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IGCSE Physics MCQ Revision

Total questions: 498

Worksheet time: 9hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Jack has a rock. The rock has a mass of 14g and a volume of 2cm3. What is the density of the rock?
a)
7 mL
b)
7 g/cm3
c)
28 g/cm3
d)
1/7 g/cm3
2.
What is the volume of Object X?
a)
10.0 cm3
b)
15.0 cm3
c)
20.0 cm3
d)
25.0 cm3
3.
What is the density of water?
a)
0 g/ml
b)
1 g/ml
c)
10 g/ml
d)
100 g/ml
4.

A car moves along a level road.

The diagram shows all of the horizontal forces acting on the car.

Which statement is correct?

a)

The car is slowing down.

b)

The car is speeding up.

c)

The car is moving at a constant speed.

d)

The car is moving backwards.

5.

Which force and distance produce the smallest moment about a pivot?

a)

a 6.0 N force at a perpendicular distance of 4.0m from the pivot

b)

a 7.0 N force at a perpendicular distance of 6.0 m from the pivot.

c)

a 10 N force at a perpendicular distance of 4.0 m from the pivot

d)

a 12 N force at a perpendicular distance of 3.0 m from the pivot.

6.

The diagram shows a tug-of-war between team X and team Y. The arrows show the forces exerted by the teams on the rope.

What is the size of the resultant force on the rope and in which direction does the resultant force act?

a)

size of resultant force = 75 N; direction of resultant force = to the left

b)

size of resultant force = 75 N; direction of resultant force = to the right.

c)

size of resultant force = 725 N; direction of resultant force = to the left

d)

size of resultant force = 725 N; direction of resultant force = to the right.

7.

An object of mass 50 kg accelerates from a velocity of 2 m/s to a velocity of 10 m/s in the same direction. What is the impulse provided to cause this acceleration?

a)

250 Ns

b)

400 Ns

c)

850 Ns

d)

2500 Ns

8.

A T-shaped girder is placed on the ground in position X. it is then turned over to position Y. What happens to the force on the ground and what happens to the pressure on the ground?

a)

force increases, pressure increases

b)

force increases, pressure remains the same

c)

force remains the same, pressure increases

d)

force remains the same, pressure remains the same

9.

A cyclist travels down a hill from rest at point X, without pedalling. The cyclist applies his breaks and the cycle stops at point Y. which energy changes have taken place between X and Y?

a)

Gravitational potential -> kinetic -> thermal (heat)

b)

Gravitational potential -> thermal (heat) -> kinetic

c)

kinetic -> gravitational potential -> thermal (heat)

d)

kinetic -> thermal (heat) -> gravitational potential

10.

A skier walks from the bottom of a ski slope to the top and gains 10,000J of gravitational potential energy. She skis down the slope. At the bottom of the slope, her kinetic energy is 2000J. How much energy is dissipated in overcoming friction and air resistance as the skier moves down the slope?

a)

2000J

b)

8000J

c)

10,000J

d)

12,000J

11.

Which energy source is one that is used to boil water to make steam in power stations?

a)

energy from tides

b)

energy from waves

c)

hydroelectric energy

d)

nuclear energy

12.

Which energy source is renewable and reliably available at all times?

a)

coal

b)

geothermal

c)

nuclear

d)

wind

13.

The diagram shows a ball hanging on a string. The ball swings from point W to point Z and back to point W.

Which statement about the ball is correct?

a)

The kinetic energy of the ball is greatest at point W.

b)

The kinetic energy of the ball is greatest at point X

c)

The kinetic energy of the ball is greatest at point Y.

d)

The kinetic energy of the ball is the same at all points of the swing.

14.

Diagram 1 shows a measuring cylinder containing water.

Five identical steel balls are now lowered into the measuring cylinder. Diagram 2 shows the new water level in the cylinder.

What is the volume of each steel ball?

a)

6 cm3

b)

14 cm3

c)

30 cm3

d)

70 cm3

15.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

16.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

17.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

18.

A solar panel is used to recharge a battery. The solar panel produces 0.80 W of electrical power.

The panel is 20% efficient.

What is the power input of the sunlight onto the solar panel?

a)

0.16 W

b)

4.0 W

c)

8.0 W

d)

16 W

19.

What is the formula to calculate speed?

a)

Speed = Distance - Time

b)

Speed = Distance / Time

c)

Speed = Time / Distance

d)

Speed = Distance x Time

20.

What is the difference between speed and velocity?

a)

Speed and velocity both have direction and magnitude

b)

Velocity is a scalar quantity, while speed is a vector quantity

c)

Speed and velocity are the same thing

d)

Speed is a scalar quantity, while velocity is a vector quantity.

21.

What is Newton's first law of motion?

a)

An object at rest will stay at rest, and an object in motion will stay in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.

b)

An object in motion will change direction without any external force

c)

An object in motion will slow down and eventually stop

d)

An object at rest will start moving on its own

22.

What is the unit of force?

a)

Second (s)

b)

Meter (m)

c)

Newton (N)

d)

Kilogram (kg)

23.

