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Biology IV. Biomolecules

Total questions: 187

Worksheet time: 2hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Biuret Test will test for the presence of _________________.

a)

Protein

b)

Lipids

c)

Starch

d)

Simple Sugars

2.

The Sudan IV Test will test for the presence of _________________.

a)

Protein

b)

Lipids

c)

Starch

d)

Simple Sugars

3.

The Benedict Test will test for the presence of _________________.

a)

Protein

b)

Lipids

c)

Starch

d)

Simple Sugars

4.

The Iodine Test will test for the presence of _________________.

a)

Protein

b)

Lipids

c)

Starch

d)

Simple Sugars

5.

What are some characteristics of a positive Sudan IV result:

a)

The solution will separate and produce a dark pink/red ring indicating the presence of lipid

b)

The solution will turn a dark brown color indicating starch

c)

The solution will turn a bright blue color indicating the presence of simple sugars

d)

The solution will dark purple color indicating the presence of protein

6.

If I wanted to see if my new Low Carb Bread had a lot of starch in it I would use which of the following test to decide?

a)

Iodine Test

b)

Benedict's Test

c)

Sudan IV Test

d)

Biuret Test

7.

My cousin said that Gatorade is filled with protein, I don't believe him. Which test should I run to see if he is right or wrong?

a)

Biuret

b)

Iodine

c)

Sudan IV

d)

Benedict

8.

A positive Biuret's Test will turn which color?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Purple

d)

Yellow

9.

In the video, the scientist said that Sudan IV is a _________ dye, which is why we can use it to identify _______ easily.

a)

lipophilic, fats

b)

lipophobic, carbohydrates

c)

lipophilic, simple sugars

d)

lipophobic, proteins

10.

When one of our reagents contacts the starch in this bread, the white bread turns blue-black. This is an example of which of the following tests?

a)

Iodine

b)

Biuret

c)

Sudan IV

d)

Benedict's

11.

It is a loosely used term for molecules present in organisms that are essential to one or more typically biological processes, such as cell division, morphogenesis, or development.

a)

Biomolecules

b)

Bioparticles

c)

Bioatoms

d)

Biomatters

12.

This biomolecule is important in storing energy in the body.

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Protein

c)

Lipid

d)

Nucleic Acid

13.

It helps repair and build your body's tissues, allows metabolic reactions to take place and coordinates bodily functions.

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Protein

c)

Lipid

d)

Nucleic Acid

14.

It serve as structural components of cell membranes, function as energy storehouses, and function as important signaling molecules.

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Protein

c)

Lipid

d)

Nucleic Acid

15.

It is essential for the storage and expression of genetic information.

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Protein

c)

Lipid

d)

Nucleic Acid

16.

BREAD

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipid

d)

nucleic acid

17.

CHICKEN MEAT

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

18.

BUTTER

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

19.

RIBONUCLEIC ACID (RNA)

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

20.

DEOXYRIBONUCLEIC ACID (DNA)

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

21.

The process of converting the nucleotide sequence of an mRNA molecule into

an amino acid sequence in a polypeptide is called what?

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Transformation

d)

Trans Fat

22.

Carbohydrates contain what three elements?

a)

CHS

b)

NOC

c)

OCH

d)

CHNOPS

23.

A major role of lipids is what?

a)

Muscle contraction

b)

Phosphorylation of DNA

c)

Structure of phospholipids

d)

Structure of membranes

24.

Carbon atoms usually form how many covalent bonds?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

25.

An amino acid is a molecule with what functional groups?

a)

An amine and hydrochloric acid.

b)

A hydroxyl and an amine.

c)

A protein and a polypeptide

d)

A carboxyl and an amine

26.

DNA and RNA are examples of

a)

nucleic acids.

b)

nucleotides.

c)

proteins.

d)

lipids.

27.

DNA is a

a)

heteropolymer.

b)

homopolymer.

c)

peptide polymer.

d)

ribonucleotide polymer.

28.

The helical shape of DNA is due primarily to

a)

aromatic side chains.

b)

base stacking.

c)

hydrogen bonds.

d)

van der Waals constant.

29.

Proteins are involved in

a)

DNA synthesis

b)

enzymatic processes.

c)

lipid metabolism.

d)

All of the choices

30.

Which of the following is not true about proteins?

a)

Proteins are polymers of amino acids.

b)

Polypeptide chains fold up into a specific shape necessary for the protein’s function.

c)

Transfer RNAs carry amino acids to where they are needed for protein production

d)

Peptide bonds hold base pairs together.

