WorksheetsNutrition Final Exam Review
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 35mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Primary factors for successful pregnancy are:
a)
Nutritional status before conception
b)
Appropriate weight gain
c)
Adequate intake of essential nutrients during pregnancy
d)
All of the above
2.
Adequate iron and calcium stores are important during pregnancy as they are often depleted in women.
a)
True
b)
False
3.
Pregnant teenage women should consume _________ mg of calcium which is approximately ________ glasses of milk.
a)
1000/ 3
b)
1300/4
c)
1800/5
d)
2000/5
4.
Gestation period for pregnancy should be at least ______ weeks to reduce risk of infant mortality.
a)
37
b)
38
c)
39
d)
40
5.
Appropriate weight gain during a single infant pregnancy for a woman within her BMI range is __________.
a)
15 to 20 lbs
b)
20 to 30 lbs
c)
25 to 35 lbs
d)
30 to 40 lbs
6.
Inadequate intake of _________ prior to pregnancy and in the first weeks of gestation can result in neural tube defect
a)
Folic acid/folate
b)
iron
c)
calcium
d)
Vitamin D
7.
Your pregnant client has low iron. Which vitamin/mineral could assist with absorption?
a)
Calcium
b)
Folate
c)
Vitamin C
d)
Vitamin D
8.
What is Pica?
a)
fetal abnormality
b)
neural defect
c)
a type of pregnancy gingivitis
d)
abnormal consumption of specific foods or nonfood substances (paint c
9.
Low socioeconomic groups with less than a high school education are risk factors for Pica.
a)
True
b)
False
10.
Maternal risks for those pregnant after age ______ include diabetes, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease.
a)
30
b)
35
c)
40
d)
45
11.
Teenage mothers are at most risk for ___________________.
a)
iron deficiency
b)
Vitamin D deficiency
c)
bone loss
d)
all of the above
12.
Weight gain during the second and third trimester should be approximately _______ per week.
a)
0.5 lb
b)
1lb
c)
1.5lbs
d)
2lbs
13.
Routine dental care during _____was not associated with increased risk of serious medical events or preterm deliveries.
a)
1st trimester
b)
2nd trimester
c)
3rd trimester
d)
all of the above
14.
What is this specifically called?
a)
dentinal pooling
b)
attrition
c)
abfraction
d)
abrasion
15.
Pregnancy requires additional consumption of protein to aid with the growth of the baby and all the connective tissues.
a)
True
b)
False
16.
__________requirements are highest in late pregnancy for fetal growth and development
a)
zinc
b)
folate
c)
calcium
d)
iron
17.
Breast milk is all the infant needs for about the first _____ month(s) of life for optimal growth and development.
a)
1
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
18.
An additional _________ cup(s) of fluid is required when breast feeding.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
19.
Your 90 year old clients presents with the following radiolucent area. What is your differential diagnosis?
a)
fracture from a fall
b)
a cyst
c)
osteoporosis
d)
tumor
20.
A child with fetal alcohol syndrome has a circumference of the head which is small (microcephaly),
a)
True
b)
False
21.
Which of the following nutritional references is most helpful for the dental hygienist to use chairside with patients.
a)
DRIs
b)
Food labels
c)
Canada's Food Guide
d)
None of the above
22.
Nutritional goals for a patient should be measurable and attainable.
a)
True
b)
False
23.
Alcohol is a(n) ___________________________ antagonist and crosses the placenta, which may lead to fetal alcohol syndrom
a)
iron
b)
magnesium
c)
calcium
d)
folate/folic acid
24.
Food patterns are generally developed during _______ .
a)
infancy
b)
childhood
c)
young adulthood
d)
elderly
25.
Food patterns are generally easily manipulated and changed.
a)
True
b)
False
26.
Organic foods are grown without synthetic pesticides, growth hormones, antibiotics, or genetic engineering.
a)
True
b)
False
27.
Organic food contain no harmful organisms, additives or preservatives.
a)
True
b)
False
28.
Food additives have several benefits:
a)
Improve nutritional value (enrichment)
b)
Maintain wholesomeness and palatability (preservatives)
c)
Enhance flavor, appearance
d)
All of the above
29.
Formulas discontinued at age 1; _________ provided until age 2.
a)
1% milk
b)
2% milk
c)
whole/homogenized milk
d)
None of the above
30.
Infants typically eat _____ times/day at ____ hour intervals
a)
6 times/ 4hrs
b)
4 times/6hrs
c)
8 times/ 3hrs
d)
3 times/ 8 hrs
31.
Introducing foods to baby begins _________ months.
a)
2 to 4
b)
4 to 6
c)
6 to 8
d)
8 to 10
32.
A baby's first solid food should be ______________.
a)
meat
b)
vegetables
c)
fruits
d)
cereal
33.
For infants that require fluoride supplementation, it should start at 4 months of age.
a)
True
b)
False
34.
At-will nighttime breastfeeding should be discontinued once ____________________.
a)
Primary 1st molar erupts
b)
mom decides to stop
c)
solid foods have been introduced
d)
2 months
35.
Infants born with cleft lip/palate may require __________________ to assist with feedings.
a)
an obturator
b)
a bottle
c)
a special pacifier
d)
none of the above
36.