What is the formula to calculate work done?

a)

Acceleration x Distance

b)

Mass x Distance

c)

Force x Distance

d)

Velocity x Time

24.

What is the relationship between force, mass, and acceleration?

a)

F = m/a

b)

F = am

c)

F = a/m

d)

F = ma

25.

What is the principle of conservation of energy?

a)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another.

b)

Energy can only be transformed into one specific form

c)

Energy can be destroyed completely

d)

Energy can be created out of nothing

26.

What is the difference between potential energy and kinetic energy?

a)

Potential energy is always positive, while kinetic energy can be negative.

b)

Potential energy is due to position or state, while kinetic energy is due to motion.

c)

Potential energy is related to sound, while kinetic energy is related to light.

d)

Potential energy is only found in living organisms, while kinetic energy is only found in non-living objects.

27.

What is the formula to calculate gravitational potential energy?

a)

mgh^2

b)

mg/h

c)

mgh

d)

mgh+2

28.

What is the law of conservation of energy?

a)

Energy can only be transformed into matter

b)

Energy can be destroyed completely

c)

Energy can be created out of nothing

d)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another.

29.

What is the equation for average speed

a)

average speed = distance / time

b)

average speed = time / distance

c)

average speed = distance x time

30.

what is the unit of speed

a)

m

b)

s

c)

m/s

d)

m/s2

31.

what is the unit of acceleration

a)

m

b)

s

c)

m/s

d)

m/s2

32.

which 2 formula below are correct if using the acceleration equation?

a)

v = a = ( v-u)

b)

t = ( v -u) / a

c)

a = ( v - u) / t

d)

u = v + at

33.

which formula links acceleration. mass and force?

a)

a = Fm

b)

F = ma

c)

F = m/a

d)

m = Fa

34.

How do we calculate weight?

a)

W = m t

b)

W = m g

35.

What is the unit of weight?

a)

m/s

b)

N

c)

N/kg

d)

kg

36.

g has a value of 10 on Earth but which 2 units can be used for g

a)

N/kg

b)

m/s

c)

m/s2

d)

N

37.

what is the equation for efficiency

a)

= useful energy output / total energy output

b)

= non useful energy output / total energy input

38.

what is the unit of work done?

a)

m

b)

N

c)

J

d)

W

39.

What is the equation for average speed

a)

average speed = distance / time

b)

average speed = time / distance

c)

average speed = distance x time

40.

what is the unit of speed

a)

m

b)

s

c)

m/s

d)

m/s2

41.

what is the unit of acceleration

a)

m

b)

s

c)

m/s

d)

m/s2

42.

which 2 formula below are correct if using the acceleration equation?

a)

v = a = ( v-u)

b)

t = ( v -u) / a

c)

a = ( v - u) / t

d)

u = v + at

43.

which formula links acceleration. mass and force?

a)

a = Fm

b)

F = ma

c)

F = m/a

d)

m = Fa

44.

How do we calculate weight?

a)

W = m t

b)

W = m g

45.

What is the unit of weight?

a)

m/s

b)

N

c)

N/kg

d)

kg

46.

g has a value of 10 on Earth but which 2 units can be used for g

a)

N/kg

b)

m/s

c)

m/s2

d)

N

47.

what is the equation for efficiency

a)

= useful energy output / total energy output

b)

= non useful energy output / total energy input

48.

what is the unit of work done?

a)

m

b)

N

c)

J

d)

W

49.

A car moves along a level road.

The diagram shows all of the horizontal forces acting on the car.

Which statement is correct? (2013 M/J)

a)

The car is slowing down.

b)

The car is speeding up.

c)

The car is moving at a constant speed.

d)

The car is moving backwards.

50.

The diagrams show different objects, each being acted upon by only the two forces shown.

Which object is in equilibrium? (2013 M/J)

a)

b)

c)

d)

51.

The diagram shows a force being applied to a lever to lift a heavy weight.

Which change would enable the heavy weight to be lifted with a smaller force? (2013 M/J)

a)

Move the force to the right.

b)

Move the heavy weight to the right.

c)

Move the force to the left.

d)

Move the pivot to the left.

52.

A force acting on an object causes some properties of the object to change.

Which list contains only properties that can be changed by the action of the force? (2013 O/N)

a)

mass, motion and shape

b)

mass, motion and size

c)

mass, shape and size

d)

motion, shape and size

53.

A box is being moved by a fork-lift truck. The total weight of the box is 3000N.

The force exerted by the fork-lift truck on the box is 3500N upwards.

What is the resultant force on the box? (2013 O/N)

a)

500N downwards

b)

500N upwards

c)

6500N downwards

d)

6500N upwards

54.

The diagrams show a steel spring and a graph of its length against the load applied to it.

What is the extension of the spring when a load of 20N is applied to it? (2013 O/N)

a)

3.0 cm

b)

4.5 cm

c)

5.0 cm

d)

8.0 cm

55.

A student adds weights to an elastic cord. He measures the length of the cord for each weight.

He then plots a graph from the results, as shown.