31.

1. Biomolecules are the large, complex molecules found in living organisms. What element is MOST COMMONLY found in biomolecules?

a)

a) Iron (Fe)

b)

b) Carbon

c)

c) Calcium (Ca)

d)

d) Gold (Au)

32.

2. Carbohydrates are the main source of energy for your body. Which of the following is NOT a building block of carbohydrates?

a)

a) Glucose (a simple sugar)

b)

b) Amino Acid

c)

c) Fructose (another simple sugar)

d)

d) Starch (a complex carbohydrate)

33.

3. Proteins are essential for building and repairing tissues in your body. What is the building block of proteins?

a)

a) Fatty Acid

b)

b) Nucleotide

c)

c) Amino Acid

d)

d) Saccharide

34.

4. Lipids store energy in your body. Which of the following is an example of a lipid?

a)

a) DNA

b)

b) Protein

c)

c) Fat (triglyceride)

d)

d) Carbohydrate

35.

5. Nucleic acids store the genetic information of an organism. What are the two main types of nucleic acids?

a)

a) Carbohydrates and Proteins

b)

b) DNA and RNA

c)

c) Lipids and Proteins

d)

d) DNA and Glucose

36.

6. All of the following biomolecules EXCEPT for one contain nitrogen (N ) atoms. Which one is the exception?

a)

a) Proteins

b)

b) Nucleic Acids (DNA and RNA)

c)

c) Carbohydrates

d)

d) Lipids (in some cases)

37.

7. Water is essential for life and makes up a large portion of your body. What makes water such a special molecule?

a)

a) It is a simple molecule with unique bonding properties.

b)

b) It is very large and complex.

c)

c) It is a good conductor of electricity.

d)

d) It does not dissolve other molecules well.

38.

8. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in your body. What are enzymes made of?

a)

a) Carbohydrates

b)

b) Proteins

c)

c) Lipids

d)

d) Nucleic Acids

39.

9..Which biomolecules are NOT involved in providing energy for your body?

a)

a) Carbohydrates

b)

b) Lipids

c)

c) Proteins

d)

d) Nucleic Acids

40.

10. Biomolecules are constantly being broken down and built up in your body. This process is called:

a)

a) Cellular Respiration

b)

b) Photosynthesis

c)

c) Cell Division

d)

d) Genetic Mutation

41.

Monosaccharides are monomers of

a)

Lipids

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

42.

Lactose is composed of

a)

glucose + fructose

b)

glucose + glucose

c)

glucose + sucrose

d)

glucose + galactose

43.

What is the polysaccharide used by animals to store glucose?

a)

glycogen

b)

fructose

c)

starch

d)

cellulose

44.

What makes up the disaccharide sucrose?

a)

glucose + glucose

b)

glucose + fructose

c)

glucose + galactose

d)

glucose + maltose

45.
Carbohydrtaes are made up of 
a)
CHO
b)
CHON
c)
CHONS
d)
CHONPS
46.
Sucrose (table sugar)
Lactose (Milk Sugar)
Maltose (Grain sugar) 
are examples of 
a)
polysaccharides 
b)
monosaccarides 
c)
disaccharides
47.
______+_____= Maltose
a)
glucose + glucose
b)
glucose+ fructose
c)
glucose + galactose
48.

How are sugars formed in nature?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Cellular respiration

c)

Hydrolysis

d)

Dehydration

49.

What would be the classification of a monosaccharide made up of 5 carbons?

a)

Triose

b)

Tetrose

c)

Pentose

d)

Hexose

50.

Which reaction is needed to join two monosaccharides?

a)

Hydration

b)

Dehydration

c)

Dehydrogenation

d)

Hydrolysis

51.

Which carbohydrate do we store in our liver and serves as an energy reserve?

a)

Starch

b)

Glycogen

c)

Glucose

d)

Cellulose

52.
How many sugar units make up monosaccharides?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
zero
53.
Which do all carbohydrates do for us?
a)
provide energy
b)
make muscle
c)
make brains
d)
make hair
54.
These are all properties of a disaccharide EXCEPT:
a)
made up of two sugars
b)
sucrose
c)
2 monosaccharides joined by dehydration synthesis
d)
ratio of 1:2:1
55.

Why carbohydrates are important to living organisms?

4 lines
56.

