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Worksheetsbra301
Total questions: 209
Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Other geographic associations besides country of origin are possible such as:
(check all that apply)
a)
A. States.
b)
B. Regions.
c)
C. Cities.
d)
D. People.
2.
Which of the following is an example of a co-branding strategy?
a)
Nike partnering with Apple for the development of fitness-tracking devices
b)
Coca-Cola introducing a new flavor variant of its soft drink
c)
Amazon launching a new line of electronic devices under its own brand
d)
Toyota expanding its product line to include luxury vehicles
3.
...can influence brand equity through the actions and support of intermediaries such as retailers, as well as the transfer of any associations these intermediaries might have with the brand.
a)
Omnichannels
b)
Online channels
c)
Indirect channels
d)
. Direct channels
4.
What is co-branding in secondary brand association?
a)
The combination of two or more existing brands into a joint product or joint marketing effort.
b)
The practice of extending a brand into several new products.
c)
The licensing of a brand to various vendors.
d)
The alliance of multiple brands in the credit card market.
5.
What is the concept of brand architecture?
a)
The visual representation of a brand's identity
b)
he legal framework protecting a brand's trademarks
c)
The organization and structure of a brand's product portfolio.
d)
The financial value of a brand
6.
What is the primary goal of brand migration?
a)
To target new customer segments
b)
To reduce the price of a brand's products
c)
To increase the advertising budget for a brand
d)
To extend an existing brand into new product categories markets, or customer segments
7.
Any paid type of non-personal promotion and presentation of goods, services or ideas by an identified sponsor is
a)
Sales promotion
b)
Direct marketing
c)
Events and experiences
d)
Advertising
8.
Numerous forms of short-term incentives to promote trial or buying of a service of product is
a)
Sales promotio
b)
Direct marketing
c)
Events and experiences
d)
Advertising
9.
Company-sponsored programs and activities planned to create special brand related interactions are ...
a)
Sales promotion
b)
Direct marketing
c)
Events and experiences
d)
Advertising
10.
From the view of creating brand equity, marketers need to be
...
a)
Media sensitive
b)
Media neutral
c)
Media biased
d)
None of the above
11.
Comparative methods include:
a)
Brand-Based Comparative Approaches
b)
Marketing-Based Comparative Approaches
c)
Conjoint Analysis
d)
All are true
12.
Which advantage influences the formation and strength of the associations that make up the brand image?
a)
Choice Advantages
b)
Attention Advantages
c)
Learning Advantages
d)
Consideration Advantages
13.
What is the role of brand extensions in brand management?
a)
To protect the brand's intellectual property
b)
To generate additional revenue for the brand
c)
To diversify the brand's product portfolio
d)
To increase brand loyalty among existing customers
14.
Six steps for an effective form of marketing communications
a)
Exposure - Attention - Comprehension - Yielding - Intentions - Behavior
b)
Exporsure - Attention - Comprehension -Intentions - Yielding - Behavior
c)
Information - Attention - Comprehension - Intentions - Yielding - Behavior
d)
Attention - Comprehension - Intentions - Behavior - Exposure - Yielding
15.
According to the "sound symbolism" theory, which type of brand name is likely to evoke a sense of speed and agility?
a)
Descriptive brand name
b)
Arbitrary brand name
c)
Suggestive brand name
d)
Acronym brand name
16.
Generally, a brand is identified as an ...
a)
Tangible asset
b)
Liquid
c)
Intangible asset
d)
Short-term asset
17.
Which of the following statements about the creation of new brand associations is true?
a)
Secondary brand associations have the most impact on evaluations of a new product when consumers are highly motivated and knowledgeable about product-related concerns.
b)
Consumers are more likely to rely on secondary considerations when they have strong preferences for a particular brand.
c)
Linking a brand to another entity has no effect on existing brand associations.
d)
Cognitive consistency suggests that consumers may infer that associations, judgments, or feelings about the linked entity also apply to the brand.
18.
Customer Mind-set is the stage in "The brand value chain model"
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
Fourth
19.
Many practicing managers refer to a brand as
a)
Something that has created a certain amount of reputation
b)
Something that has created a certain amount of awareness
c)
Both A and B
d)
Something that has created a certain amount of awareness, reputation, prominence
20.
What is the primary challenge of implementing a sub-brand architecture?
a)
Maintaining consistency across different product brands
b)
Establishing a strong corporate brand identity
c)
Balancing the autonomy of individual brands with the corporate brand's influence
d)
Creating brand extensions for each product brand
21.
A famous person can:
(check all that's not true)
a)
Draw attention to a brand
b)
Shape brand perceptions, by virtue of consumers' perceptions of the famous person
c)
Increase the product performance
22.
The more __________ the market, the more likely that the firm will be able to implement marketing programs that meet the needs of consumers in any one segment.
a)
finely segmented
b)
diversity segmented
c)
widely segmented
d)
none of them
23.
How many lines are there in naming procedures?
a)
5.0
b)
6.0
c)
7.0
d)
8.0
24.
Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a means to leverage secondary brand associations?
a)
Companies (through branding strategies)
b)
Countries or other geographic areas (through identification of product origin)
c)
Channels of distribution (through channel strategy)
d)
Packaging design (through visual appeal)
25.
What is licensing in the context of brand marketing?
a)
Modifying existing logos and characters for marketing purposes.
b)
Creating contractual arrangements to share production costs with other brands.
c)
Renting another brand to contribute to the brand equity of a product.
d)
Selling the rights to use a brand name for a fixed fee.
26.
are short phrases that communicate descriptive or persuasive information about the brand. They often appear in advertising but can play an important role in packaging and in other aspects of the marketing program.
a)
Brand names
b)
Slogans
c)
Characters
d)
Ad taglines
27.
Retailers have their own brand images in consumers' minds due to the following associations:
a)
Product assortment
b)
Pricing and credit policy
c)
Quality of service
d)
All are true
28.
Which advantages create a high level of brand awareness?
a)
Choice Advantages
b)
Attention Advantages
c)
Learning Advantages
d)
Consideration Advantages
29.