What has he plotted on the vertical axis? (2014 M/J)

a)

measured length

b)

original length

c)

(measured length + original length)

d)

(measured length – original length)

56.

Which situation is an example of a force acting over a large area to produce a small pressure? (2014 M/J)

a)

a builder hammering a nail into a piece of wood

b)

a cook using a sharp knife to cut vegetables

c)

a nurse pushing a needle into a patient’s arm

d)

a soldier marching in flat-soled boots

57.

In which situation is no resultant force needed? (2014 O/N)

a)

a car changing direction at a steady speed

b)

a car moving in a straight line at a steady speed

c)

a car slowing down

d)

a car speeding up

58.

Which properties of a body can be changed by applying a force to the body? (2014 O/N)

a)

mass, motion and shape

b)

mass and motion, but not shape

c)

mass and shape, but not motion

d)

motion and shape, but not mass

59.

Four objects are each acted on by only two forces, as shown.

Which object is in equilibrium? (2015 M/J)

a)

b)

c)

d)

60.

A student measures the length of a spring. She then hangs different weights from the spring. She measures the length of the spring for each different weight.

The table shows her results.

What is the extension of the spring when the weight hung from it is 3.0N? (2015 M/J)

a)

4 mm

b)

5 mm

c)

12 mm

d)

13 mm

61.

A heavy beam rests on two supports.

The diagram shows the only three forces F1, F2 and F3 acting on the beam.

The beam is in equilibrium.

Which statement is correct? (2015 O/N)

a)

All the forces are equal in size.

b)

The resultant force on the beam is in the opposite direction to the resultant turning effect.

c)

The resultant force on the beam is zero and the resultant turning effect on the beam is zero.

d)

The total upward force is twice the total downward force.

62.

A feather falls through the air.

Its downward speed is constant.

Which statement about the feather is correct? (2016 M/J)

a)

No energy is lost to the air as the feather falls.

b)

The air resistance acting on the feather is greater than its weight.

c)

The feather experiences no resultant vertical force.

d)

There is a resultant downward force on the feather.

63.

A car travels along a straight road.

The speed-time graph for this journey is shown.

During which labelled part of the journey is the resultant force on the car zero? (2016 M/J)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

64.

The diagram shows a non-uniform beam of weight 120 N, pivoted at one end.

The beam is kept in equilibrium by force F.

What is the value of force F? (2016 M/J)

a)

30 N

b)

40 N

c)

360 N

d)

480 N

65.

An object is acted upon by a 3 N force and by a 4 N force.

Each diagram shows the two forces.

Which diagram also shows the resultant X of these two forces? (2016 M/J)

a)

b)

c)

d)

66.

The engine of a car produces a driving force of 5000 N on the car.

Resistive forces R also act on the car, as shown.

The car has a mass of 800 kg and an acceleration of 1.0 m/s2.

What is the value of R? (2016 M/J)

a)

800 N

b)

4200 N

c)

5800 N

d)

8000 N

67.

Each diagram shows all the forces acting on an object.

In which diagram is the object in equilibrium? (2016 O/N)

a)

b)

c)

d)

68.

The diagrams show a spring and a graph of the length of the spring against the load applied to it.

What is the extension of the spring when a load of 40 N is applied to it? (2016 O/N)

a)

1.5 cm

b)

2.5 cm

c)

4.0 cm

d)

6.5 cm

69.

A force is applied to a long crowbar so as to move a large rock.

Which labelled arrow represents the smallest force needed to move the rock? (2016 O/N)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

70.
Look at the diagram. Which point does the ball have the maximum potential energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
71.
Look at the diagram. At which point does the ball have the maximum kinetic energy?
a)
B
b)
C
c)
D
d)
E
72.
A cell phone battery dies.  It gets plugged into an electrical outlet to recharge. Which of the following energy transformations occur during the charging?
a)
mechanical to chemical
b)
electrical to solar
c)
chemical to light
d)
chemical to electrical
73.
Tarzan is swinging through the jungle looking for Jane. He is constantly moving back and forth..his kinetic energy is being changed to 
a)
electrical
b)
chemical
c)
potenital
d)
nuclear
74.
Energy is the ability to do  ___________.
a)
Nothing
b)
Work
c)
Energy
d)
Change
75.
A car moving down the road is an example of
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
76.
The sun’s energy used by green plants to produce food is an example of light energy being converted to what other form of energy?
a)
kinetic energy
b)
heat energy
c)
mechanical energy
d)
chemical 
77.
Electrical Energy is transferred to _____ Energy.
a)
Thermal
b)
Solar
c)
Electrical
d)
None
78.