Which age group has the greatest caries prevalence and may benefit with sealant placement?
a)
4 to 6 years
b)
7 to 12 years
c)
13 to 18 years
d)
over18 years
37.
Adolescents are at risk for deficiencies in Calcium, iron and vitamin D. Which is most concerning long term?
a)
Calcium
b)
iron
c)
vitamin D
d)
none of the above
38.
Adolescents often skip breakfast, especially young girls.
a)
True
b)
False
39.
Obesity is the most common nutritional disorder.
a)
True
b)
False
40.
Physiological changes in older adults may include issues with_________.
a)
taste
b)
smell
c)
xerostomia
d)
all of the above
41.
Older adults are at higher risk for ________________.
a)
mucositis
b)
hairy tongue
c)
root caries
d)
apthous ulcers
42.
In older adults, quality nutrient intake decreases as number of teeth present decreases
a)
True
b)
False
43.
In older adults, diminished __________ secretion may affect absorption of calcium, iron, and vitamin B12
a)
chime
b)
pepsin
c)
lipase
d)
hydrochloric acid
44.
Older adults requirements for the following vitamins and minerals ___________ increases with age.
a)
vitamin c,d,e
b)
Vitamin d, calcium and vitamin b12
c)
Calcium, iron, folate
d)
vitamin A, C, D
45.
Nutrient deficiencies, excesses, or imbalances initiate periodontal disease.
a)
True
b)
False
46.
Chewing firm, coarse, and fibrous foods, such as raw fruits and vegetables, _________________.
a)
increases aveolar density
b)
removes plaque
c)
stimulates saliva flow
d)
reduces bleeding
47.
Which vitamin or mineral would you recommend for clients with gingivitis, especially more moderate cases.
a)
Vitamin A
b)
Vitamin D
c)
iron
d)
Vitamin C
48.
Peanut butter on white toast. Acid exposure time.
a)
0 mins
b)
20 mins
c)
40 mins
d)
none of the above
49.
If a pt has major jaw surgery or extractions, and we want to ensure adequate of vitamins/minerals, suggest a liquid diet
a)
True
b)
False
50.
Contributing factors in the development of NUG is the inadequate intake of _______.
a)
Protein, vitamin A and b12
b)
Protein, Vitamin E and folate
c)
protein, Vitamin C and B-complex
d)
Protein, Vitamin K and selenium
51.
If a client has limited chewing ability , suggest a mechanical soft diet
a)
True
b)
False
52.
Those with dentures may have approximately 1/2 of the chewing ability
a)
True
b)
False
53.
The number of teeth someone has and presence of advanced mobility determines food choices
a)
True
b)
False
54.
Glossitis ______________
a)
is inflammation of the mucosa
b)
is inflammation of the PDL
c)
is inflammation of the attached gingiva
d)
is inflammation of the tongue
55.
_________ involves more than hearing; it includes interpreting what is said and nonverbal actions observed.
a)
Non verbal cues
b)
Active listening
c)
Open ended questioning
d)
Non critical responses
56.
Iron anemia is common in__________.
a)
Adolescents
b)
Older women
c)
Older men
d)
women who are menstrating
57.
This is referred to as ______________________.
a)
mucositis
b)
caliculus angularis
c)
angular cheilitis
d)
herpetic outbreak
58.
Invasive dental treatment contraindicated until white blood cell counts rise in pts with neutropenia
a)
True
b)
False
59.
Gastrointestinal issues like GERD may result from_______.
a)
Hiatal hernia
b)
Pregnancy
c)
Obesity
d)
All of the above
60.
Crohn's disease is an example of a malabsorptive condition and may lead to oral ulcerations.
a)
True
b)
False
61.
Pts with malabsorptive conditions should be encouraged to eat___________.
a)
more nutrient dense foods
b)
more unsaturated fats
c)
more fiber
d)
more protein
62.
Pts with hypopituitarism may have early eruption patterns and malocclusions
a)
True
b)
False
63.
Pts taking Dilatin may present with very inflammed gingival overgrowth. These patients have ____________.
a)
hypopituitarism
b)
epilepsy
c)
neutropenia
d)
hypothyroidism
64.
Browns tumors are associated with ______________.
a)
hyperparathyroidism
b)
hyperthyroidism
c)
neurtropenia
d)
Cushings syndrome
65.
Gingival pallor, slow wound healing, bad taste, malodor, stomatitis and hairy leukoplakia are oral manifestations of ___
a)
liver disease
b)
cerebral palsy
c)
renal disease
d)
pancreatitis
66.
Palatal bruising may result from a pt with anorexia.
a)
True
b)
False
67.
Perimolysis _________.
a)
happens in the small intestine
b)
is the process of ANUG papillary tissue destruction
c)
break down of the PDL from acid
d)
is decalcification from vomitting
68.
Beef hamburger on a white bun (non retentive). Acid exposure time.
a)
0 mins
b)
20 mins
c)
40 mins
d)
None of the above
69.
Sticky white rice roll with salmon. Acid exposure time.
a)
0 mins
b)
20 mins
c)
40 mins
d)
none of the above
70.
Sipping slowly a black coffee with 2 sugars. Acid exposure time.
a)
0 mins
b)
20 mins
c)
40 mins
d)
none of the above
100 %