What is the name of these two chemical structures?

4 lines
57.
Which of these are examples of carbohydrates?
a)
DNA, RNA
b)
Fats, hormones
c)
amino acids
d)
starches, glucose, chitin
58.
A monosaccharide is a
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
nucleic acid
d)
protein
59.
What are the monomers of a polysaccharide?
a)
glycerol
b)
amino acid
c)
fatty acid
d)
glucose
60.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
61.
Which type of carbohydrate is this?
a)
monsaccharide
b)
disaccharide
c)
polysaccharide
d)
glyceride
62.
Which type of carbohydrate is this?
a)
monosaccharide
b)
disaccharide
c)
polysaccharide
d)
glyceride
63.
  Glycogen, a polysaccharide, in your liver may be broken down to glucose by the process of __________.
 
a)
hydrolysis 
b)
dehydration synthesis
dehydration synthesis
c)
 condensation
d)
 
isomerization isomerization
64.
A monomer splits from a polymer through
a)
ATP synthesis
b)
monomerization
c)
hydrolysis
d)
condensation reaction
65.
This polysaccharide is important to the structure of plant cell walls, 
a)
Starch
b)
Glycogen
c)
Cellulose
d)
Chitin
66.
What type of carbohydrate is this?
a)
polysaccharide
b)
disaccharide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
it isn't a carbohydrate
67.
The 3 categories of carbohydrates are:
a)
Monosaccharide, disaccharide, polysaccharide
b)
glucose, fructose, galatose
c)
starch, cellulose, chitin
d)
There are no categories of carbohydrates
68.
What molecule is this
a)
sucrose
b)
protein
c)
glucose
d)
cellulose
69.

What type of bond is formed between two monosaccharides?

a)

Ester bond

b)

Glycosidic bond

c)

Peptide bond

d)

Double bond

70.

Which reaction is needed to break down complex sugars?

a)

Hydration

b)

Dehydration

c)

Dehydrogenation

d)

Hydrolysis

71.

Maltose is made from

a)

two fructose molecules

b)

two glucose molecules

c)

one glucose molecule and one fructose molecule

d)

one glucose molecule and one galactose molecule

72.

What are processes P and Q?

a)

P - oxidation

Q - reduction

b)

P - reduction

Q - oxidation

c)

P - condensation

Q - hydrolysis

d)

P - hydrolysis

Q - condensation

73.

What is the chemical formula for monosaccharides?

a)

CH2O

b)

C6H12O6

c)

C4H3O2

d)

CHO

74.

What are disaccharides?

a)

two monosaccharides bonded together

b)

two disaccharides bonded together

c)

one sugar molecule

d)

all answers are correct

75.

What is the process called when one molecule of water is ripped off to make a disaccharide?

a)

hydrolysis

b)

glycosidic bond

c)

dehydration reaction

d)

rehydration reaction

76.

It refers to the energy storage in plants.

a)

cellulose

b)

starch

c)

glycogen

d)

chitin

77.

A type of covalent bond that joins a carbohydrate molecule to another group, which may or may not be a carbohydrate.

a)

Ionic Bond

b)

Glycosidic linkage

c)

Hydrolysis

d)

Polar covalent bond

78.

Table sugar

a)

Glucose

b)

Fructose

c)

Galactose

d)

Sucrose

79.

Another structural polysaccharide that is found in the exoskeleton of arthropods.

a)

Glycogen

b)

Cellulose

c)

Chitin

d)

Starch

80.

What is the process called when one disaccharide has a molecule of water added to it and creates two separate monosaccharides?

a)

Dehydration reaction

b)

Hydrolysis

c)

Glycosidic bond

d)

Covalent bond

81.

glucose + galactose

a)

Lactose

b)

Maltose

c)

Sucrose

d)

Fructose

82.

What are the three familiar monosaccharides that are considered as hexoses?

a)

Glucose, Galactose, Fructose

b)

Glucose, Ribose, Ribulose

c)

Glucose, Ribulose, Fructose

d)

Glucose, Maltose, Sucrose

83.

What is the basic order of events in the digestion and mobilization of dietary fats?

a)

Degradation by lipases→ emulsified by bile→ incorporation into chylomicrons→ absorption and conversion into triacylglycerols

b)

Degradation by lipases→ absorption and conversion into triacylglycerols→incorporation into chylomicrons→ emulsified by bile

c)

Emulsified by bile→ degradation by lipases→ absorption and conversion into triacylglycerols→ incorporation into chylomicrons

d)

Emulsified by bile→ incorporation into chylomicrons→ absorption and conversion into triacylglycerols→ degradation by lipases

84.

