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pathology chapter 1

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Pathology, from the Greek words pathos and logos literally translates to?

a)

study of suffering

b)

study of diseases

2.

This refers to chromosome tethers

a)

telomeres

b)

centromeres

3.

This type of chromatin is recognizable as cytochemically dense and transcriptionally inactive

a)

heterochromatin

b)

euchromatin

4.

What is the modification effect of histone acetyltransferases (HATs) on chromatin?

a)

it tends to open the chromatin and increase transcription

b)

It tends to condense the chromatin and decrease transcription

5.

Linker DNAs are associated with what type of histone?

a)

H1

b)

H2A

c)

H3

d)

H4

6.

pre-miRNA will be trimmed by what cytosolic enzyme?

a)

RNA-induced silencing complexes (RISC)

b)

Dicer

7.

Base pairing between miRNA and its target RNA will lead to?

a)

gene silencing

b)

upregulation of gene expression

8.

Knockdown technologies use what type of RNA to reproduce endogenous miRNA function?

a)

siRNA

b)

long noncoding RNA

9.

Which of the following is/are roles of long noncoding RNA?

a)

gene activation

b)

gene suppression

c)

chromatin modification

d)

assembly of protein complexes

e)

all given choices are correct

10.

XIST which is involved in the physiologic X chromosome inactivation that occurs in females is an example of?

a)

miRNA

b)

lncRNA

c)

siRNA

11.

This is used in CRISPR gene editing to recognize the sequence of DNA to be edited?

a)

guide DNA/ gDNA

b)

guide RNA/ gRNA

12.

What component of the CRISPR gene editing is used to cut target DNA inducing double-stranded DNA breaks at the site of gRNA binding.

a)

dicer

b)

RISC complex

c)

Cas9 protein

13.

This is used for steroid hormone and lipoprotein synthesis and modification of hydrophobic compounds into water-soluble molecules for export

a)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

d)

free ribosomes

14.

This is the site of senescent intracellular organelle breakdown or autophagy

a)

proteasome

b)

peroxisome

c)

endosome

d)

lysosome

15.

This is where phagocytosed microbes are killed and catabolized

a)

proteasome

b)

lysosome

c)

peroxisome

d)

endosome

16.

these are disposal complexes that degrade denatured or otherwise tagged cytosolic proteins

a)

proteasome

b)

lysosome

c)

peroxisome

d)

endosome

17.

Plays a specialized role in the breakdown of very long chain fatty acids, generating hydrogen peroxide in the process

a)

proteasome

b)

lysosome

c)

peroxisome

d)

endosome

18.

For intracellular transport or export or shuttles internalized material to the appropriate intracellular site

a)

proteasome

b)

lysosome

c)

peroxisome

d)

endosome

19.

Nucleosomes are comprised of?

a)

octamers of histone proteins encircled by DNA

b)

histones wrapped centrally around chromosomes

20.

These are repetitive nucleotide sequences that cap the termini of chromatids and permit repeated chromosomal replication without deterioration

a)

centromere

b)

telomeres

21.

coding region of a gene

a)

exons

b)

introns

22.

Which of the following is found in the inner leaflet of the plasma membrane?

a)

phosphatidylcholine

b)

sphingomyelin

c)

phosphatidylserine

23.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the cytoskeleton of a cell?

a)

microfilaments

b)

intermediate filaments

c)

microtubule

d)

all are components of the cytoskeleton

24.

which of the following is NOT a function of mitochondria?

a)

ATP generation

b)

source of metabolic intermediates

c)

apoptosis

d)

synthesis of certain macromolecules such as heme

e)

all are functions of the mitochondria

25.

serves as an eat me signal during programmed cell death

a)

phosphatidylinositol

b)

phosphatidylcholine

c)

phosphatidylserine

26.

This form of solute transport across the plasma membrane is frequently driven by a concentration and or electrical gradient between the inside and outside of the cell

a)

active transport

b)

passive transport

27.

This is the movement of endocytosed vesicles between the apical and basolateral compartments of the cell

a)

exocytosis

b)

transcytosis

28.

Internalization of caveolae along with bound molecules and associated extracellular fluid is called?

a)

potocytosis

b)

exocytosis

29.

This is the most abundant cytosolic protein in cells

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

vimentin

d)

lamins

30.

this is an intermediate filament expressed mostly in mesenchymal cells

a)

glial fibrillary protein

b)

cytokeratin

c)

vimentin

31.

this is an intermediate filament usually expressed in muscle cells which forms the scaffold on which actin and myosin contract

a)

desmin

b)

neurofilaments

c)

cytokeratins

32.

this is an intermediate filament usually expressed in epithelial cells

a)

lamin

b)

glial fibrillary acidic protein

c)

cytokeratin

d)

vimentin

33.

this cytoskeleton component mediate sister chromatid segregation during mitosis and can be adopted to form the core of motile cilia or flagella

a)

actin microfilament

b)

intermediate filament

c)

microtubule

34.

It seals adjacent epithelial cells together to create a continuous barrier that restricts the paracellular movement of ions and other molecules. It also represents the boundary that separates apical and basolateral domains of a cell and maintains cellular polarity

a)

occluding junction

b)

anchoring junction

c)

communicating junction

35.

These are noncoding DNA sequences

a)

exon

b)

intron

36.

this permits the diffusion of chemical or electrical signals from one cell to another

a)

anchoring junction

b)

occluding junction

c)

communicating junction

37.

type of signaling that occurs when molecules secreted by a cell affect the same cell

a)

paracrine

b)

endocrine

c)

autocrine

38.

These transcription factors regulate cell division which are products of several growth promoting genes EXCEPT?

a)

TP53

b)

MYC

c)

JUN

39.

this is regarded as the major angiogenic factor

a)

FGF

b)

TGF-B

c)

EGF

d)

VEGF

40.

This growth factor can be conceptualized as driving scar formation and putting a brake on the inflammation that accompanies wound healing; suppresses acute inflammation

a)

VEGF

b)

TGF-B

c)

TGF-A

d)

KGF

41.

The ability of tissues to elastically recoil and return to a baseline structure after physical stress is conferred by

a)

collagen

b)

elastin

c)

proteoglycans

42.

this is the most abundant glycoprotein in the basement membrane and connects cells to underlying ECM

a)

laminin

b)

fibronectin

43.

this is a major component of the interstitial ECM; it is involved in healing wounds, tissue and plasma fibronectin provide the scaffolding for subsequent ECM deposition

a)

integrin

b)

laminin

c)

fibronectin

44.

quiescent phase in cell cycle

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

45.

this cell cycle checkpoint primarily checks for unduplicated DNA

a)

G1/S checkpoint

b)

G1 restriction point

c)

G2/M checkpoint

46.

this type of nonfibrillar collagen contribute to structures of planar basement membrane

a)

collagen I

b)

collagen II

c)

collagen III

d)

collagen IV

47.

This form of stem cell division refers to replication in which one daughter cell enters a differentiation pathway and gives rise to mature cells while the other remains undifferentiated

a)

asymmetric division

b)

symmetric division

48.

this variety of stem cell is the most undifferentiated

a)

embryonic stem cell

b)

tissue stem cell

c)

adult stem cell

49.

this stem cell variety can be induced under appropriate conditions to form specialized cells of all three germ cell layers

a)

embryonic stem cell

b)

adult stem cell

50.

this stem cell variety is produced when genes that confer stem cell properties are introduced into a patient's differentiated cells, giving rise to stem cells that can be induced to differentiate into various lineages

a)

embryonic stem cell

b)

adult stem cell

c)

induced pluripotent stem cells

d)

tissue stem cells