wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Wonogiri sragen pahit

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Any location on the body that is closer to the midline is reffered to as:
a)
Medial
b)
Recumbent
c)
Lateral
d)
Inferior
2.
Fires involving stacked and piled material such as pallets, cardboard, bales of hay or cotton, and loose materials such as mulch are most likely to be extinguished using water or:
a)
Class A foam.
b)
Dry chemical agents.
c)
Aqueous film forming foam.
d)
Carbon dioxide extinguishers.
3.
What statement about the hot gas layer that accumulates at the top of a fire compartment is true?
a)
Smoke traps in heat but does not burn.
b)
Cooling the hot gas layer slows the transfer of heat to other combustibles.
c)
Once smoke and hot gases begin to accumulate, the process of pyrolysis in the compartment is complete.
d)
Hot smoke will radiate heat, increase pyrolysis within the room, and reduce flammable fuel in the gas layer.
4.
The patient treatment area and the command post are located in what zone of a hazmat incident? :
a)
Hot
b)
Warm
c)
Blue
d)
Cold
5.
You are caring for an individual who fell from a rope swing , landed in the water , and is now unresponsive .She has a large laceration on the top of head . You should:
a)
Suspect supine injury
b)
Begin CPR in the water
c)
Drag her by one arm to shore
d)
Wait for EMS before beginning care
6.
Which method of attacking a fire involving a hybrid or electric vehicle is especially hazardous and should NOT be done?
a)
Directing hose streams under the car
b)
Driving a piercing nozzle through the hood, fenders, or wheel wells
c)
Breaking a window and attacking the fire with a medium fog pattern
d)
Prying an opening between the hood and the fender and applying water through it
7.
In what type of situation is it NOT acceptable for a single firefighter to operate a small hoseline?
a)
Interior fire attack
b)
Rubbish or trash fire
c)
Small ground cover fire
d)
Rekindle during overhaul operations
8.
you are caring for a 44-year-old man who began experienceing chest pain and shortness off breath while jogging. His pain went away completely about 20 minute after stopping to rest. The most likely cause of his chest pain is :
a)
Myocardial infarction
b)
Heart failure
c)
Angina
d)
Muscle strain
9.
You are caring for a young woman who was playing autdoors when she began having difficulty breathing . She states that she falt a sharf sting on the back of her nech and now is dizzi and is having troble swallowing .You suspect she may be experiencing :
a)
An anaphylactic reaction
b)
A mild allergic reaction
c)
An acute asthma attack
d)
Extrime hay faver
10.
Patients exhibiting signs and symptoms of shock should be:
a)
Monitored closely for at least ten minutes.
b)
Monitored closely for at least thirty minutes.
c)
Treated for other possible causes of the signs or symptoms
d)
Treated immediately and prepared for transport to a hospital.
11.
Which of the following is NOT a component of an appropriate scene size up ?
a)
Determining the number of patients
b)
Assesing the airway
c)
Manually stabilizing the cervical spine
d)
Donning glove and safety goggles
12.
Exposure to particulate contaminants such as vehicle exhaust:
a)
Has little effect on firefighters' health.
b)
Can cause lung cancer or cardiovascular disease.
c)
Can be reversed with a healthy diet and exercise.
d)
Is only of concern if it occurs in an oxygen-deficient atmosphere
13.
Which devices are used to lift and stabilize large vehicles or objects and are the most stable when fully inflated?
a)
Zero-pressure bags
b)
High-pressure bags
c)
Combination-pressure bags
d)
Low- and medium-pressure cushions
14.
At a rescue incident, diverting or blocking traffic, shutting off utilities, or suppressing fires that can affect rescue operations are part of:
a)
Size-up.
b)
Overhaul.
c)
The rescue itself.
d)
Incident stabilization.
15.
Type IV construction is commonly found in:
a)
Churches.
b)
Residential homes.
c)
High-rise buildings.
d)
Apartment complexes.
16.
Your patient is a 35-year-old female in ger third trimester of pregnancy. She complains of a headache and swollen feet,and says that her vision is “spotty”. You recognize:
a)
A non-life threatening of a headache and swollen
b)
Signs of imminent delivery.
c)
A life trheatening situation requiring immediate transport
d)
Signs of gestational diabetes
17.