Approximately how many molecules of ATP can be produced from the oxidation of a 20 carbon fatty acid, including those produced in the Krebs cycle?

a)

107

b)

100

c)

129

d)

136

85.

What are the major products of amino acid catabolism?

a)

Ketone bodies and tetrahydrofolate

b)

Tetrahydrofolate and glycogen

c)

Ketone bodies and glucose

d)

Glucose and tetrahydrofolate

86.

A deficiency of oxaloacetate would most likely increase the catabolism of what potential energy source?

a)

Acetyl-CoA

b)

Glucogenic amino acids

c)

Ketogenic amino acids

d)

Acetoacetyl-CoA

87.

What chemical properties describe a free fatty acid molecule capable of producing the most energy when used as a fuel source, relative to other free fatty acids?

a)

Shorter hydrocarbon tail with a greater number of unsaturated bonds

b)

Longer hydrocarbon tail with a greater number of unsaturated bonds

c)

Longer hydrocarbon tail with a lesser number of unsaturated bonds

d)

Shorter hydrocarbon tail with a lesser number of unsaturated bonds

88.

What is the rate limiting step in the production of energy from free fatty acids?

a)

Degradation of acetyl-CoA to enter the Krebs cycle

b)

Carnitine acyl-transferase activity

c)

β-oxidation within the mitochondrial matrix

d)

Dehydrogenation of fatty acyl-CoA

89.

What is lipolysis?

a)

Hydrolysis of triacylglycerol

b)

Formation of lipids

c)

Breakdown of ketone bodies

d)

Formation of ketone bodies

90.

Which of the following hormone is not used in the hydrolysis of triacylglycerol into the fatty acids in adipose tissues?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Glucagon

d)

Insulin

91.

Name the energy source of the brain during starvation.

a)

Fat

b)

Ketone bodies

c)

Protein

d)

Lipids

92.

In which form the nitrogen is incorporated into an amino acid?

a)

Nitrite

b)

Glutamate

c)

Nitrate

d)

Ammonium ion

93.

Transamination reaction in amino acid synthesis is catalyzed by enzyme_________.

a)

Nitric oxide synthase

b)

Decarboxylase

c)

Aminotransferase

d)

Glutamate decarboxylase

94.

Intermediates of which of the following metabolic pathway have not been used in the synthesis of amino acids?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Fatty acid biosynthesis

c)

Citric acid cycle

d)

Pentose phosphate pathway

95.

Name the amino acid which does not take part in transamination during amino acid catabolism.

a)

Proline

b)

Threonine

c)

Lysine

d)

Serine

96.

Products of urea cycle

a)

1 urea, 1 NH3, 1 ATP, 1 fumaric acid

b)

1 urea, 1 AMP, 2 ADP, 1 fumaric acid

c)

1 aspartic acid, 1 NH3, 1 ATP, 1 fumaric acid

d)

2 urea, 2 NH3, 1 ATP, 1 fumaric acid

97.

Insulin is a hormone that inhibits lipolysis. Glucagon is a hormone that promotes lipolysis.

a)

1st statement is true

b)

2nd statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

98.

Lipids are

a)

organic compound

b)

inorganic compound

99.

The followings are the functions and role of lipids in living organism:

a)

Thermal insulator

b)

Thermal conductor

c)

Act as cushion for internal organs

d)

Structural element of cell membrane

100.

Lipids are X while carbohydrates are Y. What is X and Y?

a)

X is soluble

b)

X is insoluble

c)

Y is soluble

d)

Y is insoluble

101.

Lipids contain more energy per gram than carbohydrates. True or false?

a)

True

b)

False, lipid contains equal amount of energy per gram as carbohydrates.

c)

False, lipid contains less the amount of energy per gram as carbohydrates.

102.

What is the main significance of fatty acid oxidation?

4 lines
103.

Enzyme A catalyse hydrolysis of bonds between fatty acid and the rest of triacylglycerols . What is enzyme A?

a)

Carnetin Palmitoyl Transferase 1

b)

Carnetin Palmitoyl Transferase 2

c)

Lipase

d)

Acetyl-CoA

104.

