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IGCSE Physics MegaQuiz

Total questions: 493

Worksheet time: 11hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The S.I. unit for time is

a)

minute

b)

seconds

c)

hours

d)

days

2.

The S.I. unit for current is

a)

volt

b)

ohms

c)

ampere

d)

watt

3.

The S.I. unit for light intensity is

a)

joule

b)

watt

c)

candela

d)

kelvin

4.

The S.I. unit for length is

a)

yard

b)

meter

c)

foot

d)

inches

5.

The physical quantities other than base quantities are termed as

a)

professional quantities

b)

energetic quantities

c)

dependent quantities

d)

derived quantities

6.

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

a)

displacement

b)

velocity

c)

force

d)

mass

7.

Which of the following is a vector quantity

a)

pressure

b)

force

c)

speed

d)

distance

8.

The S.I. prefix  μ\mu  indicates 

a)

10−310^{-3}  

b)

10−210^{-2}  

c)

10+610^{+6}

d)

10−610^{-6}  

9.

The S.I. prefix centi indicates x 10−210^{-2} . Which option below correctly indicates the prefixes milli and giga 

a)

10−3 10^{-3\ } and 10910^9

b)

10310^3 and 10610^6

c)

10−910^{-9} and 10910^9

d)

10−910^{-9} and 10610^6

10.

Which pair of units are both S.I. base units?

a)

meter, degree celsius

b)

newton, kilogram

c)

ampere, kelvin

d)

joule, seconds

11.

The S.I. prefix hecto indicates x 10210^2 . Which option below correctly indicates the prefixes mega and nano

a)

10610^6  and  10910^9  

b)

10−610^{-6}  and  10310^3  

c)

nullnull  and  10−910^{-9}  

d)

10310^3  and  10−910^{-9}  

12.

What is the least count of a metre scale?

a)

1.0 cm

b)

0.1 cm

c)

0.01 cm

d)

0.001 cm

13.

A vernier calipers can be used to measure a certain quantity. Which quantity can it measure?

a)

temperature

b)

length

c)

pressure

d)

density

14.

A student uses a measuring cylinder to measure the volume of quantity of water.


Which of the following procedures would make her measurement less accurate?

a)

reading the level from the bottom of the meniscus

b)

using the largest measuring cylinder possible

c)

keeping her eyes level with the water surface

d)

making sure the cylinder is perfectly vertical

15.

The diagram shows four identical spheres placed between two wooden blocks on a ruler.


What is the diameter of one sphere?

a)

1.0 cm

b)

2.0 cm

c)

3.0 cm

d)

4.0 cm

16.

A pendulum is swinging. Five students each measure the time it takes to swing through ten complete swings.

Three students measure the time as17.2 s. Another student measures it as 16.9 s, and the fifth student measures it as 17.0 s.

What is the average period of the pendulum?

a)

1.69 s

b)

1.70 s

c)

1.71 s

d)

1.72 s

17.

A student has a stack of 20 identical coins. The figure shows the student measuring the height of the stack using a ruler.

The student correctly determines the height of the stack as 7.7 cm.

Calculate the average thickness of one coin.

a)

15.4 cm

b)

3.85 cm

c)

0.77 cm

d)

0.39 cm

18.

A student has been told to find the density of some liquid paraffin by measuring its mass and its volume.

Which piece of laboratory equipment should she use to measure the volume of the liquid paraffin?

a)

Beaker

b)

Stopwatch

c)

Metre rule

d)

Measuring cylinder

19.

A student has been told to find the density of some liquid paraffin by measuring its mass and its volume.

Which piece of laboratory equipment should she use to find the mass of the liquid paraffin?

a)

Top pan balance

b)

Measuring cylinder

c)

Metre rule

d)

Stopwatch

20.

What is the most accurate and precise method to measure the thickness of a coin?

a)

Use a top pan balance.

b)

Use a micrometer screw gauge.

c)

Use a ruler and look at the scale perpendicularly.

d)

Use the displacement method with water in a measuring cylinder.

21.

The diagram shows the height of a stack of identical coins.

What is the thickness of one coin?

a)

0.20 mm

b)

2.0 mm

c)

0.24 cm

d)

2.0 cm

22.

A student is asked to find the volume of a small irregularly-shaped piece of rock.

He has the following apparatus available.

Which apparatus must the student use to find the volume of the small piece of rock?

a)

balance and rule

b)

rule only

c)

balance and measuring cylinder

d)

measuring cylinder only

23.

Which instrument is used to measure accurately the diameter of a thin metal wire?

a)

30 cm ruler

b)

measuring tape

c)

metre rule

d)

micrometer screw gauge

24.

Water drips from a tap into a measuring cylinder.

The table shows the volume of water in the cylinder every minute for four minutes.

What is the average volume of water collected in the cylinder each minute?

a)

22 cm3

b)

28 cm3

c)

56 cm3

d)

57 cm3

25.

What is the typical accuracy of a metre rule?

a)

0.1 cm

b)

0.01 cm

c)

0.001 cm

d)

0.01 mm

26.

Earth and its solar system are a part of which of the following galaxies?

a)

Andromeda

b)

Black Eye

c)

Milky Way

d)

Cartwheel

27.

Which of the following best describes a galaxy? A galaxy is –

a)

the ending of the life cycle of all super massive stars in the universe.

b)

a massive system of stars, gas, dust, and dark matter bound together by gravitational forces.

c)

a visible body of liquid or frozen crystal droplets suspended above a planetary surface.

d)

the visible path of a meteoroid as it enters Earth’s atmosphere.

28.
Which planet in our solar system will have the fastest orbital  speed?
a)
Venus 
b)
Earth 
c)
Saturn 
d)
Mercury 
29.
The strength of the force of gravity depends on:
a)
the masses of the objects and their speeds.
b)
the masses of the objects and the distance between them.
c)
the weight of the objects and their speeds.
d)
the masses of the objects and their weights.
30.
One complete revolution of the Earth around the sun takes about
a)
one rotation
b)
half a year
c)
one year
d)
one season
31.
The Earth takes about __________________ hours to complete one rotation of its axis.  
a)
12
b)
24
c)
14
d)
28
32.
A body that orbits a planet is a...
a)
Meteor
b)
Asteroid
c)
Satellite
d)
Comet
33.

Which is the largest planet in our solar system?

a)

Earth

b)

Jupiter

c)

Venus

d)

Mars

34.
What is the composition of most comets?
a)
rock, ice, salt carbon
b)
rock, ice magma, frozen gases
c)
ice, dust, rock, frozen gases
d)
ice, dust, rock, soil
35.
How does a meteor compare to a meteorite? 
a)
A meteor is moving through Earth's atmosphere and the meteorite actually lands on Earth
b)
A meteorite is moving through the Earth's atmosphere and the meteor actually lands on Earth
c)
Meteors are made up of Carbon and meteorites are made of ice
d)
They are the same thing
36.
Which of the following describes an asteroid?
a)
Composed of a nucleus, tail, and coma
b)
Orbit the sun like a planet
c)
Have an elliptical orbit of the sun
d)
Shooting star
37.
What is the composition of an asteroid?
a)
Ice, dust, rock, frozen gases
b)
Rock, ice, salt, carbon
c)
Metals and rocky material
d)
Rock, ice, magma, frozen gases
38.
What do comets and asteroids have in common?
a)
They both have a long elliptical orbit
b)
They orbit the sun between Mars and Jupiter
c)
They are both made up of rock, ice, and gas
d)
They are both leftovers from the materials that formed the solar system
39.
What is one difference between an asteroid and comet?
a)
A comet orbits the sun and an asteroid does not
b)
An asteroid is formed from leftovers from the formation of the solar system and a comet is not 
c)
When a comet comes near the sun it loses material while an asteroid typically remains solid
d)
An asteroid orbits the sun in the oort cloud while a comet orbits the sun between Mars and Jupiter
40.

Based on the table, which planet in our solar system will have the fastest orbital speed?

a)

Venus

b)

Earth

c)

Saturn

d)

Mercury

41.

The orbital path of a satellite is shown in the sketch. Use the sketch to answer the question.


In which of the positions A through D does the satellite have the least speed ?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

42.

Which planet in this image will have the largest orbital radius?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Earth

d)

Mars

43.

Which best represents the path of a planet P as it orbits the Sun? Drawing is not to scale.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.

You discover a new planet in our solar system. You measure it's orbital period to be 246 days.


Where is this planet likely to be located based on this information?

a)

Closer to the Sun than Mercury.

b)

Located between Earth and Jupiter.

c)

Located between Earth and Venus .

d)

Located beyond Neptune.

45.

Two satellites of equal mass are in circular orbit around a planet. Satellite b is twice as far out. Which feels a stronger gravitational force?

a)

Satellite a

b)

Satellite b

c)

Both the same

46.
Which planet in our solar system will have the fastest orbital  speed?
a)
Venus 
b)
Earth 
c)
Saturn 
d)
Mercury 
47.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

48.

A tunnel has a length of 50 km. A car takes 20 min to travel between the two ends of the tunnel. What is the average speed of the car?

a)

2.5 km / h

b)

16.6 km / h

c)

150 km / h

d)

1000 km / h

49.
a)

pole 1 and pole 2.

b)

pole 2 and pole 3.

c)

pole 3 and pole 4.

d)

pole 4 and pole 5.

50.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

51.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

52.

A small steel ball is dropped from a low balcony. Ignoring air resistance, which statement describes its motion?

a)

It falls with decreasing acceleration.

b)

It falls with constant acceleration.

c)

It falls with decreasing speed.

d)

It falls with constant speed.

53.

Which speed/ time graph applies to an object at rest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

54.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

55.
a)

10 m

b)

20 m

c)

100 m

d)

200 m

56.
a)

150 m

b)

300 m

c)

600 m

d)

1200 m

57.
a)

4.0 s

b)

6.0 s

c)

10 s

d)

16 s

58.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

59.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

60.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

61.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

62.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

63.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

64.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

65.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

66.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

67.

What is the correct equation for refractive index

a)

n = sinr / sini

b)

n = sini / sinr

c)

c = sini / sinr

d)

Sinc = sini / sinr

68.

What is the correct equation for acceleration

a)

a = (v - u) / t

b)

a = d / t

c)

a = f x m

69.

What is the correct equation linking force mass and acceleration

a)

F = ma

b)

m = Fa

c)

a = Fm

70.

What is the correct equation linking voltage current and resistance

a)

V = IR

b)

R = VI

c)

I = VR

71.

What is the correct equation linking charge current and time

a)

Q = It

b)

I = Qt

c)

t = QI

72.

What is the correct equation linking density mass and volume

a)

d = m / v

b)

d = m x v

c)

d = v / m

73.

What is the correct equation for gravitational potential energy

a)

m x g x h

b)

m x g / h

c)

m x h / g

74.