You are caring for a patient with a severe soft tissue injury to the lower leg. You have exposed the wound, and it is bleeding. What should you do ?
a)
Apply direct pressure
b)
Remove debris from the wound
c)
Care for shock
d)
Elevate the extremity
18.
With regard to relaying emergency information, sirens are an example of a(an):
a)
Visual alert
b)
Audible alert
c)
Electronic alert
d)
Secondary alert
19.
What type of salvage equipment is made of waterproof canvas or vinyl and has edge hems into which grommets are placed for hanging or draping?
a)
Carryalls
b)
Floor runners
c)
Salvage covers
d)
Automatic sprinkler kits
20.
Cutting through metal walls:
a)
Is best accomplished with a diamond-tipped chain saw.
b)
Involves penetrating layers of gypsum with striking hand tools.
c)
Should involve keeping a charged hoseline or extinguisher available.
d)
Requires specialized forcible entry tools not available to most organizations.
21.
The recommended method for opening the airway of a patien with a possible neck or spine injuri is the___ manuever. :
a)
Jaw-thrust.
b)
Mouth-to-nose
c)
Abdominal-tharus
d)
Head-tild/chin-lift
22.
Which disease weakens a person's immune system and increases the likelihood of contracting other infections?
a)
Hepatitis
b)
HIV/AIDS
c)
Tuberculosis
d)
Staph infection
23.
What is the goal of salvage operations?
a)
Recognizing and preserving evidence of arson
b)
Searching for and extinguishing hidden or remaining fire
c)
Removing any atmosphere that is inherently dangerous to life and health (IDLH)
d)
Reducing further damage from water, smoke, heat, and exposure during or immediately after a fire
24.
Which statement about oxygen-enriched atmospheres is true?
a)
Oxygen-enriched atmospheres are 19.5% oxygen or greater.
b)
not an option to correct oxygen-enriched atmospheres.
c)
Oxygen-enriched atmospheres require SCBA and chemical protective clothing.
d)
An oxygen-enriched atmosphere greatly increases the flammability or explosive potential.
25.
0 Water will absorb heat the least efficiently in what form?
a)
Steam
b)
Fog pattern
c)
Solid stream
d)
Broken stream
26.
What is the oriented-search method used in primary search?
a)
The team leader stays at a fixed point while firefighters hold onto each other as they search the room.
b)
One firefighter holds one end of the search rope as other firefighters who are attached to the rope search the room.
c)
The team leader remains anchored while others search the room; the crew remains in constant communication.
d)
The navigator remains in constant contact with the Incident Commander, who lets the navigator know where they are at all times.
27.
What is a consideration for opening wet- and dry-barrel hydrants?
a)
The barrels of all hydrants should drain sufficiently when not in use..
b)
All hydrants should be opened slowly, but can be closed quickly if necessary.
c)
Closing a hydrant too quickly can damage piping and appliances of adjacent residences.
d)
As the main valve moves up, a drain valve is opened to allow water to drain from the barrel.
28.
If the area of origin is apparent, firefighters can follow physical indicators from the:
a)
Top of the room to the bottom.
b)
Bottom of the room to the top.
c)
Area of least damage to the area of most damage.
d)
Area of most damage to the area ofleast damage.
29.
Building codes require that glass doors be made out of:
a)
Lexan ®
b)
Plexiglas®.
c)
Tempered glass.
d)
Laminated glass.
30.
What is an example of a nonemergency exit indicator?
a)
Assignment is complete
b)
Oxygen supply is depleted
c)
SCBA low-pressure alarm activates
d)
Change in environmental conditions
31.
Running over hoses with vehicles, excessive pump pressure, and water hammer will cause damage.
a)
Organic
b)
Thermal
c)
Corrosive
d)
Mechanical
32.
Where should the hole be cut when ventilating shingle-covered pitched roofs?
a)
Across the peak of the roof
b)
On the bottom edge of the roof, just next the ladder
c)
A few inches (mm) below the peak on the downwind side
d)
As close the center of the roof as possible on the downwind side
33.