How many types of attributes and benefits often underlie brand performance?
a)
3.0
b)
6.0
c)
5.0
d)
4.0
30.
Having compelling proof points and RTBs are often critical to the deliverability aspect of a
a)
Points - of - Parity
b)
Points - of - Similarity
c)
Points - of - Unique
d)
Points - of - Difference
31.
Brand tracking studies, as well as brand audits, can provide a huge reservoir of information about how best to build and ________ brand equity
a)
Check
b)
Measure
c)
Develop
d)
Grow
32.
... analysis aims to find the optimum positioning between low-price, low-quality and high-price, high-quality
a)
Market
b)
Brand
c)
Conjoint
d)
Price
33.
What kind of product risk does the product result in embarrassing others?
a)
Psychological risk
b)
Social risk
c)
Physical risk
d)
Functional risk
34.
How many major categories have researchers classified products and their associated attributes or benefits
into?
a)
2.0
b)
5.0
c)
3.0
d)
4.0
35.
Brand personality is human or traits that consumers can attribute to a brand.
a)
Characteristic
b)
Signatures
c)
Emotions
36.
Qualitative research techniques often identify possible brand associations and sources of ....
a)
Brand image
b)
Brand equity
c)
Brand awareness
d)
Brand recall
37.
Outdoorsy and tough are the facets of ....
a)
Sincerity
b)
Excitement
c)
Competence
d)
Ruggedness
38.
The most dramatic of the environments that affect marketing and appears to be now shaping our world is the __________ environment
a)
Natural
b)
New media
c)
. Economic
d)
Demographic
39.
What is the main goal of brand portfolio management?
a)
Maximizing brand equity for individual brands
b)
Minimizing marketing costs
c)
Maintaining brand consistency
d)
Reducing brand extensions
40.
Brand elements, sometimes called as ?
a)
Brand equity
b)
Brand identities
c)
Brand characters
d)
Brand signage
41.
... promotes a product not only by communicating a product's features and benefits but also by connecting it with unique and interesting customers experiences
a)
Personalizing marketing
b)
Experiental marketing
c)
Relationship marketing
d)
Mass customization
42.
Brand-based Comparative Approaches are applicable when the marketing activity under consideration represents ________ from past marketing of the brand.
a)
A continuation
b)
A change
c)
A progression
43.
What is the purpose of a "brand positioning statement" for a new product?
a)
To establish brand loyalty among existing customers
b)
To communicate the unique value proposition and target market of the new product
c)
To differentiate the new product from competitors
d)
To guide the selection of a suitable brand name for the new product
44.
What is brand equity?
a)
The financial value of a brand
b)
The market share of a brand
c)
The perception and value consumers associate with a brand
d)
The advertising budget allocated to a brand
45.
Ideal brand positioning aims to achieve the _________ between:
-What customers currently believe about the brand.
-What customers will value in the brand.
-What the firm is currently saying about the brand.
-Where the firm would like to take the brand.
a)
Congruence
b)
Relation
c)
Contrast
d)
Connection
46.
What is the purpose of a global brand ambassador?
a)
To promote the brand in a specific geographic market
b)
To oversee brand localization efforts
c)
To establish legal protection for the brand's trademarks
d)
To represent the brand across different geographic markets
47.
describes how to guide integrated marketing to maximize competitive advantages
a)
The brand value chain
b)
The brand resonance model
c)
The brand positioning model
d)
The brand image
48.
What is the primary goal of global brand positioning?
a)
To establish a consistent brand image across all geographic markets
b)
To customize the brand offering for each local market
c)
To maximize profits by targeting high-value market segments
d)
To protect the brand's intellectual property rights globally
49.
What is the concept of consumer ethnocentrism?
a)
The practice of adapting a brand's marketing strategy to suit local preferences
b)
The extent to which consumers prefer local brands over global brands
c)
The measurement of brand equity in different market segments
d)
The strategic use of a brand's equity to support market expansion
50.
The brand equity management system consists of:
a)
. Brand Charter or Bible
b)
Brand Equity Report
c)
Brand Equity Responsibilities
d)
All are true
51.
Brand names, URLs, logos, symbols, characters, spokespeople, slogans, jingles, packages, and signage are example of .
a)
Brand elements
b)
Brand image
c)
Brand performance
d)
Brand awareness
52.
One disadvantage of Marketing-Based Comparative Approaches is it's difficult to discern whether consumerresponses to changes in the marketing stimuli are being caused by __________ knowledge or by more generic product knowledge.
a)
Market
b)
Category
c)
Brand
53.
________ can be defined as the way by which organizations attempt to inform, convince and remind customers indirectly or directly about the brands and products they offer.
a)
Marketing communications
b)
Marketing plans
c)
Marketing strategies
d)
None of the above
54.
We can break down the dimensions of brand resonance into:
a)
Brand loyalty, Attitudinal attachment, Sense of community, Active engagement.
b)
Brandloyalty, Attitudinal attachment, Sense of community.
c)
Behavioral loyalty, Attitudinal attachment, Active engagement.
d)
Behavioral loyalty, Attitudinal attachment, Sense of community, Active engagement.
55.
Why should a brand name ideally have a clear, understandable and unambiguous pronunciation and meaning?
a)
Reduces the effort consumers have to make to comprehend and process the brand name.
b)
Short names often facilitate recall because they are easy to encode and store in memory.
c)
Encourage word-of-mouth exposure that helps build strong memory links
d)
All of the above
56.
What is the main risk associated with brand extensions?
a)
Dilution of the parent brand's image
b)
Inconsistency in brand messaging
c)
Increased competition among sub-brands
d)
Limited market reach for the new product
57.
What is the concept of brand equity leverage?
a)
The process of increasing brand awareness through social media marketing
b)
The ability of a brand to command a premium price compared to its competitors
c)
The strategic use of a brand's equity to support the introduction of new products
d)
The legal protection of a brand's intellectual property
58.