What is the correct equation for kinetic energy

a)

1/2 x m x v2

b)

m x v2

c)

1 / 2 x v x m2

75.

What is the correct equation linking speed of a wave frequency and wavelength

a)

v = f x λ\lambda

b)

v = f / λ\lambda

c)

v = λ\lambda / f

76.

What is the correct equation for basic pressure 

a)

p = F / A

b)

p =  F x A

c)

p = A / F

77.

How do you find the number of neutrons in an element

a)

Mass number - atomic number

b)

Atomic number - mass number

c)

Mass number / atomic number

78.

What is the correct equation for electrical power

a)

P = I x V

b)

P = V / I

c)

P = I / V

79.
The tool used to measure the mass of a substance or object is a ______________.
a)
balance
b)
graduated cylinder
c)
ruler
d)
thermometer
80.
Which lab tool might you use to measure the volume of a liquid?
a)
electric scale
b)
bunsen burner
c)
test tube
d)
graduated cylinder
81.
What is the volume of Object X?
a)
10.0 cm3
b)
15.0 cm3
c)
20.0 cm3
d)
25.0 cm3
82.
What is the volume of 150 grams of lead if it has a density of 11.3 g/cm3?
a)
13.3 g
b)
13.3 cm3
c)
.075 g
d)
1695 cm3
83.
Which box has a higher density?  
a)
Box A
b)
Box B
c)
cannot be determined
d)
they are the same
84.
Why do some substances float on water?
a)
they are warmer than water
b)
they are cooler than water
c)
they are more dense than water
d)
they are less dense than water
85.
Helium balloons rise on earth because
a)
helium is less dense than air
b)
helium is more dense than air
c)
helium is cooler than air
d)
helium is warmer than air
86.
What is the density of water?
a)
0 g/ml
b)
1 g/ml
c)
10 g/ml
d)
100 g/ml
87.
Put the liquids in order from most dense to least dense?
a)
4, 3, 2, 1
b)
1, 2, 3, 4
c)
3, 4, 2, 1, 
d)
4, 3, 1, 2
88.
A mechanical pencil has the density of 3.000 g/cm3.  The volume of the pencil is 15.8 cubic centimeters.  What is the mass of the pencil?
a)
47.4 g
b)
50 g
c)
0.190  g
d)
5.27 g
89.
What is the formula for density?
a)
density = mass x volume
b)
density = mass / volume
c)
density = mass + volume
d)
density = mass - volume
90.
Why do ice cubes float in a  glass of water?
a)
the ice cubes are more dense than the water
b)
the water is more dense than the ice cubes
c)
the water is more dense than the glass
d)
the ice is more dense than the glass
91.
What is the force that pulls us towards the Earth?
a)
gravity
b)
weight
c)
friction
d)
mass
92.
Name two quantities that are vectors.
a)
force and speed
b)
speed and acceleration
c)
force and acceleration
d)
mass and weight
93.
What is 'drag' another name for?
a)
dressing up
b)
air resistance
c)
friction
d)
weight
94.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
95.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
96.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
97.
In a tug of war the left team pulls with a force of 200N. The right team pulls with a force of 150N.What is the resultant force?
a)
50N to the left.
b)
350N to the left.
c)
350N to the right.
d)
50N to the right.
98.
The force that opposes the motion of two surfaces sliding past each other is called ___________.
a)
acceleration
b)
inertia
c)
friction
d)
unbalanced
99.

Calculate the net force

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

0

100.

calculate the force applied to a 5 kg shopping cart if it accelerates at 3 m/s2

a)

15

b)

1.67

c)

0.6

d)

1.57

101.

The acceleration due to gravity near the surface of Earth is equal to

a)

9.8 m/s

b)

9.8 kg x m/s

c)

9.8 N

d)

9.8 m/s2

102.

A negative acceleration means that your object is  

a)

constant

b)

speeding up

c)

at rest

d)

slowing down

103.

Which statement correctly describes the effects of placing a heavy load in a car?

a)

It is easier to accelerate the car and easier to bring the car to rest.

b)

It is easier to accelerate the car but more difficult to bring the car to rest.

c)

It is more difficult to accelerate the car and more difficult to bring the car to rest.

d)

It is more difficult to accelerate the car but easier to bring the car to rest.

104.

A mass of 6.0 kg rests on the surface of a planet. On this planet, g = 20 N/kg.


What is the weight of the object?

a)

0.30 N

b)

0.60 N

c)

60 N

d)

120 N

105.
If F is force, k is spring constant and x is extension, Hooke's Law tells us that:
a)
F=k/x
b)
x=Fk
c)
k=Fx
d)
F=kx
106.
Hooke's Law fails when a material reaches its:
a)
breakdown
b)
elastic limit
c)
end of tether
d)
fracture stress
107.
A spring has a spring constant of 5N/cm.  What is its extension when loaded with 15N?
a)
4cm
b)
5cm
c)
3m
d)
3cm
108.
What Quantity can you calculate from the graph and give the magnitude of that quantity.  
a)
distance 4.5 m
b)
Force 15 N
c)
spring constant 20 N/m
d)
spring constant 200 N/m
109.
Put the liquids in order from most dense to least dense?
a)
4, 3, 2, 1
b)
1, 2, 3, 4
c)
3, 4, 2, 1, 
d)
4, 3, 1, 2
110.
Frank has an eraser. It has a mass of 4g, and a volume of 2cm3. What is its density?
a)
8 g/cm3
b)
2 g/cm3
c)
1/2 g/cm3
d)
24 g/cm3
111.
What is the formula for density?
a)
density = mass x volume
b)
density = mass / volume
c)
density = mass + volume
d)
density = mass - volume
112.
What is the volume of Object X?
a)
10.0 cm3
b)
15.0 cm3
c)
20.0 cm3
d)
25.0 cm3
113.

A mass of 6.0 kg rests on the surface of a planet. On this planet, g = 20 N/kg.


What is the weight of the object?

a)

0.30 N

b)

0.60 N

c)

60 N

d)

120 N

114.

Which choice describes speed and velocity?

a)

Speed: scalar | Velocity: scalar

b)

Speed: scalar | Velocity: vector

c)

Speed: vector | Velocity: scalar

d)

Speed: vector | Velocity: vector

115.

An object is on the surface of the Earth. Which statement describes the weight of the object?

a)

the quantity of material that the object contains

b)

the quantity of space that the object takes up

c)

the gravitational force acting on the object

d)

the object's resistance to a change in its motion

116.
Momentum is a ____________________ quantity
a)
science
b)
scalar
c)
vector
d)
energy
117.
The equation to calculate momentum is
a)
p=mv
b)
p=1/2mv2
c)
p=mgh
d)
p=mg
118.
The momentum of an object depends upon the object's ___________&_____________.  
a)
size and shape
b)
mass and speed
c)
mass and veloctiy
d)
mass and energy
119.
What is the momentum of a charging rhino?
a)
2 × 10² kg⋅m/s
b)
3 × 10² kg⋅m/s
c)
2 × 10⁴ kg⋅m/s
d)
3 × 10⁴ kg⋅m/s
120.
Which object has the greatest momentum?
a)
Object A
b)
Object B
c)
Object C
d)
cannot be determined
121.

Find the momentum of a 3.0 kg mass when it is stopped.

a)

0 kg*m/s

b)

need to know the velocity

c)

3.0 kg*m/s

d)

9.8 kg * m/s

122.
Which of the following correctly explains why less force is required to stop a person using an airbag?
a)
hitting the airbag decreases the person's momentum
b)
the airbag changes the person's momentum over a longer time interval
c)
the airbag is very soft, like a pillow
d)
decreasing the time of the impact decreases the force of the impact
123.

a bat strikes a 0.05 kg baseball so that its velocity changes by +30 m/s in 0.1 s. With what average force was the ball struck?

a)

+15 N

b)

-15 N

c)

+300 N

d)

-300 N

e)

+150 N

124.
The impulse is ______ the change in momentum
a)
greater than
b)
equal to
c)
less than
d)
always double
125.

At what speed do the two blocks move after the collision?

a)

2 m/s

b)

5 m/s

c)

10 m/s

126.
When two objects collide, the Momentumbefore is ____________ the Momentumafter.
a)
more than 
b)
less than 
c)
equal to
d)
unrelated to
127.

Equation for kinetic energy

a)

Kinetic energy = 12mv2Kinetic\ energy\ =\ \frac{1}{2}mv^2

b)

Kinetic energy = 12mv3Kinetic\ energy\ =\ \frac{1}{2}mv^3

c)

Kinetic energy = 12mvKinetic\ energy\ =\ \frac{1}{2}mv^{ }

d)

Kinetic energy = mv2Kinetic\ energy\ =\ mv^2

128.

Equation for gravitational potential energy (GPE)

a)

GPE = m×g×ΔhGPE\ =\ m\times g\times\Delta h

b)

GPE = m×Δg×hGPE\ =\ m\times\Delta g\times h

c)

GPE =Δm ×g×hGPE\ =\Delta m\ \times g\times h

d)

GPE=F×g×hGPE=F\times g\times h

129.
Link between force, work done and distance
a)
work done = force x distance
b)
work done = distance / force
c)
work done = force / distance
d)
work done = force x work
e)
work done = force / work
130.

Link between energy transferred and work done

a)

energy transferred = work done

b)

energy transferrred = 1/2 work done

c)

energy transferred = work done2

d)

energy transferred = 1 / work done

e)

energy transferred = 4/3 π x work done3

131.
Efficiency equation
a)
efficiency = useful output / total input
b)
efficiency = total output / total input
c)
efficiency = total input / total output
d)
efficiency = total input / useful output
e)
efficiency = useful output / useful input
132.

The unit of work is

a)

watt

b)

hertz

c)

joule

d)

pascal

133.

Each of the boxes shown is pulled for 10 m across a level, frictionless floor by the force given. Which box experiences the greatest change in its kinetic energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

134.

Starting from rest, a marble first rolls down a steeper hill, then down a less steep hill of the same height. Ignoring friction, for which is it going faster at the bottom?

a)

Faster at the bottom of the steeper hill

b)

Faster at the bottom of the less steep hill

c)

Same speed at the bottom of both hills

d)

Can’t say without knowing the mass of the marble

135.

Four students run up the stairs in the time shown. Which student has the largest power output?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

136.

A major league pitcher can throw a baseball with a kinetic energy of 150 J. How much work must the pitcher do to the ball to give it that much KE?

a)

150 J

b)

0

c)

Can’t tell without knowing the mass of the ball

137.

A rock has 10 J of potential energy on top of a roof. If it is dropped and lands with only 8 joules of kinetic energy, how much work did air resistance do on the rock?

a)

-18 J

b)

-10 J

c)

-8 J

d)

-2 J

138.