Which statement is correct

a)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed

b)

Energy can be destroyed but not created

c)

Energy is always created but never destroyed

d)

Energy cannot be created but never destroyed

79.
Calculate the PE of a 2 kg cat perched 10 meters above the ground. 
a)
20 J
b)
200 J
c)
2.04 J
d)
200 W
80.
Calculate the work needed to raise a 3 kg cat up to a height of
4 m.
a)
12 J
b)
0 J
c)
120 J
d)
1.22 J
81.
When my velocity triples, my kinetic energy increases by ______ times.
a)
9
b)
 3 
c)
1.5
d)
4.5
82.
Calculate the Kinetic Energy (KE) of a girl whose mass is 50 kg who is moving at 4 m/s.
a)
200 J
b)
800 J
c)
400 J
d)
100 J
83.
Belly-Flop Bernie dives from atop a tall flagpole into a swimming pool below. His potential energy at the top is 10,000J. What is his kinetic energy when his potential energy reduces to 9.7J?
a)
9.81J
b)
10,000J
c)
9.7J
d)
9,990.3J
84.
What is the work done when a 20-N force pushes a cart 3.5 m?
a)
70J
b)
6.8J
c)
23.5J
d)
17.5J
85.
As a pendulum swings from its highest to lowest position, what happens to its kinetic and potential energy? 
a)
Both the potential energy and kinetic energy decrease
b)
The potential energy decreases while the kinetic energy increases 
c)
The kinetic energy decreases while the potential energy increases 
d)
Bothe the potential energy and kinetic energy increase 
86.
While a boulder is on the top of a hill it has what type of energy? 
a)
Mechanical
b)
Kinetic
c)
Potential 
d)
Reactive 
87.

An arrow in a bow had 70J of PE. Assuming no loss of energy to heat, how much KE will it have after it has been shot?

a)

0J

b)

35J

c)

50J

d)

70J

88.

The formula for power is

a)

power = force × timepower\ =\ force\ \times\ time

b)

power = change energytimepower\ =\ \frac{change\ energy}{time}

c)

power = change speeddistan⁡cepower\ =\ \frac{change\ speed}{dis\tan ce}

d)

power = 12mv2power\ =\ \frac{1}{2}mv^2

89.

Unit for power is

a)

Watts (W)

b)

Joules

c)

Amperes

d)

voltage

90.
If two objects have different temperatures, heat will flow from the cooler object to the warmer one.
a)
True
b)
False
91.
Heat transfer by conduction occurs when...
a)
particles bump into each other
b)
large numbers of atoms move from place to place
c)
atoms give off heat in the form of electromagnetic waves
d)
electromagnetic waves travel from place to place through a vacuum
92.
Which material is the best conductor of heat?
a)
Wood
b)
Plastic
c)
Glass
d)
Steel
93.
Why do metals conduct thermal energy more quickly?
a)
Particles vibrate faster
b)
Due to the presence of bound electrons
c)
Due to the presence of free electrons
d)
Metals are grey
94.
Which phase is the best conductor of heat?
a)
Solid
b)
Liquid
c)
Gas
95.
Which of the following is an application of conduction?
a)
Thermal energy from the Sun to Earth
b)
Pots having metals bodies and plastic handles
c)
Vacuum flasks having silver bodies
d)
Air conditioners cooling down a room
96.
Eggs cooking in a frying pan.
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
97.
Tongue freezing to a metal pole.
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
98.
Ice melting on a hotplate.
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
99.
Heating a kettle on a hot furnace.
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
100.
In heat transfer, heat always flows from the _______________ substance to the _______________ substance.
a)
Hotter to colder
b)
Colder to hotter
c)
Hotter to hotter
d)
Colder to colder
101.
The type of heat transfer that happens through direct contact of molecules or particles with each other is ___________________.
a)
Convection
b)
Conduction
c)
Radiation
d)
insulation.
102.
Snowman melting in the sun.
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
103.
Warmth from the fireplace circulating through the house.
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
104.
The baby chickens are kept warm from the heat lamps demonstrates this type of heat transfer. 
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
105.

Near the ceiling of a room the air is warmer. The warm air rises because of

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

106.
During convection, more dense currents _________ and less dense currents _________.
a)
sink, rise
b)
rise, sink
107.
Which one heats and cools fastest?
a)
land
b)
sea
c)
both are the same rate
d)
air
108.
In convection, WARM air
a)
Rises
b)
Sinks
109.
What is infrared radiation?
a)
The circulation of a fluid caused by heating it.
b)
Transfer of heat inside a metal.
c)
Heat energy transfer by electromagnetic waves
d)
Transfer of light energy
110.
All objects emit infrared radiation (T/F)
a)
True
b)
False
111.

The hotter an object the more infrared radiation is given off (T/F).

a)

True

b)

False

112.
Which of the following is best at reflecting infrared radiation?
a)
Dark, matt surface
b)
Light, shiny surface
c)
Dark, shiny surface
113.
Which of the following is the best at absorbing infrared radiation?
a)
Dark, matt surface
b)
Light, shiny surface
c)
Dark, shiny surface
114.
Which of the following is the best at emitting infrared radiation?
a)
Dark, matt surface
b)
Light, shiny surface
c)
Dark, shiny surface
115.
Infrared radiation cannot pass through a vacumn (T/F)
a)
True
b)
False
116.
Which temperature probe would record the highest temperature?
a)
A (silver)
b)
B (black)
c)
Both would be the same.
117.
When the bunsen burner is lit which marble will fall off first?
a)
The one on the white surface.
b)
The one on the black surface.
c)
Both will fall off at the same time.
118.
The three cans were all filled with boiling water they were left for ten minutes and then the temperature of the water was measured again. In which can would the water temperature be the lowest?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
There would be no difference.
119.