When steel structural members are heated, they:
a)
Spall.
b)
Crack.
c)
Elongate.
d)
Show no effect
34.
Research suggests that the majority of a meesage si delivered by way of:
a)
Body language
b)
Voice (tone)
c)
Word use
d)
Eye contact
35.
Your patient is in her 38th week of pregnancy and is experiencing light, painless vaginal bleeding. She is very concerned for the baby. Which of the following would be an appropriate response ?
a)
“I’m sure everything is fine, bleeding is completely normal at this stage”
b)
“ This may ne normal, however let’s call for the ambulance so adoctor can examine you”
c)
“ This is a bad sign,we need to rush to the hispital right away”
d)
“ You’re right to be concerned, you could be having s miscarriage”
36.
Which one of the following statements best describes the apprpriate ventilation volume for a nonbreathing child?
a)
Twice that of an infant
b)
The weight minus the age
c)
Enough to cause the chest to rise
d)
Exactly half the volume of an adult
37.
In order to ensure maximum visibility to motorists, the U.S. Department of Transportation requires personnel at roadway incidents to wear:
a)
High-visibility vests.
b)
High-visibility helmets.
c)
Lighted safety indicators.
d)
Blinking warning devices.
38.
You are caring for an man who states thet he was bitten on the foot by a snake about 20 minute ago. He as alert and orientes but is complaining of savere pain it the site . You should FIRST:
a)
Wash the wound with soap and water
b)
Wrap the limb with soap and water
c)
Place a splint on the leg and foot
d)
Wait for EMT before beginning care
39.
What hazard are firefighters more likely to encounter at trash container fires than at ground cover fires?
a)
Radiant heat
b)
Low visibility
c)
Flashover conditions
d)
Hazardous material contamination
40.
After the end of the incident, the incident action plan (IAP):
a)
Is no longer needed, so it can be filed away.
b)
Is used as part of the postincident analysis and critique.
c)
Must be rewritten in a standard form and made publicly available.
d)
Must be filed away so that it can be reused at any future incidents in the same location
41.
Which of the following is NOT function of the cilculatory system ?
a)
Delivering blood to vital organs
b)
Removing waste products from the cells
c)
Breaking down food into nutrients
d)
Carryng oxygen throughout of body
42.
What is the most common building material used in North America?
a)
Metal
b)
Wood
c)
Masonry
d)
Composite materials
43.
The secondary assessment is designed to :
a)
Identify life-threatening conditions
b)
Collect a detaild medical history
c)
Identify any allergies
d)
Find and treat non-life threatening injuries or conditions
44.
What should be done after doffing SCBA?
a)
Open the cylinder valve
b)
Turn on the PASS device
c)
Connect the regulator to the facepiece
d)
Disconnect the regulator from the facepiece
45.
What is a limitation of using a thermal imager for a structural search?
a)
Reduces situational awareness
b)
Reduces visibility in an obscured environment
c)
Not useful for locating victims or hidden fires in commercial buildings
d)
May not be able to detect fires on a lower floor if a structure is carpeted
46.
Which construction type may consist of exterior load-bearing masonry walls that can collapse in one piece or crumble?
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type v
47.
Which type of smoke control system consists of smoke-control barriers with sufficient fire endurance to protect against fire spread?
a)
Passive system
b)
Exposure system
c)
Combination system
d)
Pressurization system
48.
The longer the time period between forcing an opening or breaking glass and the beginning of interior operations, the more:
a)
Time the fire has to entrain new oxygen and grow.
b)
Time ladder crews will have to begin vertical ventilation.
c)
Water pressure will be required to overcome friction loss.
d)
Air the firefighters making entry will be able to use while inside.
49.
What is a consideration for breaking window glass as a means of forcible entry?
a)
Wire glass should easily fall out of the frame once it is broken.
b)
Safety film is often applied to windows at schools or high-rises.
c)
Windows with two or three layers of glass will need to be cut out with a saw.
d)
Windows are often more difficult to force, but are typically the best entry point into a burning building
50.
Which factor affects a flow path's effectiveness to transport ambient air throughout the compartment?
a)
Size of ventilation openings
b)
Type of fuel involved in the fire
c)
Amount of heat being generated
d)
Stage in which the fire is burning
51.