In the equation PE = mgh, what does the “g” mean?

a)

Acceleration due to gravity

b)

Force of gravity

c)

Weight of the object

139.

What is the unit for power?

a)

what

b)

watt

c)

joule

d)

Jewel-Osco

140.

Which requires more work – a person walking up stairs or a person running up stairs?

a)

walking

b)

running

c)

they require equal work

d)

no work is required for either because the movement is vertical

141.

Which requires more power – a person walking up stairs or a person running up stairs?

a)

walking

b)

running

c)

they require equal power output

d)

no power is required at all

142.

How much work is done on a 200-kg crate that is hoisted 2 m in a time of 4 s?

a)

400 J

b)

1000 J

c)

1600 J

d)

4000 J

143.

How much power is required to raise a 200-kg crate a vertical distance of 2 m in a time of 4 s?

a)

400 W

b)

1000 W

c)

1600 W

d)

4000 W

144.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

145.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

146.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

147.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

148.

Electricity can be obtained from different energy resources. Which energy resource is used to obtain electricity without producing heat to boil water?

a)

coal

b)

geothermal

c)

hydroelectric

d)

nuclear

149.

If the mass of the cart is 15kg, how much is the potential energy of the cart?

a)

0J

b)

1.2J

c)

6J

d)

58.8J

150.

What are fossil fuels?

a)

energy producers that comes from radioactive elements

b)

a natural product that can be changed into other energy forms to do work

c)

energy resources that formed from buried plants and animals that lived a very long time ago

d)

resources that are replaced faster than they are used

151.

All of the following are fossil fuels EXCEPT

a)

oil

b)

water

c)

coal

d)

natural gas

152.

Where does nuclear energy come from?

a)

Electric generators

b)

radioactive elements

c)

fossil fuels

d)

geothermal energy

153.

Which of these originally got their energy from the sun? Choose all that are correct.

a)

Coal

b)

Nuclear power

c)

Tidal

d)

Wave

e)

HEP

154.

Which of these energy resources is the most reliable?

a)

Coal power

b)

Solar

c)

Wave

d)

Wind

155.

The law of conservation of energy states:

Choose 2

a)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed

b)

Only transformed from one type to another

c)

Energy can be created but not destroyed

d)

Energy cannot be transformed

156.

I throw my pen vertically up with 15J of kinetic energy. How much gravitational potential energy does it have at the top?

Assume no air resistance.

a)

0J

b)

15J

c)

0 - 15J

d)

Impossible to calculate

157.
What is the equation for calculating power?
a)
distance / time
b)
work x time
c)
work / time
d)
force x distance
158.

Which of these is the best answer to "state a disadvantage of coal energy"?

a)

Makes pollution

b)

Produces carbon dioxide which causes global warming

c)

Ugly to look at

d)

Expensive to run, lots of jobs

159.

Is "expensive" enough detail for an answer?

a)

No - be specific

b)

Yes - give me the mark

160.

Around Tongariro, there is a large HEP network that produces 4% of NZ's electricity.

Which of these are disadvantages of using HEP?

a)

Causes land to be flooded

b)

Can affect river levels and wildlife on rivers e.g. Whio ducks

c)

Expensive

d)

Ugly

e)

Produces carbon dioxide

161.

What is conduction in terms of thermal energy?

a)

Transfer of thermal energy through radiation

b)

Transfer of thermal energy through convection

c)

Transfer of thermal energy through sound waves

d)

Transfer of thermal energy through direct contact between particles of a substance.

162.

Explain the process of convection and how it relates to heat transfer.

a)

Convection is the process of heat transfer through the movement of fluids, where heated fluid rises and cooler fluid sinks, creating a continuous circulation.

b)

Convection involves the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves

c)

Convection is the process of heat transfer through solid materials

d)

Convection is only applicable in outer space

163.

Describe the concept of radiation and its role in thermal energy.

a)

Radiation is the transfer of heat energy in the form of electromagnetic waves. In thermal energy, radiation plays a significant role by allowing heat to be transferred through empty space without the need for a medium.

b)

Radiation is the transfer of sound waves in thermal energy.

c)

Radiation is the transfer of heat energy in the form of kinetic energy.

d)

Radiation is the transfer of light energy in thermal energy.

164.

What is specific heat capacity and how is it calculated?

a)

Specific heat capacity is the measure of a substance's ability to conduct heat.

b)

Specific heat capacity is calculated by dividing the mass of a substance by the heat energy supplied.

c)

Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat required to lower the temperature of a substance by one degree Celsius.

d)

Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one unit mass of a substance by one degree Celsius. It is calculated using the formula: specific heat capacity = heat energy supplied / (mass * temperature change)

165.

How does thermal equilibrium occur between two objects?

a)

When one object is hotter than the other

b)

When the two objects are in different locations

c)

When the two objects reach the same temperature.

d)

When the two objects are made of different materials

166.

Differentiate between the three methods of heat transfer: conduction, convection, and radiation.

a)

Conduction is through material, convection is through fluids, and radiation is through electromagnetic waves.

b)

Conduction is through fluids, convection is through electromagnetic waves, and radiation is through material.

c)

Conduction is through electromagnetic waves, convection is through material, and radiation is through fluids.

d)

Conduction is through fluids, convection is through material, and radiation is through electromagnetic waves.

167.

Calculate the specific heat capacity of a substance given its mass, temperature change, and heat energy transferred.

a)

c = Q * (m * ∆T)

b)

c = Q / m

c)

c = Q / (m * ∆T)

d)

c = Q * m * ∆T

168.

Explain how heat is transferred through a metal rod via conduction.

a)

Heat is transferred through a metal rod via conduction by the generation of sound waves

b)

Heat is transferred through a metal rod via conduction by the movement of liquid particles

c)

Heat is transferred through a metal rod via conduction by the vibration of atoms or free electrons in the metal.

d)

Heat is transferred through a metal rod via conduction by the emission of light waves

169.

Discuss the importance of specific heat capacity in everyday applications.

a)

Specific heat capacity has no practical applications

b)

Specific heat capacity is crucial in determining the amount of heat energy needed to change the temperature of a substance, impacting cooking, climate control, and thermal insulation.

c)

Specific heat capacity is irrelevant in physics

d)

Specific heat capacity only affects chemical reactions

170.

What factors affect the rate of heat transfer between two objects?

a)

Velocity, acceleration, force, energy

b)

Pressure, volume, density, mass

c)

Color difference, material type, shape, time

d)

Temperature difference, surface area of contact, thermal conductivity, distance

171.

A liquid at room temperature is put on a metal surface which is also at room temperature. A student blows gently across the liquid and its temperature decreases. What causes the liquid to become cooler?

a)

Bubbles of water vapour form in the liquid and go into the air.

b)

The moving air reduces the kinetic energy of all the particles in the liquid.

c)

Thermal energy flows from the liquid into the metal.

d)

The more energetic particles in the liquid escape into the air.

172.

Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side. When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random, jerky manner.

What are the moving specks of light?

a)

pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains

b)

pollen grains being hit by water molecules

c)

water molecules being hit by other water molecules

d)

water molecules being hit by pollen grains

173.

A gas is contained in a sealed container in a laboratory. The temperature of the gas increases. What happens to the average speed and what happens to the total kinetic energy of the gas molecules?

a)

average speed does not change, total kinetic energy does not change

b)

average speed does not change, total kinetic energy increases

c)

average speed increases, total kinetic energy does not change

d)

average speed increases, total kinetic energy increases

174.

The same mass of a gas is trapped in four identical cylinders by a piston that can move. The diagrams show the samples of gas in different conditions of volume and temperature. Which list gives the pressure of the gas in order from lowest to highest?

a)

1 → 2 → 3 → 4

b)

1 → 3 → 2 → 4

c)

4 → 2 → 3 → 1

d)

4 → 3 → 2 → 1

175.

The liquid level in a thermometer rises when the thermometer is placed in hot water. What causes this?

a)

The liquid contracts.

b)

The liquid evaporates.

c)

The liquid expands.

d)

The liquid freezes.

176.

The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer. Which change to the design would result in a more sensitive thermometer?

a)

Increase the density of the liquid.

b)

Increase the diameter of the capillary tube.

c)

Increase the number of scale markings.

d)

Increase the volume of the bulb.

177.

A student calculates the energy needed to raise the temperature of an aluminium block from 50 °C to 60 °C. He then does an experiment to measure the energy used to do this. Which statement about the measured energy is correct?

a)

The measured energy will be greater than the calculated energy because some energy is

transferred to the surroundings.

b)

The measured energy will be greater than the calculated energy because the block absorbs

energy from the surroundings.

c)

The measured energy will be less than the calculated energy because the mass of the block

decreases as it gets warmer.

d)

The measured energy will be less than the calculated energy because the thermal capacity

of the block is low.

178.

Which statements correctly describes a liquid that is boiling

a)

no bubbles seen, takes place on the surface only

b)

no bubbles seen, takes place throughout the liquid

c)

bubbles seen, takes place on the surface only

d)

bubbles seen, takes place throughout the liquid

179.

Which statement about boiling and evaporation is correct?

a)

Boiling requires a supply of thermal energy but evaporation does not.

b)

Evaporation takes place at the surface of a liquid but boiling takes place throughout the

liquid.

c)

When water boils in a kettle, its temperature decreases.

d)

When water evaporates, its temperature increases.

180.

Why are small gaps left between the metal rails of a railway track?

a)

to allow for expansion of the rails on a hot day

b)

to allow for contraction of the rails on a hot day

c)

to allow for expansion of the rails on a cold day

d)

to allow for contraction of the rails on a cold day

181.

A block of metal absorbs 2000 J of thermal energy. The temperature of the block rises from 10 °C to 20 °C. The mass of the block is 2.0 kg. What is the specific heat capacity of the metal?

a)

50 J / (kg °C)

b)

100 J / (kg °C)

c)

200 J / (kg °C)

d)

400 J / (kg °C)

182.

A block of aluminium of mass 2.0 kg has an initial temperature of 20 °C. It absorbs 7300 J of thermal energy. The specific heat capacity of aluminium is 913 J / (kg °C). What is the final temperature of the aluminium block?

a)

4.0 °C

b)

8.0 °C

c)

24 °C

d)

28 °C

183.

The diagram shows the apparatus used to measure the specific latent heat of vaporisation of water. After the water begins to boil, 110 g of water is converted to steam in 120 s. Using these results, what is the value of the specific latent heat of vaporisation of water?

a)

1.8 J / kg

b)

1800 J / kg

c)

2200 J / kg

d)

2 200 000 J / kg

184.