Hot air rises because it is ...?

a)

Less dense than the surroundings

b)

More dense than the surroundings

c)

molecules expand and become ligher

d)

molecules become lighter

120.

A good insulator is made up of small air pockets. Why? More than 1 is correct.

a)

Air is a good insulator against conduction

b)

Small air pockets reduce the size of convection currents

c)

Air is good at absorbing IR radiation

d)

Air is great at reflecting IR radiation

121.

Why do these marathon runners have silver foil around them after finishing the race? Choose two.

a)

It reflects the IR radiation emitted by the body, keeping the runner warm

b)

It absorbs the IR radiation, keeping the runner warm

c)

It reduces conduction

d)

It reduces the size of the convection current

122.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

123.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

124.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

125.

Some gas in a sealed plastic bag is placed in a refrigerator to cool down. How do the gas molecules behave when this happens?

a)

They move more quickly and are closer together.

b)

They move more quickly and are further apart.

c)

They move more slowly and are closer together.

d)

They move more slowly and are further apart.

126.

A measured mass of gas is placed in a cylinder at atmospheric pressure and is then slowly compressed.

If the temperature of the gas does not change, what happens to the pressure of the gas?

a)

It drops to zero.

b)

It decreases, but not to zero.

c)

It stays the same.

d)

It increases.

127.

A mercury-in-glass thermometer is to be used to measure temperatures from 0 °C to 100 °C. Why is mercury suitable?

a)

Mercury expands when heated.

b)

Mercury has a boiling point below 100 °C.

c)

Mercury has a melting point above 0 °C.

d)

Mercury is a poor conductor.

128.

A block of ice is heated at a constant rate. Eventually the melted ice boils. The graph shows how the temperature changes with time.

How many minutes did it take to melt all the ice?

a)

4

b)

7

c)

11

d)

13

129.

How does thermal energy (heat energy) travel through the vacuum between the Earth and the Sun?

a)

by conduction

b)

by convection

c)

by radiation

d)

by radioactive decay

130.

Two plastic cups are placed one inside the other. Hot water is poured into the inner cup and a lid is put on top as shown.

Which statement is correct?

a)

Heat loss by radiation is prevented by the small air gap.

b)

No heat passes through the sides of either cup.

c)

The bench is heated by convection from the bottom of the outer cup.

d)

The lid is used to reduce heat loss by convection.

131.

Which line in the table correctly describes whether the molecules of a solid, liquid and gas are moving or stationary?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

132.

Driving a car raises the temperature of the tyres. This causes the pressure of the air in the tyres to increase. Why is this?

a)

Air molecules break up to form separate atoms.

b)

Air molecules expand with the rise in temperature.

c)

The force between the air molecules increases.

d)

The speed of the air molecules increases.

133.

The diagram shows how the atoms in a substance rearrange themselves during a change of state.

Which change of state is shown?

a)

gas to liquid

b)

liquid to gas

c)

liquid to solid

d)

solid to liquid

134.

Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers. They are heated from 20 °C to 30 °C by heaters of the same power. Liquid 2 takes twice as long to heat as liquid 1.

Which statement is correct?

a)

Both liquids receive the same amount of energy.

b)

Liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2.

c)

The thermal capacity of liquid 1 is equal to the thermal capacity of liquid 2.

d)

The thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than the thermal capacity of liquid 2.

135.

There is a vacuum between the double walls of a vacuum flask. Which types of heat transfer are reduced by the vacuum?

a)

conduction and convection

b)

conduction and convection

c)

convection and radiation

d)

conduction, convection and radiation

136.

The diagrams show four identical pieces of ice that are heated in test-tubes of water. In which test-tube will the ice take the longest time to melt?

a)

b)

c)

d)

137.

When water evaporates, some molecules escape. Which molecules escape?

a)

the molecules at the bottom of the liquid with less energy than others

b)

the molecules at the bottom of the liquid with more energy than others

c)

the molecules at the surface with less energy than others

d)

the molecules at the surface with more energy than others

138.

Two metal boxes containing air are standing in a room. Box X is on top of a heater. Box Y is on a bench. The boxes are left for a long time.

Which line in the table best describes the average speed of the molecules in the containers?

a)

box X fast

box Y zero

b)

box X fast

box Y slow

c)

box X slow

box Y fast

d)

box X zero

box Y fast

139.

The top of the mercury thread in a mercury-in-glass thermometer reaches point X at 0 °C and point Z at 100 °C.

a)

point W

b)

point X

c)

point Y

d)

point Z

140.

The same quantity of heat energy is applied to four different blocks. The temperature rise produced is shown on each block. Which block has the highest thermal capacity?

a)

b)

c)

d)

141.