On Open Day, high school students who visit FPT University campuses are engaged in different activities that the University organize for them: Career talkshows, Demo-class, Exhibitions of Students'works and
On-campus life experience. Which concept of personalizing marketing has FPT University applied?
A. Personalizing marketing
a)
Personalizing marketing
b)
Experiental marketing
c)
Relationship marketing
d)
Mass customization
59.
Brand alliances, such as co-branding, require marketers to ask themselves questions such as:
(Check all that apply)
a)
What capabilities do we not have?
b)
What resource constraints do we face (people, time, money)?
c)
What growth goals or revenue needs do we have?
d)
None of the above questions
60.
Which of the following is NOT a potential benefit of implementing a strong brand architecture?
a)
Improved brand loyalty
b)
Enhanced brand image and reputation
c)
Reduced marketing costs
d)
Increased brand differentiation
61.
Estée Lauder cosmetics, Porsche automobiles, and Orville Redenbacher popcorn are examples of?
a)
The brand names based on places
b)
The brand names use words with inherent product meaning
c)
The brand names based on people's names
d)
None of them
62.
Which is a means to trace the value creation process for brands, to better understand the financial impact of brand marketing expenditures and investments?
a)
The brand mantra model
b)
The brand value chain model
c)
The brand resonance model
d)
The brand positioning model
63.
Which is the revenue-generating element of the traditional marketing mix?
a)
Product
b)
Place
c)
Promotion
d)
Pricing
64.
_____describes how to create intense loyally and strong customer relationships with customers.
a)
The brand positioning model
b)
The brand resonance model
c)
The brand segmentation
d)
The brand value chain
65.
What is the role of cultural symbols in brand management across geographic boundaries?
a)
To establish legal protection for the brand's trademarks
b)
To measure the financial performance of a brand
c)
To communicate brand meaning and create resonance with consumers
d)
To customize the brand offering for each local market
66.
What does CBBE (in the "Strategic Brand Management" book) stand for?
a)
Customer-Based Brand Element
b)
Consumer-Based Brand Element
c)
Consumer-Based Brand Equity
d)
Customer-Based Brand Equity
67.
Several programs planned to protect or promote a company's image, or its products is known as.....
a)
Sales promotion
b)
Direct marketing
c)
Events and experiences
d)
Public relations and publicity
68.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding leveraging a corporate brand?
a)
A corporate brand can evoke associations of common product attributes, benefits, or attitudes.
b)
Leveraging a corporate brand is always useful for large companies.
c)
Large companies sometimes introduce new brands to convey a "smaller" image.
d)
Leveraging a corporate brand can provide insights into emerging corporate priorities.
69.
What is the purpose of market research in managing brands across market segments?
a)
To measure the financial performance of a brand
b)
To identify potential brand extensions opportunities
c)
To assess changes in brand awareness over time
d)
To gather insights about consumer behavior and preferences
70.
What is the role of brand alliances in managing brands across market segments?
a)
To target specific market segments with customized offerings
b)
To establish legal protection for the brand's intellectual property globally
c)
To leverage the brand equity of partner brands for mutual benefit
d)
To measure changes in brand awareness over time
71.
Brand______is a means to provide in-depth information and insights essential for setting long-term strategic direction for the brand
a)
Recalling
b)
Edit
c)
Audit
d)
Designing
72.
What are the two key concepts in defining brand architecture?
a)
Brand positioning and customer segmentation
b)
. Brand management and brand performance
c)
Brand equity and brand management
d)
Brand portfolio and brand hierarchy
73.
What is brand loyalty?
a)
The financial value of a brand
b)
The market share of a brand
c)
he extent to which customers consistently choose a brand
d)
The visual representation of a brand's identity
74.
URLs (uniform resource locators) specify locations of pages on the Web and are also commonly referred to as:
a)
web server
b)
top level domain
c)
domain name
d)
. none of them
75.
Vietnam Airlines, Bamboo Airlines and Vietjet Air vary their prices for distinct market groups and value perceptions. Which value-pricing strategy is applied in this sector?
a)
Product Costs
b)
Communication Value
c)
Product Prices
d)
Price Segmentation
76.
What is the term used to describe the introduction of a new product or service under an existing brand name?
a)
Co-branding
b)
Brand extension
c)
Brand revitalization
d)
Brand migration
77.
Which of the following is NOT a potential benefit of a successful brand extension?
a)
Reduced marketing costs
b)
. Enhanced brand image
c)
Increased customer loyalty
d)
Decrease brand equity
78.
In recent years, the Michelin Guide's recognition of restaurants in Vietnam has created a significant buzz and excitement among food enthusiasts. The restaurants that receive the prestigious Michelin star designation gain recognition for their exceptional culinary experiences. Firstly, their leave a lasting impression on diners through innovative and delectable dishes that ....................es a global reputation for fine dining. These restaurants also demonst
a)
Memorable - Meaningful - Likable - Transferable - Adaptable - Protectable
b)
Fame - Endorsement - Likeable - Protectable - Flexibility - Credibility
c)
Fame - Likeable - Protectable - Flexibility - Credibility
d)
Memorable - Likable - Transferable - Adaptable - Protectable-Endorsement
79.
In a branded house brand architecture, what is the relationship between the corporate and product brands?
a)
They are completely independent of each other
b)
The corporate brand is more prominent than the product brands
c)
They product brands are more prominent than the corporate brand
d)
The corporate and product brands have equal prominence
80.
What is the risk associated with a branded house brand architecture?
a)
Lack of brand differentiation
b)
Confusion among customers
c)
Higher marketing costs
d)
Limited brand extension opportunities
81.
How does brand architecture impact consumer perception?
a)
It influences their perception of brand quality and value
b)
It determines their brand loyalty and purchase behavior
c)
It affects their emotional connection with the brand
d)
. It shapes their awareness and recognition of the brand
82.
Marketing-Based Comparative Approaches examine consumer response based on changes in the ...... program
a)
Communications
b)
Marketing
c)
Sales
83.