A metal rod is heated at end X. Why does end Y of the metal rod become hot?

a)

Energy is transferred from end X of the rod to end Y by vibration of positive ions and by

movement of electrons.

b)

Energy is transferred from end X of the rod to end Y by movement of positive ions only.

c)

Energy is transferred from end X of the rod to end Y by vibration of positive ions only.

d)

Energy is transferred from end X of the rod to end Y by movement of electrons only.

185.

Two square sheets of metal, P and Q, are heated to the same temperature. The metal sheets are shown. Sheet Q is emitting more radiation than sheet P. Which statement explains this?

a)

Dull black surfaces are better conductors of radiation.

b)

Dull black surfaces are better emitters of radiation.

c)

The surface area of Q is larger than that of P.

d)

White surfaces are better absorbers of radiation.

186.

Three students are planning an experiment to test thermal conduction in different materials. The students each propose a hypothesis.

1 I think the copper rod will be a good thermal conductor because it is a metal.

2 I think the glass rod will be a good thermal conductor because it has free electrons which vibrate and transfer energy quickly.

3 I think the wooden rod will be a poor thermal conductor because it can only transfer energy along the rod by vibrating the lattice particles.

Which of their hypotheses are correct?

a)

1 and 2 only

b)

1 and 3 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

1, 2 and 3

187.

It describes the state of two objects (or an object and its surroundings) that are at the same temperature so that there is no heat flow between them.

a)

thermal balance

b)

thermal equilibrium

c)

room temperature

d)

thermal stasis

188.

What is kinetic energy?

a)

moving energy

b)

potential energy

c)

stored energy

d)

renewable energy

189.

The energy in which store increases as a car moves faster?

a)

Gravitational Potential Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

c)

Thermal Energy

d)

Kinetic Energy

190.

The energy in which store decreases as a candle burns? 

a)

Chemical energy store

b)

Kinetic energy store

c)

Nuclear energy store

191.

The energy in which store increases as an elastic band is stretched? 

a)

Gravitational Potential

b)

Chemical

c)

Elastic

d)

Kinetic

192.

_________________ is when energy is transferred because a force moves an object through a distance. 

a)

Elastic

b)

Mechanically

c)

By radiation

d)

By heating

193.

_______________ is when energy is transferred due to charge flowing around a circuit. 

a)

Electrically

b)

Kinetic

c)

Mechanically

d)

By radiation

194.

________ is when energy is transferred between areas that have different temperatures. 

a)

By radiation

b)

By heating

c)

Mechanically

d)

Nuclear

195.

When you eat fruits and vegetables, the energy is stored as ...

a)

a. thermal energy

b)

b. food energy

c)

c. electrical energy

d)

d. chemical energy

196.
Energy due to motion is ____________ energy. 
a)
Potential 
b)
Energy
c)
Kinetic
d)
Friction
197.
a.  Energy stored in the nucleus of an atom.
a)
A. Sound Energy
b)
B. Potential Energy
c)
C. Nuclear Energy
d)
D. Thermal energy
198.

Food, fuels and batteries have energy in this energy store

a)

Chemical

b)

Thermal

c)

Gravitational Potential

d)

Elastic

199.

A stretched rubber band has energy in this energy store

a)

Magnetic

b)

Electrostatic

c)

Elastic

d)

Nuclear

200.

Two negatively charged particles which are close together have energy in this energy store

a)

Electrostatic

b)

Magnetic

c)

Nuclear

d)

Elastic

201.

Energy which is transferred by a force moving an object through a distance

a)

Mechanically

b)

Electrically

c)

By Radiation

d)

By Heating

202.

Energy which is transferred by charges moving due to a potential difference (voltage)

a)

Mechanically

b)

Electrically

c)

By Radiation

d)

By Heating

203.

Shooting an arrow from a bow converts ____ into kinetic energy.

a)

Elastic potential energy

b)

Chemical energy

c)

Gravitational potential energy

d)

Thermal energy

204.

A ____ converts chemical energy into kinetic energy?

a)
b)
c)
d)
205.

Which statement about evaporation is correct?

a)

evaporation causes the temperature of the remaining liquid to decrease

b)

evaporation does not occur from a cold liquid near its freezing point

c)

evaporation does not occur from a dense liquid, such as mercury

d)

evaporation occurs from all parts of a liquid

206.

Gas is stored in a sealed container of constant volume. The temperature of the gas increases. This causes the pressure of the gas to increase. What happens to the gas molecules during this pressure increase?

a)

The average kinetic energy of the molecules increases

b)

The average separation of the molecules decreases

c)

The average separation of the molecules increases

d)

The volume of each molecule increases

207.

Which causes the random, zig-zag movement (Brownian motion) of smoke particles suspended in air?

a)

air molecules colliding with smoke particles

b)

convection currents as the hot smoke rises

c)

smoke particles colliding with each other

d)

smoke particles reacting with oxygen molecules in the air

208.

A sealed gas cylinder is left outside on a hot, sunny day. What happens to the average speed of the gas molecules and to the pressure of the gas in the cylinder as the temperature of the gas rises?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

209.

A swimmer feels cold after leaving warm water on a warm, windy day. Why does she feel cold even though the air is warm?

a)

the less energetic water molecules on her skin escape quickly

b)

the more energetic water molecules on her skin do not escape quickly

c)

the water on her skin does not evaporate quickly enough to keep her warm

d)

the water on her skin evaporates quickly and cools her skin

210.

A car tyre has a constant volume. Why does the pressure of the air in the tyre increase when its temperature increases?

a)

the air molecules hit each other less often

b)

the air molecules hit the inside of the tyre less often

c)

the average speed of the air molecules in the tyre is greater

d)

there are more air molecules in the tyre

211.

A student places his thumb firmly on the outlet of a bicycle pump, to stop the air from coming out. What happens to the pressure and what happens to the volume of the trapped air as the pump handle is pushed in?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

212.

Some gas is trapped in a container of fixed volume. The temperature of the gas increases. Which graph shows how the pressure of the gas changes with temperature?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

213.

The volume of a gas in a sealed syringe is increased. The temperature of the gas does not change. After this change is made, what has happened to the gas molecules in the syringe?

a)

they move more quickly

b)

they move more slowly

c)

they hit the syringe walls less often

d)

the hit the syringe walls more often

214.

The pressure of a fixed mass of a cylinder is measured. The volume of the gas in the cylinder is then slowly decreased. The temperature of the gas does not change. Which graph could show the change of pressure of the gas during this process?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

215.

A student suggests some uses for containers made from good thermal conductors and for containers made from poor thermal conductors? In which row are both suggested uses correct?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

216.

Two plastic cups are placed one inside the other. A small spacer keeps the two cups separated. Hot water is poured into the inner cup and a lid is put on top, as shown. Which statement is correct?

a)

The bench is heated by convection from the bottom of the outer cup

b)

The lid reduces the energy lost by convection

c)

There is no thermal conduction through the sides of either cup

d)

Thermal radiation is prevented by the small air gap

217.

A solid is heated from room temperature. The graph shows how its temperature changes with time as it is heated constantly. At which time has it just become completely liquid?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

218.

The diagram shows a vacuum flask used to keep liquid hot. How does thermal energy pass through the vacuum?

a)

conduction only

b)

convection only

c)

radiation only

d)

conduction and convection

219.

The diagram shows a block of ice placed in a warm room. At which point is the temperature the lowest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

220.

The air in a room is heated by a heater. The diagram shows the circulation of the air in the room. Which statement about the air that is heated is correct?

a)

The air contracts and become less dense

b)

The air contracts and becomes more dense

c)

The air expands and becomes less dense

d)

The air expands and becomes more dense

221.

In a refrigerator, the cooling unit can be fitted either at the top or at the bottom. In an oven, the heater can be fitted either at the top or at the bottom. Which row shows the best position for the cooling unit and the best position for the heater?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

222.

Ice is trapped by a metal gauze at the bottom of a tube containing water. The water is heated strongly at the top, but the ice only melts very slowly. Why does the ice melt so slowly?

a)

heat energy always travels upwards

b)

hot water is more dense than cold water

c)

metal gauze does not allow heat to pass through

d)

water is a poor conductor of heat

223.

One type of double glazing consists of two panes of glass separated by a vacuum. Which method or methods of energy transfer are prevented by the vacuum?

a)

conduction and convection

b)

conduction and radiation

c)

convection and radiation

d)

radiation only

224.

A substance loses thermal energy (heat) to the surroundings at a steady rate. The graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes with time. What could the portion PQ of the graph represent?

a)

gas condensing

b)

gas cooling

c)

liquid cooling

d)

liquid solidifying

225.

Which row shows the surface that is the better absorber and the surface that is the better emitter of infra-red radiation?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

226.

One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod?

a)

free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end

b)

free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end

c)

molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end

d)

molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end

227.

The same quantity of thermal energy is supplied to two solid objects A and Y. The temperature increase of object X is greater than the temperature increase of object Y. Which statement explains this?

a)

X has a lower melting point than Y

b)

X has a lower density than Y

c)

X has a lower thermal capacity than Y

d)

X is a better thermal conductor than Y

228.

Which quantity gives the thermal capacity of a beaker?

a)

the thermal energy required to change the state of the beaker at constant temperature

b)

the thermal energy required to raise the temperature of the beaker by 1 degree Celsius

c)

the total mass of hot liquid that the beaker can hold

d)

the total volume of hot liquid that the beaker can hold

229.

The table lists the melting points and the boiling points of four different substances. Which substance is a liquid at 0 degrees Celsius?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

230.

The diagram shows electricity cables being put up on a warm day. The cables are left loose between the poles, as shown in the diagram. Why are the cables left loose?

a)

they will contract on cold days

b)

they will contract on very warm days

c)

they will expand on cold days

d)

they will expand on very warm days

231.

A long thin bar of cooper is heated evenly along its length. What happens to the bar?

a)

it becomes less heavy

b)

it becomes longer

c)

it becomes shorter

d)

it bends at the ends

232.

A circular metal disc is heated. Which quantity decreases?

a)

density

b)

diameter

c)

thickness

d)

volume

233.

In an experiment, a thermometer is placed in a test tube of hot liquid. The temperature of the liquid is recorded every half minute. The table shows the results. What is the melting point of the substance?

a)

0 degrees Celsius

b)

33 degrees Celsius

c)

55 degrees Celsius

d)

73 degrees Celsius

234.

Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers. Liquid 1 is heated for 100s and liquid 2 is heated for 200s by heaters of the same power. The temperature of both liquids increases by the same amount. Which statement is correct?

a)

both liquids receive the same amount of energy

b)

liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2

c)

both liquids have equal thermal capacity

d)

the thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than thermal capacity of liquid 2

235.

Equal masses of two different liquids are heated using the same heater. The graph shows how the temperature of each liquid changes with time. What does the graph tell us about the liquids?

a)

Liquid 1 has a higher melting point than liquid 2

b)

Liquid 1 has a higher boiling point than liquid 2

c)

Liquid 1 starts to melt sooner than liquid 2

d)

Liquid 1 starts to boil sooner than liquid 2

236.