A person holds a glass beaker in one hand and fills it quickly with hot water. It takes several seconds before his hand starts to feel the heat. Why is there this delay?

a)

Glass is a poor conductor of heat.

b)

Glass is a good conductor of heat.

c)

Water is a poor conductor of heat.

d)

Water is a good conductor of heat.

142.

The diagram shows a heater used to heat a tank of cold water.

What is the main process by which heat moves through the water?

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

evaporation

d)

radiation

143.

A student places his thumb firmly on the outlet of a bicycle pump, to stop the air coming out.

What happens to the pressure and to the volume of the trapped air as the pump handle is pushed in?

a)

pressure decreases, volume decreases

b)

pressure decreases, volume remains the same

c)

pressure increases, volume decreases

d)

pressure increases, volume remains the same

144.

A balloon is inflated in a cold room. When the room becomes much warmer, the balloon becomes larger. How does the behaviour of the air molecules in the balloon explain this?

a)

The molecules become larger.

b)

The molecules evaporate.

c)

The molecules move more quickly.

d)

The molecules repel each other.

145.

A glass flask full of cool water is placed in a container of hot water.

What will happen to the level of water at X as the cool water becomes warmer?

a)

It will fall.

b)

It will rise.

c)

It will rise then fall.

d)

It will stay the same.

146.

An experiment is set up to find out which metal is the best conductor of heat. Balls are stuck with wax to rods made from different metals, as shown in diagram X. The rods are heated at one end. Some of the balls fall off, leaving some as shown in diagram Y. Which labelled metal is the best conductor of heat?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

147.

A substance is heated at a steady rate. It changes from a solid to a liquid, and then to a gas. The graph shows how its temperature changes with time.

Which parts of the graph show a change of state taking place?

a)

P and R

b)

P and S

c)

Q and R

d)

Q and S

148.

An engineer wants to fix a steel washer on to a steel rod. The rod is just too big to fit into the hole of the washer.

How can the engineer fit the washer onto the rod?

a)

cool the washer and put it over the rod

b)

cool the washer and rod to the same temperature and push them together

c)

heat the rod and then place it in the hole

d)

heat the washer and place it over the rod

149.

Thermometer X is held above an ice cube and thermometer Y is held the same distance below the ice cube. After several minutes, the reading on one thermometer changes. The ice cube does not melt.

Which thermometer reading changes and why?

a)

X, cool air rises from the ice cube

b)

X, warm air rises from the ice cube

c)

Y, cool air falls from the ice cube

d)

Y, warm air falls from the ice cube

150.

Which statement about evaporation is correct?

a)

evaporation causes the temperature of the remaining liquid to decrease

b)

evaporation does not occur from a cold liquid near its freezing point

c)

evaporation does not occur from a dense liquid, such as mercury

d)

evaporation occurs from all parts of a liquid

151.

Gas is stored in a sealed container of constant volume. The temperature of the gas increases. This causes the pressure of the gas to increase. What happens to the gas molecules during this pressure increase?

a)

The average kinetic energy of the molecules increases

b)

The average separation of the molecules decreases

c)

The average separation of the molecules increases

d)

The volume of each molecule increases

152.

Which causes the random, zig-zag movement (Brownian motion) of smoke particles suspended in air?

a)

air molecules colliding with smoke particles

b)

convection currents as the hot smoke rises

c)

smoke particles colliding with each other

d)

smoke particles reacting with oxygen molecules in the air

153.

A sealed gas cylinder is left outside on a hot, sunny day. What happens to the average speed of the gas molecules and to the pressure of the gas in the cylinder as the temperature of the gas rises?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

154.

A swimmer feels cold after leaving warm water on a warm, windy day. Why does she feel cold even though the air is warm?

a)

the less energetic water molecules on her skin escape quickly

b)

the more energetic water molecules on her skin do not escape quickly

c)

the water on her skin does not evaporate quickly enough to keep her warm

d)

the water on her skin evaporates quickly and cools her skin

155.

A car tyre has a constant volume. Why does the pressure of the air in the tyre increase when its temperature increases?

a)

the air molecules hit each other less often

b)

the air molecules hit the inside of the tyre less often

c)

the average speed of the air molecules in the tyre is greater

d)

there are more air molecules in the tyre

156.

A student places his thumb firmly on the outlet of a bicycle pump, to stop the air from coming out. What happens to the pressure and what happens to the volume of the trapped air as the pump handle is pushed in?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

157.

Some gas is trapped in a container of fixed volume. The temperature of the gas increases. Which graph shows how the pressure of the gas changes with temperature?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

158.

The volume of a gas in a sealed syringe is increased. The temperature of the gas does not change. After this change is made, what has happened to the gas molecules in the syringe?

a)

they move more quickly

b)

they move more slowly

c)

they hit the syringe walls less often

d)

the hit the syringe walls more often

159.

The pressure of a fixed mass of a cylinder is measured. The volume of the gas in the cylinder is then slowly decreased. The temperature of the gas does not change. Which graph could show the change of pressure of the gas during this process?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

160.

A student suggests some uses for containers made from good thermal conductors and for containers made from poor thermal conductors? In which row are both suggested uses correct?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

161.