Nike used "Prepare for Battle" and "Quick Can't Be Caught" (basketball); "Write the Future" (World Cup); "My Better Is Better" (multisport); and "Here | Am" (women) as:
a)
Slogans
b)
Taglines
c)
Brand mantras
d)
Campaign name
84.
Conjoint Analysis is....... multivariate technique that enables marketers to profile the consumer decision process with respect to products and brands.
a)
Survey-based
b)
Research-based
c)
Analysis-based
85.
Brand characters can be so attention-getting and well-liked that they dominate other brand elements and actually dampen brand awareness.
a)
True
b)
false
86.
Daring, spirited, imaginative, and up-to-date are the facets of......
a)
Sincerity
b)
Excitement
c)
Competence
d)
Ruggedness
87.
Brand attitudes are consumers' overall evaluations of a brand and often form the basis for brand choice. Brand attitudes generally depend on specific attributes of the brand.
a)
True
b)
false
88.
Once a sufficient level of brand awareness is created, marketers can put more emphasis on___________?
a)
Brand image
b)
Brand recognition
c)
Brand recall
d)
Brand benefits
89.
Quantitative Research Techniques, brand image, are useful for marketers to make a distinction between :
- Lower-level considerations ( performance and imagery )
- Higher-level considerations ( ....... )
a)
Judgments and feelings
b)
Customer relationships
c)
Brand resonance
90.
____ are the personal value and meaning that consumers attach to the product or service attributes.
a)
Brand attributes
b)
Brand benefits
c)
Brand images
d)
Brand mantras
91.
Which concept describes how well the product or service meets customers' more functional needs?
a)
Brand salience
b)
Brand imagery
c)
Brand performance
d)
Brand judgments
92.
The sixth outcome of Market performance is:
a)
Brand expansion
b)
Cost structure
c)
Brand profitability
d)
Market share
93.
Projective techniques present consumers with ambiguous stimuli and ask them to ____ it.
a)
Draw
b)
Make sense of
c)
Describe
94.
A brand audit consists of ___ steps :
a)
2.0
b)
3.0
c)
4.0
d)
5.0
95.
The purpose of the brand inventory is to provide a current, comprehensive ___ of how all products and services are marketed and branded.
a)
Profile
b)
Portfolio
c)
Story
d)
Landscape
96.
What factors that marketers need to consider to create the differential response that leads to customer-based
brand equity?
a)
The strength, weakness, and uniqueness of brand associations.
b)
The strength, favorability, and uniqueness of brand associations
c)
The strength and weakness of brand associations.
d)
The strength and uniqueness of brand associations.
97.
What is the rationale behind using celebrity endorsers in marketing strategies?
a)
To generate revenue through celebrity merchandise.
b)
To target specific international markets.
c)
To lower production costs by utilizing famous personalities.
d)
To increase product awareness and image.
98.
What is the concept of "fit" in the context of brand extensions?
a)
The degree of similarity between the existing brand and the new product
b)
The extent to which the brand extension targets a new customer segment
c)
The level of innovation associated with the brand extension
d)
The compatibility between the brand's visual identity and the new product
99.
"The differential effect that brand knowledge has on customer response to the marketing of that brand" is the definition of?
a)
Customer-Based Brand Equity
b)
Consumer-Based Brand Element
c)
Consumer-Based Brand Equity
d)
Customer-Based Brand Element
100.
The basic premise of the CBBE concept is that the power of a brand lies in_
a)
tangible value of that brand
b)
what resides in the minds and hearts of customers
c)
both A and B
d)
none of them
101.
What is brand positioning?
a)
The legal protection of a brand's intellectual property
b)
The process of selecting a suitable brand name
c)
The marketing strategy that defines how a brand wants to be perceived by its target market
d)
The consumer perception of a brand's advertising campaigns
102.
What will happen when customers react more favorably to a product and the way it is marketed when the
brand is identified than when it is not?
a)
Nothing will happen
b)
A brand has positive customer-based brand equity
c)
A brand has negative customer-based brand equity
d)
A brand has positive and negative customer-based brand equity
103.
The Mercedes star, Rolex crown, CBS eye, Nike swoosh, and Olympic rings are example of: (p. 154)
a)
Signatures
b)
Logos
c)
Symbols
d)
Jingles
104.
Advantages of co-branding are:
(Check all that's not true)
a)
Borrow needed expertise
b)
Leverage equity you don't have
c)
Reduce cost of product introduction
d)
Risk of brand equity dilution
105.
____represent a special type of brand symbol-one that takes on human or real-life characteristics
a)
Characters
b)
. Ambassador
c)
Mascot
d)
All of the above
106.
Applications of Marketing-Based Comparative Approaches:
a)
The dollar-metric measure of brand commitment
b)
Assessing consumer response to different advertising strategies.
c)
Explore potential brand extensions by collecting consumer evaluations of a range of concept staterments
d)
All are true
107.
What is the role of market segmentation in managing brands across geographic boundaries?
a)
To target specific market segments with customized offerings
b)
To establish a consistent brand image across all geographic markets
c)
To maximize profits by targeting high-value market segments
d)
To protect the brand's intellectual property rights globally
108.
Which of the following statements is true regarding leveraging secondary brand associations?
a)
Leveraging secondary brand associations may involve some risks and a loss of control over the brand image
b)
Leveraging secondary brand associations always guarantees a competitive advantage over competitors
c)
Marketers should only choose entities that have similar associations to their brand.
d)
Complementarity branding strategies are not strategically important for delivering the desired brand position
109.
In the context of brand architecture, what does the term "cannibalization" refer to?
a)
The process of launching a new brand within an existing category
b)
The negative impact of a new brand on the sales of existing brands within the same portfolio
c)
The strategic allocation of marketing budgets among different brands
d)
The practice of extending the brand's reach to international markets
110.
Two particularty important criteria are how well the brand element conveys the following
a)
. General and specific information about the function of the product or service.
b)
General and specific information about particular attributes and benefits of the brand
c)
General information about particular attributes and benefits of the brand and specific information about the
d)
General information about the function of the product or service and specific information about particular attributes and benefits of the brand
111.