Which pair contains only physical quantities that vary with temperature and so could be used in making a thermometer?

a)

activity of a radioactive source, volume of a gas

b)

mass of a liquid, volume of a liquid

c)

activity of a radioactive source, mass of a solid

d)

volume of a gas, volume of a liquid

237.

A heater supplies 80J of energy to a block of metal. The temperature of the block rises by 20 degrees Celsius. What happens to the block of metal when its temperature falls by 10 degrees Celsius?

a)

its internal energy decreases by 40J

b)

its internal energy decreases by 160J

c)

its internal energy increases by 40J

d)

its internal energy increases by 160J

238.

A solid object has a very large thermal capacity. What does this mean?

a)

a large amount of energy is needed to make the object become hot

b)

a large amount of energy is needed to make the object melt

c)

a small amount of energy is needed to make the object become hot

d)

a small amount of energy is needed to make the object melt

239.
To convert from Celsius to Kelvin:
 
K = Degrees Celsius + __________  
a)
251 K
b)
275 K
c)
213 K
d)
273 K
240.
No more energy can be removed from matter at:
a)
its freezing point
b)
0°C
c)
absolute zero
d)
273 K
241.

What is internal energy

a)

the average kinetic energy of the particles

b)

heat energy

c)

the sum of the kinetic and potential energy

d)

the average potential energy

242.

Convert

450 K450\ K  to Celsius

a)

723oC723^oC  

b)

277oC277^oC  

c)

177 oC177\ ^oC  

d)

623oC623^oC  

243.

What is the boiling point of water on the Kelvin scale?

a)

0K0^{ }K

b)

373K373^{ }K

c)

100K100^{ }K

d)

212K212^{ }K

244.

What is the freezing/melting point of water of the Fahrenheit scale?

a)

−273oF-273^oF

b)

0oF0^oF

c)

32oF32^oF

d)

273oF273^oF

245.
Which letter represents wavelength?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
246.
Which letter represents the wave crest?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
247.
Which letter represents the wave trough?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
248.
Which letter represents amplitude?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
249.
Which wave has a greater frequency?
a)
A
b)
B
250.
If a wave has a greater frequency, what happens to the wavelength?
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
251.
What is measured from crest to crest or trough to trough?
a)
Frequency
b)
Amplitude
c)
Wavelength
d)
Origin
252.

A (a)   is a line where all the vibrations are in phase and the same distance from the source.

253.

Select all of the transverse waves listed below.

a)

Light waves

b)

Radio waves

c)

Water waves

d)

Sound waves

e)

Vibrating guitar strings

254.

1) Refraction happens when light______

a)

bends as it enters a new medium

b)

bounces back when it hits a surface

c)

by a substance

255.

Which one of these describes a lens that causes light to come to together at a single point?

a)

concave

b)

opaque

c)

convex

d)

translucent

256.

Identify the following image as refection or refraction.

a)

Refraction

b)

Reflection

257.

Identify the following image as reflection or refraction.

a)

Refraction

b)

Reflection

258.

Which of these statements describes the "Law of Reflection"?

a)

The angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection.

b)

The angle of incidence is less than the angle of reflection.

c)

The angle of incidence is greater than the angle of reflection.

d)

None of these statements describe the Law of Reflection; it depends on the material the light hits.

259.

When light in air enters the water, what happens to its speed?

a)

It stays the same.

b)

It speeds up.

c)

It slows down.

260.

Select all of the wave types which can be refracted.

a)

Light waves

b)

Water waves

c)

Sound waves

d)

Seismic Waves

261.

What is the Doppler Effect?

a)

A change in frequency due to the relative motion of a wave source and an observer

b)

When a wave overlaps with another wave

c)

When a wave bounces off of another object

d)

When a wave bends due to traveling through a different medium

262.

An ambulance is driving towards you as you stand on the sidewalk. What happens to the pitch of the siren as it comes towards you?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

263.

You are driving in a car and honk the horn at a person standing in the street. As you approach the person, what happens to the pitch of the horn according to you in the car?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It stays the same.

264.

You are standing on the side of the road when a police car races past you with its siren on. After the police car passes you, what happens to the pitch of the siren?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It turns red

265.

Look at the picture. Who is experiencing a higher pitched sound?

a)

Observer A

b)

Observer B

c)

There's no difference

266.
Long sound waves are...
a)
high pitched
b)
low pitched
c)
medium pitched
267.
What can you tell about this object's motion?
a)
Moving to the North (up).
b)
Moving to the South (down). 
c)
Moving to the West (left). 
d)
Moving to the East (right). 
268.
What can you tell about the motion of this object?
a)
Moving left.
b)
Moving right quickly.
c)
Standing still. 
d)
Moving up slowly. 
269.
A ray of light passes through a window. Which path does it take? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
270.
The diagram shows the image of a clock in a plane mirror. What time is shown?
a)
02:25 
b)
02:35 
c)
09:25 
d)
09:35 
271.
 A parallel beam of light falls on a converging lens. Which diagram shows what happens to the beam of light? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
272.
A man sees a stone at the bottom of a pool of water. Which path could be taken by light from the stone to the man? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
273.
A ray of light is reflected by two parallel plane mirrors X and Y.  Which statement is correct? 
a)
The angle of incidence at mirror X is 30°.
b)
The angle of incidence at mirror Y is 60°.
c)
The angle of reflection at mirror X is 120°.
d)
The angle of reflection at mirror Y is 0°. 
274.
A student shines a narrow beam of white light into a prism as shown in the diagram. He sees a spectrum of colours emerging from the prism.  Which three colours does he see at X, at Y and at Z? 
a)
X: blue, Y:yellow, Z:red
b)
X: red, Y:blue, Z:yellow
c)
X: red, Y:yellow, Z:blue
d)
X: yellow, Y:red, Z:blue
275.
A ray of red light enters a semi-circular glass block normal to the curved surface. Which diagram correctly shows the partial reflection and refraction of the ray? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
276.
An object 5.0 cm high is placed 2.0 cm from a converging (convex) lens which is being used as a magnifying glass. The image produced is 6.0 cm from the lens and is 15 cm high.
What is the focal length of the lens? 
a)
2.0cm
b)
3.0cm
c)
4.0cm
d)
6.0cm 
277.
Which colour, red or blue, has the higher frequency and which has the longer wavelength? 
a)
higher frequency: blue
longer wavelength: blue
b)
higher frequency: blue
longer wavelength: red
c)
higher frequency: red
longer wavelength: blue
d)
higher frequency: red
longer wavelength: red
278.
An eye views an object O by reflection in a plane mirror. Which is the correct ray diagram? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
279.
A ray of light enters a glass block at an angle of incidence i producing an angle of refraction r in the glass.
Several different values of i and r are measured, and a graph is drawn of sin i against sin r.
Which graph is correct? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
280.
The diagram shows the passage of a ray of light through a triangular glass block. What is the critical angle of light in glass? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
281.
When white light is dispersed by a prism, compared with blue light, the red light is
a)
slowed down less and refracted less.
b)
slowed down less and refracted more.
c)
slowed down more and refracted less.
d)
slowed down more and refracted more. 
282.
The diagram shows a ray of light from one point on a lamp striking a plane mirror. The image of the point on the lamp formed by the mirror is 
a)
at P and is real.
b)
at P and is virtual.
c)
at R and is real.
d)
at R and is virtual. 
283.
A semi-circular block is made from a plastic. A ray of light passes through it at the angles shown. 
 To two decimal places, what is the refractive index of the plastic?
a)
1.25
b)
1.41
c)
1.51
d)
1.61 
284.
An eye views an object O by reflection in a plane mirror. Which is the correct ray diagram? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
285.
The diagram shows a ray of light from one point on a lamp striking a plane mirror. The image of the point on the lamp formed by the mirror is 
a)
at P and is real.
b)
at P and is virtual.
c)
at R and is real.
d)
at R and is virtual. 
286.

If a capital letter R is seen in an ordinary mirror, what does it look like?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

287.
Section B1a
Given that the angle of incidence = 30 degrees
a. Draw a ray diagram, labelling clearly the normal, incident ray, angle of incidence, reflected ray and angle of reflection accurately.
Which is the correct diagam? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
288.

If v is the speed of light in a medium and c is the speed of light in vacuum, the formula to calculate the refractive index (n) of a medium is

a)

n=cv

b)

n=v/c

c)

n=c/v

d)

v=nc

289.
A man sees a stone at the bottom of a pool of water. Which path could be taken by light from the stone to the man? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
290.

A microwave has a frequency of 300MHz. What is the wavelength of these waves?

a)

1000 m

b)

100 m

c)

10 m

d)

1 m

291.

Topic: Wave Properties

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

292.

Topic: Wave Properties

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

293.

-

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

294.

-

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

295.

-

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

296.

-

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

297.

How is sound primarily produced?

a)

A) Through the emission of light waves

b)

B) By the vibration of objects

c)

C) Through the movement of air particles

d)

D) By the generation of electrical currents

298.

Which of the following is an example of a sound-producing vibration?

a)

A) The movement of a car on a road

b)

B) The heating of water in a kettle

c)

C) The rotation of a ceiling fan

d)

D) Plucking a guitar string

299.

What happens to the speed of sound in air when the temperature increases?

a)

A) It decreases

b)

B) It remains constant

c)

C) It increases

d)

D) It depends on the humidity

300.

How does sound primarily travel through a medium?

a)

A) By the transmission of light waves

b)

B) By the movement of air particles

c)

C) By the transfer of electrical charges

d)

D) By the generation of magnetic fields

301.

In which of the following mediums does sound travel the fastest?

a)

A) Air

b)

B) Water

c)

C) Steel

d)

D) Vacuum

302.

What is the main factor that affects the speed of sound in a given medium?

a)

A) Temperature of the medium

b)

B) Color of the medium

c)

C) Humidity of the medium

d)

D) Density of the medium

303.

What type of wave is a sound wave?

a)

A) Transverse wave

b)

B) Electromagnetic wave

c)

C) Longitudinal wave

d)

D) Surface wave

304.

In a longitudinal sound wave, the particles of the medium move in which direction relative to the direction of the wave propagation?

a)

A) Perpendicular

b)

B) Opposite

c)

C) At right angles

d)

D) In the same direction

305.

What is the term for the distance between two consecutive points in a sound wave that are in phase with each other, such as two consecutive compressions or rarefactions?

a)

A) Wavelength

b)

B) Amplitude

c)

C) Frequency

d)

D) Velocity

306.

In a longitudinal sound wave, which part corresponds to regions of maximum compression?

a)

A) Troughs

b)

B) Crests

c)

C) High points

d)

D) Compressions

307.