Combination fire departments refer to those that are:
a)
Staffed by a mixture of male and female firefighters
b)
Staffed by a mixture of career and volunteer firefighters
c)
Funded by the community through taxes, fees, or grants
d)
Funded completely by a private organization or company
52.
How can you verify that a dry-barrel hydrant is draining when shut down?
a)
A pool of water will form at the base of the hydrant.
b)
A gurgling sound will emit from one of the discharges.
c)
A hissing sound will stop once the main valve has been closed fully.
d)
A slight vacuum should be felt pulling your palm toward a single open discharge.
53.
Why might liquids present a unique hazard to responders?
a)
They may present an inhalation hazard, unlike solids and gases.
b)
They have the potential to spread from their source over large areas.
c)
They are more toxic and corrosive than the two other states of matter.
d)
They may take on the additional characteristics of a gas by emitting vapors.
54.
The appearance of isolated or intermittent flames moving through the hot gas layer in a compartment can indicate that:
a)
Flashover is about to occur.
b)
The fire is entering the growth stage.
c)
The fire is becoming ventilation-limited.
d)
Addition of oxygen to the compartment will force the fire into decay.
55.
The jump START triage assessment categories are :
a)
The same as those used for the START triage system
b)
Dependent on the age of the pediatric patient.
c)
Very different from those used for the START triage system
d)
Dependent on the injuries of the pediatric patient
56.
You are caring for an 18-years-old woman with a complaintcof severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. You should:
a)
Apply low-flow oxygen
b)
Inspect the vagina
c)
Inquire about the possibility of pregnancy
d)
Find out what she had to eat.
57.
Portable extinguishers that use the smothering method to extinguish fire work by:
a)
Creating a soapy foam surface.
b)
Excluding oxygen from the burning process.
c)
Reducing the temperature of whatever is burning.
d)
Stopping the chemical chain reaction from occurring.
58.
What is the difference between braid-on-braid rope and kernmantle rope?
a)
Braid-on-braid rope is jacketed; kernmantle is not.
b)
Kernmantle rope resists abrasion better than braid-on-braid rope.
c)
Kernmantle rope is used as utility rope, and braid-on-braid is not.
d)
Braid-on-braid rope has a core rope strand running the length; kernmantle does not.
59.
Protective clothing traps body heat and moisture inside, which may significantly:
a)
Decrease skin temperature.
b)
Decrease core temperature.
c)
Increase airflow around the skin.
d)
Increase breathing and heart rate
60.
Two methods to control external bleeding are direct pressure and:
a)
Elevation.
b)
Topical sprays.
c)
Topical lotions.
d)
Ice application.
61.
Loading large diameter hose onto the rear apparatus bed is one of the very few times that firefighters:
a)
Should work alone.
b)
Are not required to follow departmental sops.
c)
Should load hose without couplings attached together.
d)
Can stand on the tailboard or ride in the hose bed while in motion.
62.
The Emergency Response Guidebook can be used by first responders to determine appropriate initial response information at a hazmat incident, provided they know the material's:
a)
Physical properties.
b)
Chemical composition.
c)
Transportation company.
d)
Four-digit identification number.
63.
What should be the first action taken at a Class B fire?
a)
Establish a perimeter.
b)
Determine the wind direction.
c)
Establish a water supply and deploy hoselines.
d)
Request a hazardous materials response company.
64.
What are utility rope and webbing likely to be used for during vehicle rescue incidents?
a)
Search lines
b)
Swift water rescue
c)
Object stabilization
d)
Shoring and choking
65.
What should be worn by all personnel operating in the area of pressurized hose?
a)
Helmet
b)
Full PPE
c)
Reflective vest
d)
Level A ensemble
66.
What would provide greater force at the working end of a prying tool?
a)
A wider fulcrum
b)
A greater striking force
c)
A longer handle on the tool
d)
A larger beveled wedge or fork
67.
What would be classified as a Class B fire?
a)
Tire fire
b)
Wildland fire
c)
Fuel storage tank fire
d)
Commercial kitchen fire
68.