What is the concept of cultural branding?
a)
The practice of leveraging cultural elements to create brand resonance
b)
The process of expanding a brand's presence across different geographic markets
c)
The measurement of a brand's financial performance in different market segments
d)
The strategic use of a brand's equity to support market expansion
112.
What is brand localization?
a)
The process of targeting specific market segments with customized offerings
b)
The practice of adapting a brand's marketing strategy to suit local preferences
c)
The measurement of brand equity in different geographic regions
d)
The strategic use of a brand's equity to support market expansion
113.
Leveraging the secondary association may (check all):
a)
Create new brand association
b)
Effects on existing brand knowledge
c)
Effects on existing brand knowledge
d)
All of the above
114.
What kind of strategy does Samsung Galaxy C8 mobile phone apply:
a)
Create a new brand
b)
Adopt and modify an existing brand
c)
Combine an existing brand and a new brand
d)
Other
115.
If consumers have ... awareness or knowledge of the secondary entity, then obviously, there is nothing they can transfer from it.
a)
A little
b)
no
c)
a lot of
d)
. strong
116.
A country of geographic location from which a product originates may: (check all)
a)
become linked to the brand
b)
May generate secondary associations
c)
may create a strong POD for the brand
d)
All of the above
117.
Consumers choose brands originating in different countries based on (check all):
a)
their beliefs about the quality of certain types of products from certain countries
b)
the image that these brands or products communicate
c)
the reputation of the brand
118.
Which is NOT true
a)
existing brands can be related to a corporate or a family brand
b)
a corporate or a family brand can be a source of brand equity
c)
leveraging a corporate brand may or may not be useful
d)
a corporate or a family brand is never linked to a child brand
119.
Three main branding options exist for a new product are:
a)
Create a new brand
b)
Adopt and modify an existing brand
c)
Combine an existing brand and a new brand
d)
all are true
120.
Channels of distribution can directly affect the ... of the brands they sell:
a)
quality
b)
performance
c)
. equity
d)
attributes
121.
Disadvantages of co-branding are (check all):
a)
loss of control
b)
expand brand meaning into related categories
c)
negative feedback effects
d)
lack of brand focus and clarity
122.
In assessing a joint branding opportunity, marketers will ask themselves (check all that's NOT true):
a)
is it a profitable business venture?
b)
how does it help to maintain or strengthen brand equity?
c)
is there any possible risk of dilution of brand equity?
d)
does it offer any extrinsic advantages such as rewarding by a third party?
123.
Check all that's NOT true:
a)
With ingredient branding, a firm cannot generate greater sales at a higher margin
b)
ingredient branding creates brand equity for materials, components, or parts that are contained within other branded products
c)
branded ingredients sre often a signal of quality
d)
uniformity and predictability of ingredient brands can reduce risks and reassure consumers
124.
Firms may license corporate trademarks to (check all):
a)
generate extra revenue and profits
b)
protect their trademarks
c)
increase their brand exposure
d)
enhance their image
e)
All
125.
Sporting Cultural or Other Events may (check all that's NOT true):
a)
become associated to the brand and improving brand awareness
b)
add new associations
c)
guarantee the quality of the products under the brand
d)
improve the strength, favorability, and uniqueness of existing associations
126.
Marketers can create secondary associations by ... the brand to various third-party sources:
a)
introducing
b)
linking
c)
adding
127.
Some questions to understand customers ...:
Who buys our products & services?
Who makes the decision to buy the products?
Who influences the decision to buy the products?
How is the purchase decision made? Who assumes what role?
What does the customer buy? What needs must be satisfied?
Why do customers buy a particular brand?
Where do they go or look to buy the product or service?
a)
behavior
b)
feelings
c)
thinkings
d)
perception
128.
There are many different ways to uncover the types of associations linked to the brand and their corresponding strength, favorability, and ...
a)
reputation
b)
ruggedness
c)
uniqueness
d)
difference
129.
In the free association method, subjects are asked what .... when they think of a brand with no more specific probe or cue than perhaps the associated product category
a)
are the benefit off the products or service
b)
do they appreciate
c)
comes to mind
130.
Four types are particularly important when customer make judgments concerning a brand are:
a)
Quality, credibility, personality, and superiority
b)
Quality, credibility, consideration, and personality.
c)
Quality, credibility, consideration, andsuperiority.
d)
Quality, credibility, identity, and superiority.
131.
The important types of brand-building feelings are:
a)
Warmth, Fun, Excitement, Security, Socialapproval, Self-respect.
b)
Comfortable, Fun, Excitement, Security, Socialapproval, Self-respect.
c)
Warmth, Fun, Excitement, Security, Socialapproval.
d)
Warmth, Fun, Excitement, Security, Selfrespect.
132.
We can break down the two dimensions of brand
resonance into:
a)
Brand loyalty, Attitudinal attachment, Sense of community, Active engagement.
b)
Brandloyalty, Attitudinal attachment, Sense of community.
c)
Behavioral loyalty, Attitudinal attachment, Active engagement.
d)
Behavioral loyalty, Attitudinal attachment, Sense of community, Active engagement.
133.
The strongest affirmation of brand loyalty occurs
when
a)
Customers often buy products of the brand and state that they love the brand.
b)
Customers feel a kinship or affiliation with other people associated with the brand, whether fellow brand users or customers, or employees or
representatives of the company.
c)
All of the above.
d)
Customers are engaged, or willing to invest time, energy, money, or other resources in the brand beyond those expended during purchase or
consumption of the brand.
134.
What is DRIVE in Program Quality Multiplier
stands for ?
a)
. Distinctiveness, Relevance, Integrated, Value, Excellence.
b)
Distinctiveness, Resonance, Integrated, Value, Engagement.
c)
Distinctiveness, Resonance, Identity, Value, Excellence.
d)
Distinctiveness, Relevance, Integrated, Value, Engagement.
135.