What term is used to describe regions of minimum pressure or spacing in a longitudinal sound wave?

a)

A) Troughs

b)

B) Crests

c)

C) High points

d)

D) Rarefactions

308.

In which of the following materials does sound travel the fastest?

a)

A) Carbon dioxide

b)

B) Orange juice

c)

C) Iron bar

d)

D) Maple syrup

309.

What is the approximate speed of sound in dry air at room temperature (around 20°C or 68°F)?

a)

A) 1,000 meters per second

b)

B) 343 meters per second

c)

C) 1,200 meters per second

d)

D) 300,000 meters per second

310.

A student claps their hands near a wall and hears the echo 0.5 seconds later. If the distance to the wall is 170 meters, what is the speed of sound in the air?

a)
340 m/s
b)
170 m/s
c)
85 m/s
d)
680 m/s
311.

If a thunderclap is heard 8 seconds after seeing the lightning, and the speed of sound on that day is approximately 330 meters per second, how far away is the lightning strike?

a)
2640 meters
b)
3300 meters
c)
26400 meters
d)
33000 meters
312.

Which of the following terms describes the maximum displacement of particles in a sound wave from their rest position?

a)

A) Wavelength

b)

B) Frequency

c)

C) Amplitude D

d)

) Hertz

313.

The number of vibrations or cycles a sound wave completes in one second is known as:

a)

A) Amplitude

b)

B) Wavelength

c)

C) Frequency

d)

D) Hertz

314.

What is the unit of measurement for frequency?

a)

A) Watts

b)

B) Meters per second (m/s) C)

c)

Hertz (Hz)

d)

D) Decibels (dB)

315.

What is the approximate range of frequencies that the average human can hear without difficulty?

a)
20 Hz to 20 kHz
b)
10 Hz to 10 kHz
c)
5 Hz to 5 kHz
d)
1 Hz to 1 kHz
316.

Which of the following sounds is most likely to fall within the human hearing range?

a)

Dog whistle at 25,000 Hz

b)

Elephant call at 15 Hz

c)

Bat echolocation at 180,000 Hz

d)

A car engine at 80 Hz

317.

If a sound has a frequency of 25,000 Hz, can the average human hear it?

a)

A) Yes, easily

b)

B) Yes, but only with difficulty

c)

C) No, it is above the human hearing range

d)

D) No, it is below the human hearing range

318.

Ultrasound is commonly used in medical imaging to visualize internal organs. What property of ultrasound waves makes them suitable for this purpose?

a)

A) Ultrasound waves have a high amplitude.

b)

B) Ultrasound waves have a very high frequency.

c)

C) Ultrasound waves travel at the speed of light.

d)

D) Ultrasound waves are audible to the human ear.

319.

In medical ultrasonography, the speed of sound in human tissues is approximately 1540 meters per second. If an ultrasound pulse takes 0.02 seconds to travel to a tissue and back to the transducer, how deep is the tissue being imaged?

a)
15.4 meters
b)
30.8 meters
c)
77 meters
d)
154 meters
320.

What principle of ultrasound imaging allows us to determine the depth of an object by measuring the time it takes for sound waves to travel to and from the object?

a)

A) Reflection

b)

B) Refraction

c)

C) Diffraction

d)

D) Interference

321.

Marine sonar is used to measure the depth of the ocean floor and detect underwater objects. If a sonar device sends out an ultrasound pulse that takes 4 seconds to bounce off an object on the ocean floor and return to the sonar, and the speed of sound in seawater is approximately 1500 meters per second, what is the depth of the ocean floor at that location?

a)

3 km

b)

6 km

c)

2 km

d)

8 km

322.
A wire is moved across a magnetic field. This causes an induced current in the wire. The induced current interacts with the magnetic field to produce a force on the wire. In which direction is this force?
a)
in the direction of the current
b)
in the direction of movement of the wire
c)
in the opposite direction to the current
d)
in the opposite direction to the movement of the wire
323.
The diagram shows a circuit which includes two resistors and a battery. The voltmeter reads 6.0V. What is the potential difference across the 30Ω resistor?
a)
2.0V
b)
6.0V
c)
18V
d)
24V
324.
A resistor has a potential difference (p.d.) of 12 V across it and a current of 0.60 A in it. What is the resistance of the resistor?
a)
0.050 ohm
b)
2.0 ohms
c)
7.2 ohms
d)
20 ohms
325.
There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V. Which equation gives the power P dissipated in the resistor?
a)
P=IR
b)
P=It
c)
P=IV
d)
P=IV/t
326.
Which metal could be used for a permanent magnet and which metal could be used for the core of an electromagnet?
a)
Permanent magnet: iron; core of electromagnet: copper
b)
Permanent magnet: iron; core of electromagnet: steel
c)
Permanent magnet: steel; core of electromagnet: copper
d)
Permanent magnet: steel; core of electromagnet: iron
327.
Two resistors, with resistances R1 and R2, are used as a potential divider. What is the relationship between R1, R2 and potential differences V1 and V2?
a)
R1 x R2 = V1 x V2
b)
R1 x V1 = R2 x V2
c)
R1/R2 = V1 x V2
d)
R1/R2 = V1/V2
328.
A student designs a circuit to use as a dimmer switch for a lamp. What happens to the brightness of the lamp and the potential difference (p.d.) across the lamp, when the slider is moved from X to Y?
a)
Brightness of lamp: decreases / p.d. Across the lamp: decreases
b)
Brightness of lamp: decreases / p.d. Across the lamp: increases
c)
Brightness of lamp: increases / p.d. Across the lamp: decreases
d)
Brightness of lamp: increases / p.d. Across the lamp: increases
329.
A resistor R is connected in parallel with an 8.0Ω resistor. The resistance of this combination is 4.0Ω. What is the resistance of resistor R?
a)
0.50Ω
b)
2.0Ω
c)
4.0Ω
d)
8.0Ω
330.
The diagram shows an a.c. generator. With the coil in the position shown, the output voltage is +10 V. When does the output voltage become –10 V?
a)
When the coil has turned 90°
b)
When the coil has turned 180°
c)
When the coil has turned 270°
d)
When the coil has turned 360°
331.
What is an electric field?
a)
A region around a wire carrying an electric current in which a compass needle experiences a force
b)
A region in which an electric charge experiences a force
c)
A region in which an electric charge is attracted by the Earth’s gravity
d)
A region through which electromagnetic radiation is passing
332.
Two meters are connected in a circuit to measure the current in a component and the potential difference across the component. Which meters are used and how are they connected to a component?
a)
an ammeter in parallel for current, a voltmeter in series for potential diffrence
b)
an ammeter in series for current, a voltmeter in parallel for potential difference
c)
a voltmeter in parallel current, an ammeter in series potential difference
d)
a voltmeter in series for current, an ammeter in parallel for potential difference
333.
The circuit shown can be completed by inserting components at X and at Y. The completed circuit is a potential divider in which the potential difference across component Y increases when the temperature increases. Which row shows the components at X and Y?
a)
X: light-dependent resisor; Y: resistor
b)
X: resistor; Y: light-dependent resistor
c)
X: resistor; Y: thermistor
d)
X: thermistor; Y: resistor
334.
A coil carries a current in a magnetic field. The coil experiences a turning effect. Which device uses this effect?
a)

a d.c. motor

b)
an electromagnet
c)
a relay
d)
a trandformer
335.
Which produces an electromotive force (e.m.f.)?
a)
a battery
b)
a filament lamp
c)
a resistor
d)
a spring balance
336.
What is a transformer used for?
a)
changing a direct current into an alternating current
b)
changing the magnitude of an alternating voltage
c)
reducing the frequency of an alternating current
d)
switching off the current in a circuit when there is a fault
337.
The diagram shows two resistors connected in a circuit. What could be the combined resistance of this arrangement of resistors?
a)
4.0Ω
b)
6.0Ω
c)
9.0Ω
d)
18Ω
338.

Which test could be used to find which end of the magnet is north pole?

a)
putting it near compass needle
b)
putting it near ferrous metal
c)
putting it near non-ferrous metal
d)
putting it near a steel spoon
339.
A step-up transformer is used before electricity is transmitted by overhead cables. Which statement explains why the step-up transformer is used?
a)
It increases the current to increase the speed at which the electricity travels.
b)
It increases the current to reduce energy loss in the cables.
c)
It increases the voltage to increase the speed at which the electricity travels.
d)
It increases the voltage to reduce energy loss in the cables.
340.
Why are lamps in a house lighting circuit connected in parallel rather than in series?
a)
If one lamp stops working, the remaining lamps become brighter.
b)
Less current is taken from the power supply.
c)
The lamps can be turned off independently using switches.
d)
When more lamps are added, their brightness decreases.
341.
In an electrical circuit, what is the purpose of the fuse?
a)
To connect the metal case of an appliance to the Earth
b)
To cut off the electrical supply if the current is too large
c)
To keep an electrical appliance dry in damp conditions
d)
To maintain a steady voltage as the current varies
342.
An electric kettle has a metal casing. The cable for the kettle contains a wire that is connected to the earth pin of the plug. Which danger does this guard against?
a)
the cable to the kettle becoming too hot
b)
the casing of the cable becoming live
c)
the casing of the kettle becoming wet on the outside
d)
the casing of the kettle overheating
343.
A computer engineer wants the speed of a fan to increase when the temperature inside a computer increases. The engineer knows that a larger current causes the fan to turn more quickly. Which component should be used to make this happen?
a)
a relay
b)
a thermistor
c)
a variable resistor
d)
a transformer
344.
A student use a length wire as a resistor of higher resistance. He makes a second resistor from the same material. To be certain of making a second resistor of higher resistance, he should use a piece of wire that is…
a)
longer and thicker
b)
longer and thinner
c)
shorter and thicker
d)
shorter and thinner
345.

A student has a bar magnet. He brings the magnet close to an object. The magnet and the object repel each other. What is the other object made from?

a)
another permanent magnet
b)
any magnetic material
c)
a block of wood
d)
a piece of copper
346.
Which role show the components x and y?
a)
x = light-dependent resistor y = resistor
b)
x = resistor y = light-dependent resistor
c)
x = resistor y = thermistor
d)
x = thermistor y = resistor
347.
Which metal is used for core of a transformer
a)
Aluminum
b)
Copper
c)
Soft iron
d)
Steel
348.

What will change the direction of this force?

a)
increasing the current
b)
reversing the current
c)
increasing the current of the magnetic field
d)
using an electromagnet with the same polarity as the perminent magnet
349.