In which scenario will a positive-pressure attack be MOST effective?
a)
The exhaust-to-intake-ratio is less than 1 to 1.
b)
The exhaust opening is located outside of the fire compartment.
c)
Additional exhaust openings remote to the fire compartment are opened.
d)
The exhaust opening keeps the pressure in the fire room lower than the remainder of the structure.
69.
People leaving the scene, the time of arrival and extent of fire, and doors or windows that are locked or unlocked are all observations that:
a)
Confirm an act of arson.
b)
Should be provided to investigators.
c)
Determine how safe the area of origin is.
d)
May interfere with your ability to be objective.
70.
You are caring for a child who has a good pulse but is not breathing on her own. You should provide rescue breaths for this patient once every ____ second
a)
Three to five
b)
Five to six
c)
Six to seven
d)
Ten
71.
Which one for the following is most accurate when describing a palpaled blood pressure ?
a)
It provides only the diastolic pressure
b)
It must be taken on a responsive patient
c)
It can be obtained whitout a stethoscope
d)
It can be obtained without BP cuff
72.
Whith of the following best describe the purpose of an autometed external deffibrilator ?
a)
It restart breathing in an apneic patient
b)
It clear the blockage of the coronary arteries
c)
It returns the patient to consciousness
d)
It corrects an abnormal heart rhythm
73.
Emphysem is characterized by which of the following sets of sign and symptoms ?
a)
History of smoking,barrel-shaped-chest,and chronic hypoxia
b)
Fluif in the lungs and trouble breathing while lying down
c)
Rapid breathing,spasm of the hands,and normal blood oxygen levels
d)
Exercise-induced shortness of breath and wheezing
74.
What tool is designed to remove discharge caps from hydrant outlets and open fire hydrant valves?
a)
Box wrench
b)
Stem wrench
c)
Spanner wrench
d)
Hydrant wrench
75.
What strategy would be undertaken when occupants are not savable?
a)
Primary
b)
Offensive
c)
Defensive
d)
Secondary
76.
Level D ensembles can be worn when:
a)
No atmospheric hazards exist or will be encountered.
b)
The hazards detected can be filtered through an APR.
c)
Expected hazards will have a minor effect on exposed skin.
d)
There will be a moderate immersion in low level hazardous chemicals.
77.
When assessing the pulse, you should assess:
a)
Rate, strength, and rhythm.
b)
Strength and regularity.
c)
Rate and volume.
d)
Rate and quality
78.
While caring for a geriatric patient, he shares with you that his caregiver frequently leaves him alone in his bedroom for days and refuses to respond to his calls for assistance. This may be considered
a)
Physycal abuse
b)
Emotional abuse
c)
Neglect
d)
Sexual abuse
79.
Which one of the following best describes the ocygen consumption of a normally functioning human being :
a)
The body requires a constant supply of oxygen at 79%
b)
The body needs a mnmum of 10% oxygen to survive
c)
The body exhales an average 21% carbon dioxide with each breath
d)
Each breath we exhale contains approximately 16% oxygen
80.
6 A patient with altered mental status is best definded as one who :
a)
Is unresposive
b)
Cannot speak properly
c)
Can only speak in short senteces
d)
Is not alert or reponsive to surroundings
81.
What flow rate is an automatic master stream fog nozzle typically designed for?
a)
10 gpm (40 L/min) to 125 gpm (500 L/min)
b)
70 gpm (280 L/min) to 200 gpm (800 L/min)
c)
350 gpm (1 400 L/min) to 1,250 gpm (5 000 L/min.)
d)
1,250 gpm (5 000 L/min) to 2,000 gpm (8 000 L/min )
82.
The tumb is considered _____ to the palm
a)
Distal
b)
Proximal
c)
Lateral
d)
Medial
83.
Because most fire sprinkler systems are designed with control mode sprinklers, when should the sprinklers be shut down?
a)
Upon arrival at the scene
b)
After the fire is under control
c)
Once the fire has been definitively located
d)
When fire attack makes entry into the structure
84.
Manual bolt cutters can safely be used to cut:
a)
Iron bars.
b)
Tension cables.
c)
Aluminum siding.
d)
Case-hardened padlocks
85.