This type of fatty acids consist of ALL carbon-carbon single bonds. Which fatty acid is the statement referring to?

a)

Unsaturated fatty acids

b)

Saturated fatty acids

105.

What is the main difference of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?

4 lines
106.

Which of the following lipoprotein has the lowest density?

a)

VLDL

b)

LDL

c)

HDL

d)

Chylomicron

107.

What is the rate-limiting step in beta oxidation of fatty acids?

a)

Formation of fatty acyl-carnitine

b)

Formation of fatty acetyl-CoA

108.

In beta oxidation of FA, the sequence are as follows:

Oxidation by FAD > A > Oxidation by NAD > Thiolysis

What is reaction A?

(a)  

109.

The hydration reaction in beta oxidation of FA is catalyse by:

a)

hydroxy acyl-CoA dehydrogenase

b)

enoyl-CoA hydratase

c)

acyl-CoA dehydrogenase

d)

carnitine acylcarnitine translocase

110.

What is the definition of proteins?

a)

Anhydride of amino acids

b)

Fundamental constituents of the protoplasm

c)

Substances which were once living

d)

All of the above

111.

Which elements are usually found in proteins?

a)

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, and phosphorus

b)

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur

c)

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus

d)

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen

112.

How are amino acids linked to form proteins?

a)

Through peptide bonds by dehydration reaction

b)

Through hydrogen bonds by hydration reaction

c)

Through covalent bonds by hydrolysis reaction

d)

Through ionic bonds by condensation reaction

113.

What is the primary derived protein?

a)

Metaproteins

b)

Proteoses

c)

Peptones

d)

Peptides

114.

Which type of protein contains all the essential amino acids in sufficient amount?

a)

Complete or Adequate Protein

b)

Partially Incomplete Protein

c)

Incomplete Protein

d)

None of the above

115.

What is the function of proteins?

a)

Building of tissues

b)

Daily repair of tissues

c)

Source of energy

d)

All of the above

116.

What factors influence the biological value of protein?

a)

Amount and relative proportions of constituent amino acids

b)

Nutritional availability of constituent amino acids

c)

Method of food processing or preparation

d)

All of the above

117.

What are the physical properties of proteins?

a)

Form colloidal solution

b)

Form typical milky colloidal solution which foams when agitated

c)

Non-dialyzable

d)

All of the above

118.

What is the primary structure of a protein?

a)

Amino acid sequence

b)

Localized arrangement of one amino acid

c)

Three-dimensional appearance of protein molecule

d)

Over-all arrangement of the tertiary structure of protein molecule

119.

What is the fate of absorbed amino acids?

a)

Synthesized into body protein for growth and repair

b)

Temporarily stored in the tissues

c)

Taken up rapidly by the liver and tissues

d)

All of the above

120.

Which amino acids are considered essential?

a)

Histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, arginine, phenylalanine, threonine, valine, tryptophan

b)

Alanine, serine, glycine, aspartic acid, glutamic acid, proline, hydroxyproline, citrulline, cystine, tyrosine, norleucine, hydroxyglutamic acid

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

121.

What is the classification of amino acids based on the number of amino and carboxyl groups present?

a)

Neutral, Acid, Base

b)

Neutral, Basic, Acidic

c)

Acid, Base, Neutral

d)

Base, Acid, Neutral

122.

Which type of bond is involved in the tertiary structure of proteins?

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Hydrogen Bond

c)

Salt Bridges

d)

Hydrophobic Interaction

123.

What is the quaternary structure of a protein?

a)

Arrangement of adjacent amino acids

b)

Three-dimensional appearance of protein molecule

c)

Over-all arrangement of the tertiary structure of protein molecule

d)

Localized arrangement of one amino acid

124.

What determines the functions of a protein?

a)

Primary structure

b)

Secondary structure

c)

Tertiary structure

d)

Quaternary structure

125.

What is the meaning of the Greek word 'proteios' from which the name 'protein' is derived?

a)

To maintain balance

b)

To take first place

c)

To build muscle

d)

To create energy

126.

What percentage of the body weight consists of protein?

a)

30%

b)

10%

c)

19%

d)

25%

127.

Which of the following is not a body fluid that contains proteins?

a)

Blood

b)

Saliva

c)

Tears

d)

Sweat

128.

What are the usual components of proteins?

a)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Sodium, Potassium

b)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Calcium, Iron

c)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Sulfur, Phosphorus

d)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Magnesium, Zinc

129.

