c)
Aftershock
148.
A rock formed from fragments of other rocks is a(n)
a)
Metamorphic Rock
b)
Sedimentary Rock
c)
Extrusive Rock
d)
Igneous Rock
149.
If heat and pressure inside the Earth cause a rock to melt, the material that formed would be
a)
Metamorphic
b)
Magma
c)
Sedimentary
d)
Igneous
150.
Which of the following is not a rock
a)
Pumice
b)
Lava
c)
Halite
d)
Sandstone
151.
The three groups of rocks are classified by
a)
How they form
b)
Color
c)
Grain size
d)
Chemical Composition
152.
What are the 3 major types of rocks?
a)
Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic, Igneous, Cementation
c)
Brown, Red, Gray
d)
Streak, Hardness, Breakage
153.
This rock was formed when molten rock cooled into a solid. What type of rock is it?
a)
Igneous Rock
b)
Metamorphic Rock
c)
Sedimentary Rock
154.
This rock formed when bits of other rocks became pressed into a solid. What type of rock is it?
a)
Sedimentary Rock
b)
Metamorphic Rock
c)
Igneous Rock
155.
When sediments are pressed together tightly, this is called ____________.
a)
Compaction
b)
Cementation
c)
Weathering
d)
Erosion
156.
The process when rocks break into smaller pieces due to exposure to natural elements is called
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
c)
sediments
157.
True or False: Once a rock is sedimentary, it cannot become an igneous rock.
a)
True
b)
False
158.

The process by which metamorphic rock changes to igneous rock begins with

a)

melting

b)

erosion

c)

deposition

d)

crystallization

159.

The process by which igneous rocks are formed...

a)

heat and pressure

b)

melting and solidification

c)

weathering and erosion

160.
The process by which metamorphic rocks are formed...
a)
heat and pressure
b)
erosion and deposition
c)
melting and cooling
161.
The name rock is given when it is broken down into smaller pieces.
a)
texture
b)
weathering
c)
sediment
d)
erosion
162.
_______ rock forms from magma/lava
a)
Metamorphic
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Igneous
163.
What two numbers indicate weathering and erosion? 
a)
1,6
b)
4,5
c)
9,10
d)
3,6
164.
What numbers indicate melting and cooling? 
a)
1,2,4
b)
6,7,11
c)
7,8,9
d)
4,5
165.
When an igeous rock breaks down, it is shown as:
a)
3
b)
7
c)
4
d)
2
166.
Letter C represents what rock type? 
a)
Igneous
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Metamorphic
167.
Igneous and Sedimentary Rocks can become Metamorphic represented by what numbers? 
a)
1,2
b)
3,11
c)
2,8
d)
9,10
168.
Weathering and erosion creates:
a)
Magma
b)
Sediments
c)
Melting
d)
Cooling
169.
Letter A represents what rock type? 
a)
Igneous
b)
Metamorphic
c)
Sedimentary
170.
Where does the cycle begin?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
There is no one starting point since it is a cycle. 
171.
When particles are eroded and moved, they are eventually laid down in a process called: 
a)
deposition
b)
weathering
c)
supposition
d)
refraction
172.

The two main causes of variation within a species are:

a)

Genetics

b)

Diet

c)

Environment

d)

Personality

173.

Some characteristics are caused by both genetics and environmental influences, select all those that only genetic.

a)

Weight

b)

Scar

c)

Sporting ability

d)

Eye colour

e)

Blood group

174.

Name the main 2 scientists who discovered the structure of DNA

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Franklin and Crick

c)

Watson and Mendel

d)

Creese and Bareham

175.

Select all the statements about the structure of DNA that are TRUE.

a)

The structure is described as a double helix

b)

A pairs with C

c)

C pairs with G

d)

The bases are held together with hydrogen bonds

e)

The bases are: Argon, Thymine, Cyan, Ghana

176.

Where is DNA found?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Anywhere in the cell.

177.

(a)   is a short length of DNA found on a chromosome that codes for a particular characteristic.

178.

An alternative form of a gene is called an (a)   .

179.

The genetic make up of an organism is known as their (a)  

180.

The physical characteristics of an organism are known as their (a)  

181.

Which of these would be correct for an organism that was described as being homozygous recessive.

a)

bb

b)

BB

c)

Bb

d)

Bbb

182.
The drawing shows the structure of what molecule?
a)
A DNA molecule
b)
A lipid molecule
c)
A carbohydrate molecule
d)
A protein molecule
183.

Which of the following bone are found in your arm?

a)

Clavicle

b)

Radius

c)

Femur

d)

Ribs

184.