Brand Associations is one of the five measures of:
a)
Marketing Program Investment
b)
Program Quality Multiplier
c)
Customer Mind - Set
d)
Marketplace Conditions Multiplier
136.
Brand equity facilitates in the effectiveness of brand extensions and brand introductions.
a)
T
b)
F
137.
The three criteria that are the marketer's offensive strategy and build brand equity
a)
Memorability, meaningfulness, and likability
b)
Memorability, meaningfulness and adaptability
c)
Transferability, adaptability, and protectability—however
d)
Transferability, memorability, and protectability—however
138.
The three criteria play a defensive role for
leveraging and maintaining brand equity in the
face of different opportunities and constraints.
a)
Memorability, meaningfulness, and likability
b)
Memorability, meaningfulness and adaptability
c)
Transferability, adaptability, and protectability—however
d)
Transferability, memorability, and protectability—however
139.
The reason why the brand name is a fundamentally important choice is:
a)
Customers only care about the brand name when they have a need to buy a certain product.
b)
It often captures the central theme or key associations of a product in a very compact and economical fashion.
c)
Brand name is an element that needs the least effort and time to determine.
d)
All of the above are incorrect.
140.
Which of the brand element is the most dificult for marketers to change?
a)
Brand name
b)
Logo and Symbol
c)
. Slogan
d)
Character
141.
In naming procedures, potential sources of name can come from:
a)
company management and employees
b)
existing or potential customers
c)
ad agencies, professional name consultants, and specialized computer-based naming companies.
d)
all of the above
142.
The issues facing companies regard to URLs are:
a)
Protect their brands from unauthorized use in other domain names.
b)
Use coined words for new brands if they wish to have a Web site for the brand.
c)
Both A and B
d)
None of them
143.
Choose the wrong statement when talking about
logos:
a)
Logos play a critical role in building brand equity and especially brand awareness.
b)
Logos have a long history as a means to indicate origin, ownership, or association.
c)
Logos range from corporate names or trademarks (word marks with text only) written in a distinctive form, to entirely abstract designs that may be completely unrelated to the word mark, corporate name, or corporate activities.
d)
Examples of brands with strong word marks and no accompanying logo separate from the name include the Mercedes star, Rolex crown, CBS eye, Nike swoosh, and Olympic rings.
144.
In 2000, John Deere revamped its deer trademark for the first time in 32 years,
making the animal appear to be leaping up rather than landing. This is an example of:
a)
Logos and symbols are often easily recognized and can be a valuable way to identify products.
b)
Abstract logos offer advantages when the full brand name is difficult to use for any reason.
c)
Logos can be easily adapted over time to achieve a more contemporary look.
d)
Logos transfer well across cultures and over a range of product categories.
145.
Sometimes modifying an existing slogan is more fruitful than introducing a new slogan with a completely new set of meanings.
a)
True
b)
false
146.
Choose the incorrect statement about jingles:
a)
Jingles are musical messages written around the brand.
b)
Jingles often have enough catchy hooks and choruses to become almost permanently registered in the minds of listeners
c)
Jingles can transfer as other brand elements.
d)
Jingles typically composed by professional songwriters
147.
____ typically composed by professional songwriters:
a)
Brand name
b)
Logo
c)
Slogan
d)
. Jingle
148.
From the perspective of both the firm and consumers, packaging must achieve several objectives:
a)
. Assist in at-home storage, Aid product consumption.
b)
Identify the brand, Convey descriptive and persuasive information.
c)
Facilitate product transportation and protection.
d)
All of the above
149.
The main reason for the integration of content marketing or advertising themes into the packaging is:
a)
75 million millennial population has begun tuning out traditional advertising.
b)
Customers tend to buy products with beautiful packaging
c)
Both A and B
d)
None of them
150.
What is sometimes called the "last five seconds of marketing" as well as "permanent media" or "the last salesman."?
a)
. Brand name
b)
Logo
c)
Jingle
d)
Packaging
151.
On the demand side, in mature markets especially, package innovations cannot provide a short-term sales boost.
a)
True
b)
false
152.
"Bigger and brighter" packages are not always better when competitors' packages are alsofactored in. Given enough shelf space, however,
manufacturers can create billboard effects with their brand to raise their prominence and impact
What effect is mentioned in the example above?
a)
The "shelf impact"
b)
The butterfly effect
c)
The decoy effect
d)
None of the above
153.
To emphasize the brand's "green" heritage, Stevia redesigned the packaging on its SweetLeaf product, changing the look and the size and promoting the 100 percent recycled materials
used in its manufacture. The reason why the company changed the packaging was:
a)
To signal a higher price, or to more effectively sell products through new or shifting distribution channels.
b)
When a significant product line expansion would benefit from a common look.
c)
To accompany a new product innovation to signal changes to consumers.
d)
When the old package just looks outdated.
154.
The coherence of a brand identity depends on
the consistency of:
a)
Brand equity
b)
Brand characters
c)
Brand slogans
d)
Brand elements
155.
According to the American Marketing Association (AMA), a brand is____?
a)
Name, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of them
b)
B. Name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of them
c)
C. Name, term, sign, symbol, or design
d)
D. Name, term, symbol, or design, or a combination of them
156.
The performance of a brand is also ....... on the actions taken by outside suppliers and marketing partners.
a)
Countable
b)
b. Reactive
c)
c. Dependent
157.
Down-to-earth, honest, wholesome, and cheerful are the facets of.........
a)
Competence
b)
B. Excitement
c)
C. Sincerity
d)
D. Sophistication
158.
Which brand architecture strategy is commonly used by retail companies?
a)
Branded house
b)
b. House of brands
c)
c. Hybrid brand
d)
d. Store brand
159.
Choose the wrong statement when talking about
logos:
a)
Logos play a critical role in building brand equity and especially brand awareness.
b)
B. Logos have a long history as a means to indicate origin, ownership, or association.
c)
C. Logos range from corporate names or trademarks (word marks with text only) written in a distinctive form, to entirely abstract designs that may be completely unrelated to the word mark, corporate name, or corporate activities.
d)
Examples of brands with strong word marks and no accompanying logo separate from the name include the Mercedes star, Rolex crown, CBS eye,
160.