How are amino acids linked to form proteins?

a)

By ionic bonds

b)

By covalent bonds

c)

By hydrogen bonds

d)

By peptide bonds

130.

Which method is used for the isolation of proteins from natural sources by selective passage of ions and small molecules through a semi-permeable membrane?

a)

Precipitation

b)

Chromatography

c)

Dialysis

d)

Filtration

131.

Which type of protein contains another type of molecule or compound attached to the amino acid unit?

a)

Simple Protein

b)

Primary Derived Protein

c)

Secondary Derived Protein

d)

Conjugated Protein

132.

Which type of protein contains all the essential amino acids in sufficient amount?

a)

Secondary Derived Protein

b)

Primary Derived Protein

c)

Partially Incomplete Protein

d)

Complete or Adequate Protein

133.

What is the primary function of proteins in the body?

a)

To store energy

b)

To regulate body temperature

c)

To build tissues and repair cells

d)

To aid in digestion

134.

What is the fate of absorbed amino acids in the body?

a)

They are synthesized into body protein for growth and repair

b)

They are excreted as waste

c)

They are used for energy production

d)

They are stored in the liver

135.

Proteins are the most abundant bioorganic substance. The presence of _________ in proteins sets them apart from carbohydrates and lipids.

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen

136.

Building blocks of proteins (*ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS*)

(a)  

137.

Which of the following is/are Polar Neutral Amino Acid/s

a)

Glutamine

b)

Leucine

c)

Glutamic acid

d)

Cysteine

e)

Lysine

138.

Histidine, Lysine, and Arginine are examples of ____________________.

a)

Non-polar AA

b)

Polar Neutral AA

c)

Polar Acidic AA

d)

Polar Basic AA

139.

A polar acidic amino acid is an amino acid that contains a ____________ as its side chain.

a)

non polar

b)

neutral

c)

second carboxyl group

d)

second amino group

140.

An essential amino acid that is required for growth in children but not in adults.

(a)  

141.

Chirality can be observed in 19 out of 20 standard amino acids. Glycine is an exception as it has another hydrogen atom as its side chain.

a)

First statement is correct. Second statement is incorrect.

b)

First statement is incorrect. Second statement is correct.

c)

Both statements are correct.

d)

Both statements are incorrect.

142.

Naturally occurring amino acids are ______________.

a)

D-isomers

b)

L-isomers

143.

In the Fischer projection formula for amino acids, the D- and L- isomer is identified based on the horizontal position of ____________.

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Amino group

c)

Carboxyl group

d)

Side chain

144.

In neutral solution, carboxyl groups tend to be protonated. On the other hand, amino groups tend to be deprotonated.

a)

First statement is correct. Second statement is incorrect.

b)

First statement is incorrect. Second statement is correct.

c)

Both statements are correct.

d)

Both statements are incorrect.

145.

A molecule that has a positive charge on one atom and a negative charge on another atom, but which has no net charge.

(a)  

146.

In acid solution, amino and carboxyl groups_______________

a)

are protonated

b)

are deprotonated

c)

does not have a charge

147.

The pH at which an amino acid solution has no net charge because an equal number of positive and negative charges are present. (*ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

148.

During electrophoresis, amino acids that has a negative net charge will ____________________.

a)

migrate towards the positive electrode

b)

migrate towards the negative electrode

c)

not migrate

149.

The only standard amino acid that has a sulfhydryl group side chain.

(a)  

150.

The formation of Cystine from cysteine is reversible.

a)

True

b)

False

151.

Small peptide hormone that regulates the excretion of water by the kidneys.

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Vasopressin

c)

Enkephalin

d)

Glutathione

152.

Which of the following conjugated proteins is/are classified as glycoproteins?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Gamma globulin

c)

Ferritin

d)

Mucin

e)

High-density lipoproteins

153.

The strongest of the tertiary-structure interactions

a)

Covalent disulfide bonds

b)

Salt bridges

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Hydrophobic attractions

154.

Which interactions responsible for tertiary structure are easily disrupted by changes in pH and temperature?

a)

Covalent disulfide bonds

b)

Salt bridges

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Hydrophobic attractions

155.

Hemoglobin is a protein that has a _____________ structure.

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

156.

True about fibrous proteins (Select all that applies)

a)

Water soluble

b)

Water insoluble

c)

Have structural function

d)

Have a single type secondary structure

157.

A globular protein that functions as oxygen storage in muscles.

(a)  

158.