Two plastic cups are placed one inside the other. A small spacer keeps the two cups separated. Hot water is poured into the inner cup and a lid is put on top, as shown. Which statement is correct?

a)

The bench is heated by convection from the bottom of the outer cup

b)

The lid reduces the energy lost by convection

c)

There is no thermal conduction through the sides of either cup

d)

Thermal radiation is prevented by the small air gap

162.

A solid is heated from room temperature. The graph shows how its temperature changes with time as it is heated constantly. At which time has it just become completely liquid?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

163.

The diagram shows a vacuum flask used to keep liquid hot. How does thermal energy pass through the vacuum?

a)

conduction only

b)

convection only

c)

radiation only

d)

conduction and convection

164.

The diagram shows a block of ice placed in a warm room. At which point is the temperature the lowest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

165.

The air in a room is heated by a heater. The diagram shows the circulation of the air in the room. Which statement about the air that is heated is correct?

a)

The air contracts and become less dense

b)

The air contracts and becomes more dense

c)

The air expands and becomes less dense

d)

The air expands and becomes more dense

166.

In a refrigerator, the cooling unit can be fitted either at the top or at the bottom. In an oven, the heater can be fitted either at the top or at the bottom. Which row shows the best position for the cooling unit and the best position for the heater?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

167.

Ice is trapped by a metal gauze at the bottom of a tube containing water. The water is heated strongly at the top, but the ice only melts very slowly. Why does the ice melt so slowly?

a)

heat energy always travels upwards

b)

hot water is more dense than cold water

c)

metal gauze does not allow heat to pass through

d)

water is a poor conductor of heat

168.

One type of double glazing consists of two panes of glass separated by a vacuum. Which method or methods of energy transfer are prevented by the vacuum?

a)

conduction and convection

b)

conduction and radiation

c)

convection and radiation

d)

radiation only

169.

A substance loses thermal energy (heat) to the surroundings at a steady rate. The graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes with time. What could the portion PQ of the graph represent?

a)

gas condensing

b)

gas cooling

c)

liquid cooling

d)

liquid solidifying

170.

Which row shows the surface that is the better absorber and the surface that is the better emitter of infra-red radiation?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

171.

One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod?

a)

free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end

b)

free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end

c)

molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end

d)

molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end

172.

The same quantity of thermal energy is supplied to two solid objects A and Y. The temperature increase of object X is greater than the temperature increase of object Y. Which statement explains this?

a)

X has a lower melting point than Y

b)

X has a lower density than Y

c)

X has a lower thermal capacity than Y

d)

X is a better thermal conductor than Y

173.

Which quantity gives the thermal capacity of a beaker?

a)

the thermal energy required to change the state of the beaker at constant temperature

b)

the thermal energy required to raise the temperature of the beaker by 1 degree Celsius

c)

the total mass of hot liquid that the beaker can hold

d)

the total volume of hot liquid that the beaker can hold

174.

The table lists the melting points and the boiling points of four different substances. Which substance is a liquid at 0 degrees Celsius?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

175.

The diagram shows electricity cables being put up on a warm day. The cables are left loose between the poles, as shown in the diagram. Why are the cables left loose?

a)

they will contract on cold days

b)

they will contract on very warm days

c)

they will expand on cold days

d)

they will expand on very warm days

176.

A long thin bar of cooper is heated evenly along its length. What happens to the bar?

a)

it becomes less heavy

b)

it becomes longer

c)

it becomes shorter

d)

it bends at the ends

177.

A circular metal disc is heated. Which quantity decreases?

a)

density

b)

diameter

c)

thickness

d)

volume

178.

In an experiment, a thermometer is placed in a test tube of hot liquid. The temperature of the liquid is recorded every half minute. The table shows the results. What is the melting point of the substance?

a)

0 degrees Celsius

b)

33 degrees Celsius

c)

55 degrees Celsius

d)

73 degrees Celsius

179.

Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers. Liquid 1 is heated for 100s and liquid 2 is heated for 200s by heaters of the same power. The temperature of both liquids increases by the same amount. Which statement is correct?

a)

both liquids receive the same amount of energy

b)

liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2

c)

both liquids have equal thermal capacity

d)

the thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than thermal capacity of liquid 2

180.

Equal masses of two different liquids are heated using the same heater. The graph shows how the temperature of each liquid changes with time. What does the graph tell us about the liquids?

a)

Liquid 1 has a higher melting point than liquid 2

b)

Liquid 1 has a higher boiling point than liquid 2

c)

Liquid 1 starts to melt sooner than liquid 2

d)

Liquid 1 starts to boil sooner than liquid 2

181.

Which pair contains only physical quantities that vary with temperature and so could be used in making a thermometer?

a)

activity of a radioactive source, volume of a gas

b)

mass of a liquid, volume of a liquid

c)

activity of a radioactive source, mass of a solid

d)

volume of a gas, volume of a liquid

182.