Which of the following tissue connects bone to bone?

a)

Ligament

b)

Tendon

c)

Cartilage

d)

Joint capsule

185.
A place where two bones meet is called a 
a)
Hip Bone
b)
Synovial Fluid
c)
Joint
d)
Biceps
186.
The framework of the body, that consists of bones and connective tissues is called the
a)
Muscular System
b)
Skeletal System
c)
Nervous System
d)
Blood System
187.
The muscle that makes up your heart is called the
a)
Vein Muscle
b)
Smooth Muscle
c)
Cardiac Muscle
d)
Skeletal Muscle
188.
Cords made of tough tissue that hold bones and muscles together are called
a)
Tendons
b)
Ligaments
c)
Joints
d)
Synovial Fluid
189.
Flexible tissue that covers the ends of your bones at joints is called
a)
Synovial Fluid
b)
Cartilage
c)
Smooth Muscle
d)
Cardiac Muscle
190.
a)
Quadriceps
b)
Satorius
c)
Hamstring
d)
Gastronecmius
191.
a)

Latissmus Dorsi

b)

Erectors

c)

Deltoids

d)

Abdominal

192.
a)
clavicle
b)
rib
c)
humerus
d)
scapula
193.
The muscle that covers the back of the neck and upper and middle region of the back is the?
a)
corrugator muscle
b)
pectoralis minor
c)
latissimus dorsi
d)
trapezius
194.
What is another name for your collar bone?
a)
scapula
b)
clavicle
c)
patella
d)
sternum
195.
What is another name for your shin bone?
a)
fibula
b)
tibia
c)
thigh bone
d)
femur
196.

What is this muscle?

a)

Biceps

b)

Triceps

c)

Lats

d)

Deltoids

197.

What muscle is the arrow pointing to?

a)

Pectoralis (Pecs)

b)

Biceps

c)

Triceps

d)

Lats

198.
a)
Hamstrin
b)
Quadricep
c)
Tibialis Anterior
d)
Gastrocenmius
199.
a)
Trapezius
b)
Gluteals
c)
Deltoid
d)
Hamstring
200.
a)
Glutueal
b)
Hamstring
c)
Quadricep
d)
External Oblique
201.
a)
Abdominal
b)
External Oblique
c)
Pectorals
d)
Trapezius
202.

Muscles in your body move in _________.

a)

points

b)

their own way

c)

pairs

203.

What are the products of aerobic respiration?

a)

Carbon Dioxide and Energy

b)

Lactic Acid

c)

Water and Carbon Dioxide

d)

Glycogen and Carbon Dioxide

204.

What are the products of anaerobic respiration in a human cell?

a)

Energy and Lactic Acid

b)

Lactic Acid

c)

Lactic Acid and Carbon Dioxide

d)

Carbon Dioxide and Water

205.

What are the products of anaerobic respiration in plants and yeast?

a)

Lactic Acid and Carbon Dioxide

b)

Carbon Dioxide and Energy

c)

Ethanol and Energy

d)

Ethanol and Carbon Dioxide

206.

Which type of respiration releases more energy per gram of glucose?

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

c)

They both release the same amount

207.

What is the chemical formula for glucose?

a)

C6H12O6

b)

C12H6O12

c)

C6O12H6

d)

6CH2O

208.

Where is lactic acid principally broken down in the human body?

a)

Muscles

b)

Liver

c)

Kidneys

d)

Blood

209.

What is the equation for aerobic respiration?

a)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O

b)

C6H12O6 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O

c)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 --> CO2 + 6H2O

d)

6C6H12O6 + 6O2 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O

210.

Where in the body does respiration take place? Select the best answer.

a)

The lungs

b)

The muscles

c)

All cells

d)

The blood

211.

What is the purpose of respiration? Select the best answer.

a)

To release the chemical energy stored in glucose

b)

To generate heat

c)

To produce energy

d)

To absorb oxygen by diffusion

212.

What is structure A?

a)

Mouth

b)

Trachea

c)

Alveoli

d)

Air pipe

213.

What is structure B?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Trachea

c)

Air pipe

d)

Diaphragm

214.

What is structure B?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Mouth

d)

Trachea

215.

Where does oxygen go after the lungs?

a)

Out of the body

b)

To the brain

c)

Into the bloodstream

d)

stays in the lungs

216.

What happens to breathing and heart rate when we exercise?

a)

They decrease

b)

They increase

c)

They stay the same

d)

They go up and down randomly

217.

Why does breathing rate and heart rate increase when we exercise?

a)

We need more water so we can respire more

b)

We need more oxygen so we can respire more

c)

Trick question! We don't

d)

Because we get hotter

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