Brand judgments are customers' personal opinions about and evaluations of the brand, which consumers form by putting together all the different: (p.117)
a)
Brand elements and imagery associations.
b)
B. Brand performance and imagery associations.
c)
C. Brand performance and brand recognitions.
d)
D. Brand elements and brand recognition.
161.
What is DRIVE in Program Quality Multiplier
stands for ?
a)
Distinctiveness, Relevance, Integrated, Value, Excellence.
b)
B. Distinctiveness, Resonance, Integrated, Value, Engagement.
c)
C. Distinctiveness, Resonance, Identity, Value, Excellence.
d)
D. Distinctiveness, Relevance, Integrated, Value, Engagement.
162.
what is brand architecture?
a)
The visual design elements of a brand
b)
b. The strategic design and implementation of brand assets
c)
The hierarchical structure and relationship of brands within a company's portfolio
d)
d. The process of creating brand extensions
163.
4 Santa Fe cologne, Chevrolet Tahoe SUV, and British Airways are examples of?
a)
The brand names based on places
b)
B. The brand names use words with inherent product meaning
c)
C. The brand names based on people's names
d)
D. None of them
164.
5 Mustang automobiles, Dove soap, and Greyhound
buses are examples of?
a)
The brand names based on places
b)
B. The brand names use words with inherent
c)
C. The brand names based on people's names
d)
D. None of them
165.
The act of designing the company's offer and
image so that it occupies a distinct and valued
place in the target customer's mind is?
a)
A. Brand tracking
b)
B. Brand resonance
c)
C. Brand salience
d)
D. Brand positioning
166.
Ideal brand positioning aims to achieve the _________ between:
-What customers currently believe about the brand.
-What customers will value in the brand.
-What the firm is currently saying about the brand.
-Where the firm would like to take the brand.
a)
A. Congruence
b)
B. Relation
c)
C. Contrast
d)
D. Connection
167.
____ is a set of research procedures designed to provide timely, accurate, and actionable information
a)
A. A brand equity measurement system
b)
B. A brand audit measurement system
c)
C. A brand equity management system
d)
D. A brand measurement system
168.
Creating brand equity charters, assembling brand equity reports, and defining brand equity responsibilities are the 3 major steps of which system?
a)
A. A brand equity measurement system
b)
B. A brand audit measurement system
c)
C. A brand equity management system
d)
D. A brand measurement system
169.
What is the primary motivation behind brand migrations?
a)
a. To enhance brand loyalty among existing customers
b)
b. To capitalize on new market opportunities
c)
c. To strengthen the brand's positioning in the current market
d)
d. To diversify the brand's product portfoli
170.
What is the concept of customer ethnocentrism?
a)
a. The practice of adapting a brand's marketing strategy to suit local preferences
b)
b. The extent to which customers prefer local brands over global brands
c)
c. The measurement of brand equity in different market segments
d)
d. The strategic use of a brand's equity to support market expansion
171.
Profiling each product or service requires marketers to catalogue:
(check all that's NOT true)
a)
a. Visual and written form for each product or service sold
b)
b. Only the brand elements attached to the products or services
c)
c. The inherent product attributes or characteristics of the brand
d)
d. Pricing, communications, and distribution policies
172.
James Bond, Transformers, and Star Wars are good examples of___
a)
A. Search goods
b)
B. Experience goods
c)
C. Credence goods
d)
D. None of the above
173.
Which brand architecture strategy allows for greater flexibility in launching new products or entering new markets?
a)
a. Branded house
b)
b. House of brands
c)
c. Hybrid brand
d)
d. Store brand
174.
Which of the following is NOT a brand architecture strategy?
a)
a. Branded house
b)
b. House of brands
c)
c. Hybrid brand
d)
d. Store brand
175.
Brands knowledge has two components, they are:
a)
A. Brand awareness and brand recognition
b)
B. Brand image and brand recall
c)
C. Brand awareness and brand image
d)
D. Brand recognition and brand recall
176.
What is the primary focus of a store brand?
a)
a. Differentiating from competitors
b)
b. Leveraging the parent company's reputation
c)
c. Offering lower prices
d)
d. Expanding the brand portfolio
177.
The depth of brand awareness will influence the likelihood that the brand comes to mind, whereas the breadth of brand awareness describes the different types of situations in which the brand might come to mind.
a)
True
b)
false
178.
: To provide central coordination, the firm should establish a position responsible for overseeing the.... of the brand charter and brand equity reports.
a)
Understanding
b)
Implementation
c)
Usage
179.
For some people, certain brands even play a religious role of sorts, substitute for religiouspractices, and help reinforce self-worth.
a)
True
b)
false
180.
The strongest affirmation of brand loyalty occurs
when
a)
Customers often buy products of the brand and state that they love the brand.
b)
B. Customers feel a kinship or affiliation with other people associated with the brand, whether fellow brand users or customers, or employees or
c)
C. Customers are engaged, or willing to invest time, energy, money, or other resources in the brand beyond those expended during purchase or
d)
D. All of the above.
181.
From an economic perspective, what benefits do
brands bring to customers?
a)
A. The brands do not bring any benefit to the consumers.
b)
B. Increase brand awareness and brand love.
c)
C. Allow consumers to lower the search costs for products both internally and externally.
d)
D. Both B and C
182.
The more _________ the market, the more likely that the firm will be able to implement marketing programs that meet the needs of consumers in any one segment.
a)
A. finely segmented
b)
B. diversity segmented
c)
C. widely segmented
d)
D. none of them
183.
In a house of brands brand architecture, how are the individual brands typically managed?
a)
a. They have separate marketing teams and budgets
b)
b. They share marketing teams and budgets with the corporate brand
c)
c. The corporate brand manages all marketing activities for the individual brands
184.
Which questions does the third step in the branding ladder represent?
a)
A. Who are you?
b)
B. What about you? What do I think or feel about you?
c)
C. What are you?
d)
D. What about you and me? What kind of association and how much of a connection would I like to have with you?
185.