Which of these is not a magnetic material?

a)

aluminium

b)

steel

c)

nickel

d)

iron

350.
Which circuit symbol represents a component used to measure electric current?
a)
b)

c)

d)

351.
Four wires are made of the same metal. Which wire has the greatest resistance?
a)
a 100 cm long wire with a diameter of 3.0 mm
b)
a 100 cm long wire with a diameter of 6.0 mm
c)
a 10 cm long wire with a diameter of 3.0 mm
d)
a 10 cm long wire with a diameter of 6.0 mm
352.
What happens to the reading on the voltmeter?
a)

It keeps increasing.

b)

It quickly increases and stays at maximum.

c)

It quickly increases and then decreases.

d)

It stays on zero.

353.
A student uses four ammeters P, Q, R and S to measure the current in different parts of the circuit shown. Which two ammeters read the largest current?
a)

P and Q

b)

P and R

c)

R and Q

d)

R and S

354.
Which action will demagnetise a magnetised piece of steel?
a)
Cool it in a freezer for several hours.
b)
Hit it repeatedly with a hammer.
c)
Put it in a coil carrying a direct current (d.c.).
d)
Put it near an unmagnetised piece of iron.
355.
A student investigates electromagnetic induction. She moves the N pole of a magnet quickly towards a coil of wire. There is a reading on the galvanometer. What can she do to get a greater reading on the galvanometer?
a)

Hold the bar magnet stationary inside the coil.

b)

Move the bar magnet slowly away from the coil.

c)

Use a coil of wire with fewer turns on it.

d)

Use a stronger bar magnet.

356.
Which diagram shows the magnetic field around a straight, current-carrying wire?
a)
b)

c)

d)
357.
Which graph shows the voltage output of an a.c. generator with the peaks and zeros correctly labelled
a)
b)
c)

d)

358.
Several cells are connected in series, as shown. What is the combined electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cells?
a)
the average of the e.m.f.s of the separate cells
b)
the e.m.f. of one of the cells
c)
the product of the e.m.f.s of the cells
d)
the sum of the e.m.f.s of the cells
359.
A student uses three small plotting compasses to investigate the magnetic field around a bar magnet. Which diagram shows the directions in which the compass needles point?
a)

b)

c)

d)

360.
A student is to determine the resistance of resistor R. She uses a circuit including a voltmeter and an ammeter. Which circuit should be used? How many turns of wire are in the secondary coil?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
361.
The diagram shows a transformer that has an output voltage of 12 V ,
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
362.
A transformer is needed to convert a supply of 240V a.c. into 4800V a.c. Which pair of coils would be suitable for this transformer?
a)

Primary # of turns: 50 ; Secondary # of turns: 1000

b)

Primary # of turns: 240 ; Secondary # of turns: 48 000

c)

Primary # of turns: 480 ; Secondary # of turns: 24

d)

Primary # of turns: 2000 ; Secondary # of turns: 100

363.
What is the function of the split-ring commutator in an electric motor with a single rotating coil?
a)
to enable the motor to function with an a.c. source
b)
to reverse the current in the coil once every revolution
c)
to reverse the current in the coil whenever its plane becomes perpendicular to the magnetic field
d)
to reverse the current in the coil whenever its plane is parallel with the magnetic field
364.
None
a)
12
b)
20
c)
50
d)
20000
365.
In which unit is potential different measured?
a)
ampere
b)
Ohm
c)
Volt
d)
Watt
366.
In an electric circuit, 40C of electric charge pass a point in 5.0 s. What is the current in the circuit?
a)
0.13A
b)
8.0A
c)
45A
d)
200A
367.
There is a current of 5.0A in a resistor. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is 24V. How much energy is transferred in the resistor in 1.0 minute?
a)
5.0 J
b)
120 J
c)
290 J
d)
7200 J
368.

The diagram shows a circuit containing a cell, a lamp and two ammeters. The current reading on the ammeter 2 is 0.20 A. What is the name for this type of circuit and what is the reading on ammeter 1?

a)

type of circuit: series; reading on ammeter 1: 0.20A

b)

type of circuit: series; reading on ammeter 1: greater than 0.20A

c)

type of circuit: parallel; reading on ammeter 1: 0.20A

d)

type of circuit: parallel; reading on ammeter 1: greater than 0.20A

369.
Two resistors, R1 and R2, are connected in series in a circuit, as shown. The current in the resistors is I0. Another resistor, R3, is then connected in parallel with R2, as shown. How do the currents I1 and I2 in the resistors R1 and R2 compare to current I0?
a)

current in R1: I1 = I0; current in R2: I2 < I0

b)

current in R1: I1 = I0; current in R2: I2 = I0

c)

current in R1: I1 > I0; current in R2: I2 = I0

d)

current in R1: I1 > I0; current in R2: I2 < I0

370.
Which metal is used for the core of a transformer?
a)
aluminium
b)
copper
c)
soft iron
d)
steel
371.
Four small compasses are placed around a solenoid. A current is now switched on in the solenoid. Which diagram shows possible new directions of the compass needles?
a)

b)

c)

d)

372.

Complete the sentence: An ammeter is a device that measures

a)

voltage.

b)

charge.

c)

current.

d)

resistance.

373.

Which is the unit of measure for current?

a)

amp

b)

volt

c)

coulomb

d)

joule

374.

Which of the following materials is not a conductor?

a)

wire wool

b)

ionic solution

c)

steel

d)

plastic

375.

Complete the following sentence: A current is defined as

a)

stationary electrons.

b)

the energy in a cell.

c)

a net flow of charge.

d)

electrons.

376.

Which of the following statements about conventional current is correct?

a)

The electrons do not move.

b)

The electrons flow in all directions.

c)

Electrons flow from negative to positive.

d)

Electrons flow from positive to negative.

377.

A voltmeter measures the voltage across a component. Where should it be positioned in a circuit in order to measure voltage correctly?

a)

in series with the component

b)

in parallel with the component

c)

over the cell

d)

anywhere in the circuit

378.

Where would you place an ammeter in a series circuit to get a reading?

a)

next to the cell only

b)

in parallel with the component

c)

in parallel with the cell

d)

anywhere in the circuit

379.

Which of the following represents the definition of an amp?

a)

Cs

b)

C/s

c)

C/s

d)

J/C

380.

Which of the following represents the relationship between charge, current and time?

a)

Q = I × t

b)

Q = I/t

c)

Q = t/I

d)

Q = V × t

381.

A kettle requires a current of 2.1 A and takes 3 minutes to boil a litre of water. Calculate the charge through the wire in this time?

a)

6.3 C

b)

378 C

c)

0.7 C

d)

6.3 Q

382.

Calculate the number of electrons passing through a wire in 5 seconds if the current through it is 2 A.

a)

6 × 10^19

b)

1.7 × 10^-18

c)

10

d)

2

383.

Which of the following represents the definition of a volt?

a)

C/s

b)

J/C

c)

JC

d)

J

384.

Which of the following represents the relationship between energy, voltage and charge?

a)

E/V = Q

b)

E = V/Q

c)

E = V × I

d)

E = V/I

385.

The voltage across a kettle is 230 V. Calculate the energy supplied if 100 C of charge pass through the kettle’s wires.

a)

0.44 J

b)

2.3 J

c)

440 kJ

d)

23 kJ

386.

The voltage across a cooker is 230 V. There is a current of 12 A for 10 minutes. Calculate the total amount of energy.

a)

28 kJ

b)

1.7 kJ

c)

1.7 MJ

d)

2 kJ

387.

What does this circuit symbol represent?

a)

resistor

b)

diode

c)

variable resistor

d)

light dependent resistor

388.

What does this circuit symbol represent?

a)

Lamp/bulb

b)

Cell

c)

Motor

d)

Voltmeter

389.

What does this circuit symbol represent?

a)

Lamp

b)

Resistor

c)

Fuse

d)

Light-dependent resistor

390.

What does this circuit symbol represent?

a)

Variable resistor

b)

Light emitting diode (LED)

c)

Bulb/lamp

d)

Diode

391.

What does this circuit symbol represent?

a)

Motor

b)

Generator

c)

Electric bell

d)

Bulb/lamp

392.

What does this circuit symbol represent?

a)

Bulb/lamp

b)

Battery

c)

Resistor

d)

Cell

393.

Which component would you use to indicate that a current may be flowing?

a)

voltmeter

b)

buzzer

c)

cell

d)

resistor

394.

In a parallel circuit, 0.8 A arrives at a junction between two wires. It splits with 0.2 A going down the first wire. What would the ammeter reading on the second wire be?

a)

0.8 A

b)

0.6 A

c)

0.2 A

d)

It will depend on the resistance of the components down that wire.

395.

Which of the following statements about a parallel circuit that has bulbs on each wire is not correct?

a)

If one bulb filament breaks the other bulbs will remain on.

b)

Switches can be placed throughout the circuit so that different bulbs can be turned on and off.

c)

The current around the circuit will be the same at all points.

d)

Parallel circuits are used in the home for lighting.

396.

Which of the following statements about a series circuit is not correct?

a)

The current is the same throughout the circuit.

b)

The voltage is shared across components.

c)

Different bulbs can be turned on and off depending on where you place a switch.

d)

When one bulb is broken the circuit will no longer work.

397.

When the Moon is directly between the Sun and the Earth, what phase would the Moon be in?

a)

Full Moon

b)

New Moon

c)

Half Moon

d)

Waxing Crescent

398.

When the Moon is directly between the Sun and the Earth, what phase would the Moon be in?

a)

Full Moon

b)

New Moon

c)

Half Moon

d)

Waxing Crescent

399.

What evidence from the text supports why the Moon seems to change shape from night to night?

a)

The Moon shines on Earth differently depending on the weather.

b)

As the Moon travels around Earth, its distance from Earth changes.

c)

The moonlight hits Earth at different places depending on the time of day.

d)

As the Moon travels around Earth, sunlight hits it from different directions.

400.

Which of the following forms a star?

a)

Nebulae

b)

Supernova

c)

White dwarf

d)

Black hole

401.

Which of the following characteristics can be used to classify stars?

I Age

II Shape

III Brightness

IV Colour

a)

I and II

b)

III and IV

c)

II and III

d)

I and IV

402.

What shape are the orbits of comets?

a)

Rectangular

b)

Irregular

c)

Elliptical

d)

Circle

403.

What is a comet?

a)

An object that orbits the Earth, made from rocky material, dust and ice

b)

An object that orbits the Sun, made from rocky material and metals

c)

An object that orbits the Sun, made from rocky material, dust and ice

d)

An object that orbits the solar system, made from rocky material and metals

404.

What happens to the gravitational force of attraction between two objects if the distance between them increases?

a)

Force of attraction increases

b)

Force of attraction decreases

c)

Force of attraction remains constant

d)

Force of attraction cease to exist

405.