Reverse formation reaction for a peptide bond.

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Denaturation

c)

Oxidation

159.

Their function is to transport dietary triacylglycerols from the intestine to the liver and to adipose tissue.

a)

VLDL

b)

LDL

c)

HDL

d)

Chylomicrons

160.
DNA and RNA are examples of...
a)
proteins
b)
nucleic acids
c)
carbohydrates
d)
lipids
161.
What is the monomer of nucleic acids?
a)
Glycerol
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Nucleotides
162.
What are the components of a nucleotide?
a)
nitrogen base, phosphate group, and pentose sugar
b)
pentose sugar, purine, and pyrimidine
c)
nitrogen base and a phosphate group
d)
DNA, phosphate group, monosaccharide
163.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA from the point of view of the nitrogenous bases that are present in their nucleotides?
a)
In DNA, nucleotides can be made up of A, T, C, G. In RNA, nucleotides can also contain A, C or G; however, instead of T, they contain U.
b)
Purine and Pyrimidine
c)
Pyrimidine: Thymine, Cytosine (Urical)
d)
DNA, RNA
164.
RNA contains the sugar...
a)
Deoxyribose
b)
Glucose
c)
Ribose
d)
Lipids
165.
Which macromolecule is shown?
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
166.

What are 2 types of nucleic acids?

a)

Fatty Acids and Glycerol

b)

DNA and RNA

c)

Amino Acids and Enzymes

d)

Monosaccharides and Polysaccharides

167.

Which of the following is NOT part of a nucleotide?

a)

Nitrogenous Base

b)

Phosphate Group

c)

Pentose Sugar

d)

Fatty Acid

168.

What sugar is found in DNA?

a)

Glucose

b)

Ribose

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

Fructose

169.
Which of these is true about RNA?
a)
Has a double helix
b)
Has a single helix
c)
Contains thymine
170.
Which is the correct pairing?
a)
A-C
b)
A-T
c)
A-G
171.
Which is the correct pairing?
a)
T-C
b)
G-T
c)
G-C
172.
Adenine, Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine are what?
a)
Phosphates
b)
Sugars
c)
Nucleotides
d)
Bases
173.
What kind of bond holds the two strands of DNA together?
a)
Hydrogen bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Covalent bonds
174.

What is the shape of DNA?

a)

Double Hyperbola

b)

Paraolic

c)

Double Helix

d)

Linear

175.

The repeating units in both DNA and RNA are called

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

nucleic acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

amino acids

176.

The sugar that is in the backbone of DNA is called

a)

fructose

b)

ribose

c)

glucose

d)

deoxyribose

177.

Nucleotide bases pair in DNA through

a)

hydrogen bonds between complementary bases

b)

polar covalent bonds between complementary bases

c)

sugar bonds between complementary bases

d)

none of the choices

178.

What nucleotide base does RNA contain that DNA does not?

a)

adenine (A)

b)

cytosine (C)

c)

uracil (U)

d)

thymine (T)

179.

What unique ability does DNA have because it is double-stranded?

a)

it serves as genetic material in all viruses

b)

it can serve as a template for its own copying

c)

it can move around the cells

d)

none of the choices

180.

If you have 40 adenine in a DNA molecule, how many thymine can you expect?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

40

d)

80

181.

A piece of DNA was analysed and 15% of its nucleotides were adenine. What percentage would be uracil?

a)

0%

b)

15%

c)

35%

d)

70%

182.

What are the components of a nucleotide?

a)

pentose sugar and phosphate group

b)

nitrogenous base, phospahte group, pentose sugar

c)

nitrogenous base and DNA

d)

nitrogenous base and pentose sugar

183.

If a gene has 30 nucleotides, how many amino acids does it have?

a)

3

b)

10

c)

60

d)

90

184.

Which ones are purines?

a)

Adenine and Guanine

b)

Adenine and Thymine

c)

Cytosine and Guanine

d)

Cytosine and Thymine

185.
From the nucleotide on the right, which part is labeled 2?
a)
Sugar
b)
Phosphate
c)
Nitrogenous Base
d)
Phosphorous
186.
If one series of bases reads: TTGACTAGG, then the complementary set of bases would read:
a)
TTGACTAGG
b)
AACTGATCC
c)
AATCGAACTT
d)
AAGTCATCC
187.

What sugar is found in RNA?

a)

Ribose

b)

Deoxyribose

c)

Glucose

d)

Galactose

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