What factors that marketers need to consider to create the differential response that leads to customer-based
brand equity?
a)
A. The strength, weakness, and uniqueness of brand associations.
b)
B. The strength, favorability, and uniqueness of brand associations.
c)
C. The strength and weakness of brand associations.
d)
D. The strength and uniqueness of brand associations.
186.
Three criteria to judge qualitative research techniques (according to Levy) (check all that's NOT true)
a)
a. Direction
b)
b. Depth
c)
c. Duration
d)
d. Diversity
187.
What is the level of "The generic product" in the
levels of meaning for a product ?
a)
4.0
b)
3.0
c)
2.0
d)
1.0
188.
Which of the brand element is the most dificult for marketers to change?
a)
A. Brand name
b)
B. Logo and Symbol
c)
C. Slogan
d)
D. Character
189.
What is a short, three - to five-word phrase that captures the irrefutable essence or spirit of the brand positioning ?
a)
A. Brand Mantra
b)
B. Slogan
c)
C. Tagline
d)
D. Brand functions
190.
Virtually every marketing dollar spent today must be justified as both effective and efficient in terms of .....
a)
a. Return on investment ( ROI )
b)
b. Return on marketing investment ( ROMI )
c)
c. Profit
191.
In 2000, John Deere revamped its deer trademark for the first time in 32 years,
making the animal appear to be leaping up rather than landing. This is an example of:
a)
A. Logos and symbols are often easily recognized and can be a valuable way to identify products.
b)
B. Abstract logos offer advantages when the full brand name is difficult to use for any reason.
c)
C. Logos can be easily adapted over time to achieve a more contemporary look.
d)
D. Logos transfer well across cultures and over a range of product categories.
192.
Which brand architecture strategy emphasizes a strong focus on the corporate brand, with individual product
brands having less prominence?
a)
A. Branded house
b)
B. House of brands
c)
C. Hybrid brand
d)
D. Store brand
193.
What is brand transnationality?
a)
a. To measure the financial performance of a brand
b)
b. The strategic use of a brand's equity to support market expansion
c)
c. The practice of adapting a brand's marketing strategy to suit local preferences
d)
d. The extent to which a brand operates globally and is connected to multiple markets
194.
From the view of creating brand equity, marketers need to be
...
a)
A. Media sensitive
b)
B. Media neutral
c)
C. Media biased
d)
D. None of the above
195.
Tracking studies play an important role by providing ____ baseline information to facilitate day-to-day decision-making. A good tracking system can help marketers better understand a host of important considerations, such as category dynamics, consumer behavior, competitive vulnerabilities and opportunities, and marketing effectiveness and efficiency.
a)
a. Good
b)
b. Important
c)
c. Accurate
d)
d. Consistent
196.
How many levels of meaning are there for a
product?
a)
3.0
b)
4.0
c)
5.0
d)
6.0
197.
Brand alliances, such as co-branding, require marketers to ask themselves questions such as:
(Check all that apply)
a)
A. What capabilities do we not have?
b)
B. What resource constraints do we face (people, time, money)?
c)
C. What growth goals or revenue needs do we have?
d)
D. None of the above questions
198.
Numerous forms of short-term incentives to promote trial or buying of a service of product is ...
a)
A. Sales promotion
b)
B. Direct marketing
c)
C. Events and experiences
d)
D. Advertising
199.
What is the level of "The generic product" in the
levels of meaning for a product ?
a)
1.0
b)
2.0
c)
3.0
d)
4.0
200.
What is DRIVE in Program Quality Multiplier
stands for ?
a)
A. Distinctiveness, Relevance, Integrated, Value, Excellence.
b)
B. Distinctiveness, Resonance, Integrated, Value, Engagement.
c)
C. Distinctiveness, Resonance, Identity, Value, Excellence.
d)
D. Distinctiveness, Relevance, Integrated, Value, Engagement.
201.
What is the purpose of brand audits?
a)
A. To assess the financial performance of a brand
b)
B. To evalute the effectiveness of brand advertising campaigns
c)
C. To measure changes in brand awareness overtime
d)
D. To evaluate the health and positioning of a brand
202.
Brand audit and brand tracking are implemented at which step in the Strategic brand management process?
a)
A. Identifying and developing brand plans
b)
B. Designing and implementing brand marketing programs
c)
C. Measuring and interpreting brand performance
d)
D. Growing and sustaining brand equity
203.
Conjoint Analysis allows the study of different brands and different aspects of the product simultaneously, such as product composition, price, distribution outlets, etc.
a)
A. Customers
b)
B. Marketing programs
c)
C. Competitors
204.
What is the term used to describe a strategy in which a brand is introduced in to a new geographic market with little to no changes to its product or positioning?
a)
a. Brand extension
b)
b. Brand adaptation
c)
c. Brand transplanting
d)
Brand integration
205.
What is the objective of brand repositioning?
a)
A. To target new customer segments
b)
B. To reduce the price of a brand's products
c)
C. To increase the advertising budget for a brand
d)
D. To alter the perception and image of a brand
206.
What is the term used to describe the process of creating a brand that appeals to a specific cultural group within a larger market?
a)
a. Global brand positioning
b)
b. Cultural segmentation
c)
c. Ethnocentric branding
d)
d. Subculture branding
207.
A highly salient brand is one that has:
a)
A. Depth and breadth of brand awareness.
b)
B. Depth or breadth of brand awareness.
c)
C. Depth and breadth of brand awareness and
d)
D. None of them.
208.
What is the role of brand audits in brand management?
a)
A. To evaluate the effectiveness of brand advertising campagins
b)
B. To measure changes in brand awareness overtime
c)
C. Assess and evaluate the current status and performance of a brand
d)
D. To monitor the financial performance of a brand
209.
Brand meaning is made up of two major
categories of brand associations related to:
a)
A. Performance and attributes
b)
B. Attributes and imagery
c)
C. Performance and imagery
d)
D. Performance, attributes and imagery
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