When a Red Giant runs out of fuel, it become a:

a)

Supernova

b)

Nebula

c)

White Dwarf

d)

Main Sequence Star

406.
Which of the following list the correct order of the life cycle of massive stars?
a)
Nebula --> protostar --> main sequence --> red supergiant --> supernova --> blackhole
b)
Nebula --> protostar --> main sequence --> red giant --> planetary nebula --> white dwarf --> black dwarf
c)
Nebula --> protostar --> main sequence --> supernova --> red giant --> blackhole
d)
Nebula --> protostar --> blackhole --> red supergiant --> supernova --> main sequence
407.
What best describes the doppler effect?
a)
An apparent change in frequency of a wave due to the relative motion between a wave source and an observer
b)
When sound changes pitch
c)
When light changes color
d)
An apparent change in the amplitude of a wave due to the relative motion between a wave source and an observer.
408.
If a star is being observed from Earth and it's light has shifted towards the blue side of the electromagnetic spectrum it would be...
a)
Moving towards the Earth
b)
Moving away from the Earth
c)
This is a trick question that cannot be answered
d)
It isn't a star, it is a very large blueberry.
409.
The vast majority of galaxies in our universe are moving away from us.  We know this because we observe __________ in the galaxies absorption spectra.
a)
Redshift
b)
Blueshift
c)
Turbulance
d)
Superposition
410.

The diagram below shows the spectral lines for an element.


Which diagram best represents the spectral lines of this element when its light is observed coming from a star that is moving away from Earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
411.

The diagram shows a standard spectrum (the star’s fingerprint) compared to a spectrum produced from a distant star.


Which conclusion can be made by comparing the standard spectrum to the spectrum produced from this distant star?

a)

The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the blue end of the spectrum and the star is moving toward Earth.

b)

The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the blue end of the spectrum and the star is moving away from Earth.

c)

The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the red end of the spectrum and the star is moving toward Earth.

d)

The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the red end of the spectrum and the star is moving away from Earth.

412.

Light emitted from the Sun is 535 nm. A distant galaxy emits the same light but experiences the Doppler effect. This light is seen as 590 nm. What is the speed at which the galaxy is moving (speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s)?

a)

3.3 × 108 m/s

b)

2.9 × 107 m/s

c)

3.1 × 107 m/s

d)

2.0 × 108 m/s

413.

Light from a distant galaxy is shifted to 450 nm. The same light emitted from the Sun is approximately 600 nm. What is the speed of this galaxy in relation to the Earth (speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s)?

a)

7.5 × 107 m/s

b)

12 × 108 m/s

c)

3 × 108 m/s

d)

0.25 × 107 m/s

414.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

415.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

416.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

417.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

418.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

419.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

420.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

421.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

422.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

423.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

424.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

425.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

426.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

427.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

428.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

429.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

430.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

431.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

432.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

433.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

434.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

435.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

436.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

437.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

438.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

439.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

440.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

441.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

442.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

443.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

444.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

445.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

446.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

447.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

448.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

449.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

450.

When the Moon is directly between the Sun and the Earth, what phase would the Moon be in?

a)

Full Moon

b)

New Moon

c)

Half Moon

d)

Waxing Crescent

451.

What evidence from the text supports why the Moon seems to change shape from night to night?

a)

The Moon shines on Earth differently depending on the weather.

b)

As the Moon travels around Earth, its distance from Earth changes.

c)

The moonlight hits Earth at different places depending on the time of day.

d)

As the Moon travels around Earth, sunlight hits it from different directions.

452.

Which of the following forms a star?

a)

Nebulae

b)

Supernova

c)

White dwarf

d)

Black hole

453.

Which of the following characteristics can be used to classify stars?

I Age

II Shape

III Brightness

IV Colour

a)

I and II

b)

III and IV

c)

II and III

d)

I and IV

454.

What shape are the orbits of comets?

a)

Rectangular

b)

Irregular

c)

Elliptical

d)

Circle

455.

What is a comet?

a)

An object that orbits the Earth, made from rocky material, dust and ice

b)

An object that orbits the Sun, made from rocky material and metals

c)

An object that orbits the Sun, made from rocky material, dust and ice

d)

An object that orbits the solar system, made from rocky material and metals

456.

What happens to the gravitational force of attraction between two objects if the distance between them increases?

a)

Force of attraction increases

b)

Force of attraction decreases

c)

Force of attraction remains constant

d)

Force of attraction cease to exist

457.

When a Red Giant runs out of fuel, it become a:

a)

Supernova

b)

Nebula

c)

White Dwarf

d)

Main Sequence Star

458.
Which of the following list the correct order of the life cycle of massive stars?
a)
Nebula --> protostar --> main sequence --> red supergiant --> supernova --> blackhole
b)
Nebula --> protostar --> main sequence --> red giant --> planetary nebula --> white dwarf --> black dwarf
c)
Nebula --> protostar --> main sequence --> supernova --> red giant --> blackhole
d)
Nebula --> protostar --> blackhole --> red supergiant --> supernova --> main sequence
459.
What best describes the doppler effect?
a)
An apparent change in frequency of a wave due to the relative motion between a wave source and an observer
b)
When sound changes pitch
c)
When light changes color
d)
An apparent change in the amplitude of a wave due to the relative motion between a wave source and an observer.
460.
If a star is being observed from Earth and it's light has shifted towards the blue side of the electromagnetic spectrum it would be...
a)
Moving towards the Earth
b)
Moving away from the Earth
c)
This is a trick question that cannot be answered
d)
It isn't a star, it is a very large blueberry.
461.
The vast majority of galaxies in our universe are moving away from us.  We know this because we observe __________ in the galaxies absorption spectra.
a)
Redshift
b)
Blueshift
c)
Turbulance
d)
Superposition
462.

The diagram below shows the spectral lines for an element.


Which diagram best represents the spectral lines of this element when its light is observed coming from a star that is moving away from Earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
463.

The diagram shows a standard spectrum (the star’s fingerprint) compared to a spectrum produced from a distant star.


Which conclusion can be made by comparing the standard spectrum to the spectrum produced from this distant star?

a)

The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the blue end of the spectrum and the star is moving toward Earth.

b)

The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the blue end of the spectrum and the star is moving away from Earth.

c)

The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the red end of the spectrum and the star is moving toward Earth.

d)

The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the red end of the spectrum and the star is moving away from Earth.

464.

Light emitted from the Sun is 535 nm. A distant galaxy emits the same light but experiences the Doppler effect. This light is seen as 590 nm. What is the speed at which the galaxy is moving (speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s)?

a)

3.3 × 108 m/s

b)

2.9 × 107 m/s

c)

3.1 × 107 m/s

d)

2.0 × 108 m/s

465.

Light from a distant galaxy is shifted to 450 nm. The same light emitted from the Sun is approximately 600 nm. What is the speed of this galaxy in relation to the Earth (speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s)?

a)

7.5 × 107 m/s

b)

12 × 108 m/s

c)

3 × 108 m/s

d)

0.25 × 107 m/s

466.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

467.

A tunnel has a length of 50 km. A car takes 20 min to travel between the two ends of the tunnel. What is the average speed of the car?

a)

2.5 km / h

b)

16.6 km / h

c)

150 km / h

d)

1000 km / h

468.

A small steel ball is dropped from a low balcony. Ignoring air resistance, which statement describes its motion?

a)

It falls with decreasing acceleration.

b)

It falls with constant acceleration.

c)

It falls with decreasing speed.

d)

It falls with constant speed.

469.

Which speed/ time graph applies to an object at rest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

470.
a)

150 m

b)

300 m

c)

600 m

d)

1200 m

471.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

472.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

473.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

474.

measure of power

a)

volt

b)

ohm

c)

watt

d)

amp

475.
What is the power of a 20V bulb with 5A through it?
a)
100W
b)
100V
c)
6.3W
d)
6.3A
476.
A _________ is a plug or cartridge containing a strip of metal that melts when more than a specified amount of current passes through it.
a)
fuse
b)
breaker
c)
circuit
d)
panel
477.

Which wire is connected to a fuse in a plug?

a)

Live

b)

Neutral

c)

Earth

d)

Positive

478.

What advantage does a circuit-breaker have over a fuse in an electric circuit?

a)

A circuit-breaker provides an alternate route for the current to flow

b)

A circuit-breaker can be reset

c)

A fuse can be reset

d)

A fuse is more expensive

479.

What is the difference between a.c. and d.c?

a)

d.c. is always a bigger current than a.c.

b)

a.c. is always a bigger current than d.c.

c)

a.c. remans constant in direction of current flow whereas d.c. oscillates in direction of current flow

d)

a.c. oscillates in direction of current flow whereas d.c. remains constant in direction of current flow

e)

There is no difference

480.

A toaster has a power of 1800 W while operating at a voltage of 230 V. Show that the current in the toaster is about 8 A.

a)

1800 / 230 = 7.826...

b)

1800 / 230 = 7.827...

c)

230 / 1800 = 8

d)

230 / 1800 = 7.826...

481.

The following three appliances are connected to a 120-V house circuit: i) toaster, 1 200 W, ii) coffee pot, 750 W, and iii) microwave, 800 W. If all were operated at the same time, what total current would they draw?

a)

3.0 A

b)

5.0 A

c)

10 A

d)

23 A

482.
The number of coulombs passing a given point in 1 second
a)
Ampere
b)
Watt
c)
Volt
d)
Ohm
483.

Which physical quantity is the same for both R1 and R2 if they have different resistance?

a)

Current

b)

Potential difference

c)

Power

d)

Resistance

484.

This symbol represents a ..........

a)

Bulb

b)

Resistor

c)

Wire

d)

L.E.D.

485.

Study the circuit diagram below.

Which one of the following will make each bulb in the circuit less bright?

a)

Removing one bulb from the circuit

b)

Removing the switch from the circuit

c)

Adding one bulb in series to the circuit

d)

Adding one battery in series to the circuit

486.

What is the resistance of an object that draws 0.24 A when connected to a 120 volt circuit?

a)

0.024 ohms

b)

28.8 ohms

c)

124 ohms

d)

500 ohms

487.

Which bulb will be the brightest?

a)

Bulb A

b)

Bulb B

c)

Bulb C

d)

They will all be the same

488.

A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Why has the rod become positively charged?

a)

It has gained electrons.

b)

It has gained neutrons

c)

It has lost electrons

d)

It has lost neutrons.

489.

A circuit contains a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 2.0 V. The current in the circuit is 2.0 A.

How much energy is converted by the cell in 2.0 minutes?

a)

2.0 J

b)

4.0 J

c)

8.0 J

d)

480 J

490.
What gate is this table for?
a)
AND
b)
OR
c)
NOT
d)
NOR
491.
A NOT gate has......
a)
Two inputs and one input
b)
One input and one output
c)
One input and two outputs
d)
Two inputs and two outputs
492.
what is a output
a)
0
b)
1
493.
a)
1
b)
0

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