What does the first-arriving firefighter do after gathering information about the scene from a 360 degree size-up?
a)
Set up a perimeter around the scene.
b)
Set up a staging and rehabilitation area.
c)
Initiate any rescue operations that are needed.
d)
Transmit a report about conditions at the scene.
86.
Which statement about inspecting laid rope is correct?
a)
A sour, musty, or acidic smell indicates rot within natural rope.
b)
Synthetic laid rope should not be inspected while it is untwisted.
c)
Determine a laid rope's age by the amount of deterioration it has endured.
d)
Mildew is not a concern and does not have to be removed from synthetic laid rope.
87.
What is an immediate action to improve survivability that can buy you more time to escape or improve your situation?
a)
Using your hose stream for protection
b)
Opening doors between you and the fire
c)
Following a wall and marking locations that you have already been
d)
Communicating visibility levels to the Incident Commander or unit supervisor
88.
How does a K-tool work?
a)
It is used to punch the lock cylinder through the door.
b)
It bites onto a lock cylinder so it may be pried out of the door.
c)
It is forced between the door and the frame in order to release the latching mechanism.
d)
It is used to reach through a gap in order to push a panic bar or lift a drop bar off of
89.
The problem that can result when a patient dose not get an adequate supply of oxygen is called:
a)
Hypoxia
b)
Pneumothorax
c)
Stroke
d)
Anoxia
90.
When operating emergency scene lighting, firefighters should:
a)
Adjust the lights to face oncoming traffic
b)
Ensure the generators are positioned upwind
c)
Connect as many lights as possible to the power source
d)
Be aware that generator noise may make communications difficult
91.
You have arrived to find a conscious and aler older adult man complaining of moderate abdominal pain. When assessing an older adult patient, you should :
a)
Speak only to the patient’s caregiver as the patient might hgave dementia
b)
Address older adults by using their last name with Mr. or Mrs.
c)
Assume the will need you to speak very loudly in order to her you.
d)
Repeat your questions several times to make sure they understand
92.
Vehicles that use compressed natural gas (CNG) or liquefied natural gas (LNG):
a)
Should have a pressure release device and a fuel shutoff valve.
b)
Sound distinctly different from vehicles with gasoline or diesel engines.
c)
Are required to have a CNG or LNG diamond logo that may be affixed to the front and rear of the vehicle.
d)
Are most likely to be owned by private citizens rather than government agencies or mass transit bus companies
93.
In a fire, gases will always:
a)
Remain calm and move very little.
b)
Move in random, unpredictable paths.
c)
Move from areas of higher pressure to areas of lower pressure.
d)
Move from areas of lower pressure to areas of higher pressure
94.
Rounded, almost spherical ends indicate what type of container?
a)
Solids container
b)
Pressure container
c)
Unit loading device
d)
Non-bulk packaging
95.
Which of the following is an example of heat loss through conduction ?
a)
A 66 year-old man found lying on the ground without a coat
b)
A14 year-old boy wearing thin cloting in cold temperatures
c)
A 33 year-oldwoman outside in cool, windy weather
d)
An older woman standing in the cool nigh air
96.
You are caring for an overdose patient who unresponsive. You are legally allowed to provide care based on what type of consent ?
a)
Impied
b)
Expressed
c)
Assumed
d)
Informed
97.
What is the fly section of an extension ladder?
a)
The spacers set between the rails of a trussed ladder
b)
The upper section of an extension ladder that moves
c)
The lowest and widest section of an extension ladder
d)
The rope or cable used for hoisting and lowering the ladder
98.
What statement about dry-barrel hydrants is true?
a)
Horizontal compression valves are usually at each outlet.
b)
They can only be used with pumpers that have drafting capabilities.
c)
The stem nut used to open and close the control valve is on top of the hydrant.
d)
They are designed for use in climates that do not experience freezing temperatures.
99.
Which organization is likely to assist the fire department by dispatching a doctor to the scene or providing advice by radio communication?
a)
Law enforcement
b)
Public works departments
c)
Emergency medical services
d)
Emergency / Disaster management
100.
A collapse zone should be established when:
a)
A defensive strategy has been adopted.
b)
An offensive strategy has been adopted.
c)
Exposures are adjacent to the building on fire.
d)
Interior operations require additional firefighters.