A heater supplies 80J of energy to a block of metal. The temperature of the block rises by 20 degrees Celsius. What happens to the block of metal when its temperature falls by 10 degrees Celsius?

a)

its internal energy decreases by 40J

b)

its internal energy decreases by 160J

c)

its internal energy increases by 40J

d)

its internal energy increases by 160J

183.

A solid object has a very large thermal capacity. What does this mean?

a)

a large amount of energy is needed to make the object become hot

b)

a large amount of energy is needed to make the object melt

c)

a small amount of energy is needed to make the object become hot

d)

a small amount of energy is needed to make the object melt

184.
To convert from Celsius to Kelvin:
 
K = Degrees Celsius + __________  
a)
251 K
b)
275 K
c)
213 K
d)
273 K
185.
No more energy can be removed from matter at:
a)
its freezing point
b)
0°C
c)
absolute zero
d)
273 K
186.

What is internal energy

a)

the average kinetic energy of the particles

b)

heat energy

c)

the sum of the kinetic and potential energy

d)

the average potential energy

187.

Convert

450 K450\ K  to Celsius

a)

723oC723^oC  

b)

277oC277^oC  

c)

177 oC177\ ^oC  

d)

623oC623^oC  

188.

What is the boiling point of water on the Kelvin scale?

a)

0K0^{ }K

b)

373K373^{ }K

c)

100K100^{ }K

d)

212K212^{ }K

189.

What is the freezing/melting point of water of the Fahrenheit scale?

a)

−273oF-273^oF

b)

0oF0^oF

c)

32oF32^oF

d)

273oF273^oF

190.
The diagram represents plane wavefronts of a water wave about to strike a solid barrier. Which diagram shows the position of the wavefronts after reflection at the barrier?
a)
b)
c)
d)
191.
The Moon is 380 000 km from the Earth. A laser light beam is directed from the Earth to the Moon. The beam is reflected back to the Earth. How long does it take for the light to travel to the Moon and back to the Earth?
a)
1.27 ms
b)
2.53 ms
c)
1.27 s
d)
2.53 s
e)
100 s
192.
The diagram shows an image being formed by a converging lens. Which description of the image formed is correct?
a)
enlarged and inverted
b)
enlarged and upright
c)
diminished and inverted
d)
diminished and upright
193.
What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?
a)
The amplitude of the light changes.
b)
The colour of the light changes.
c)
The frequency of the light changes.
d)
The speed of the light changes.
194.
The horn on a ship makes a sound. The captain on the ship hears an echo from a cliff 4.0 s later. The speed of sound is 340 m/s. How far away is the cliff from the ship?
a)
170 m
b)
340 m
c)
680 m
d)
1360 m
e)
56 m
195.
A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts the alarm so that it produces a louder note of a higher pitch. What effect does this have on the amplitude and on the frequency of the sound?
a)
A larger F greater
b)
A larger F smaller
c)
A smaller F greater
d)
A smaller F smaller
196.

Waves on the surface of water travel from deep to shallow water. Which diagram shows the correct path of the waves in the shallow water?

a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
197.
Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?
a)

b)

c)

d)

198.
A word is missing from the label below the spectrum. Which word is missing?
a)
Amplitude
b)
Frequency
c)
Speed
d)
Wavelength
199.
What type of waves are sound waves?
a)
Transverse
b)
Longitudinal
c)
Both
d)
Neither
200.
A sheet of ice floats on water. A source of sound S is positioned at the edge of the ice sheet. Four microphones are placed equal distances from S. Which microphone detects the sound from S first?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
201.
The water wave shown has a frequency of 4.0 Hz. What is the speed of the wave?
a)
3.0 cm / s
b)
12 cm / s
c)
48 cm / s
d)
72 cm / s
202.
What is a typical value for the speed of sound?
a)
3.3 m/s
b)
3.3 × 10^2 m/s
c)
3.3 × 10^3 m/s
d)
3.3 × 10^6 m/s
203.

Which change will increase the diffraction of a wave as it passes through a gap?

a)
Increase the amplitude of the wave
b)
Increase the width of the gap
c)
Reduce the depth of water
d)
Reduce the frequency of the wave
204.
Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?
a)
infrared waves
b)
radio waves
c)
ultraviolet waves
d)
visible light
e)
heat waves
205.
Through what matter does sound travel fastest in?
a)
Vacuum
b)
Solids
c)
Liquids
d)
Gases
206.
Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?
a)
Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.
b)
Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.
c)
Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum.
d)
Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum.
207.

What is ultrasound?

a)

sound waves that are so loud that they damage human hearing

b)

sound waves that are too high-pitched for humans to hear

c)

sound waves that are too low-pitched for humans to hear

d)

sound waves that are too quiet for humans to hear

208.

In the diagram, the mountaineer can hear the stream although he cannot see it. When he is closer to the gully, he can both hear and see the stream. When he is further from the gully, he can neither hear nor see the stream.

Which statement is NOT correct?

a)

As he approaches the gully edge, the sound becomes louder.

b)

As he approaches the gully edge, he hears first the short wavelength, higher frequencies and then the long wavelength, lower frequencies.

c)

He hears the stream because some of the sound is diffracted.

d)

He hears the stream because some of the sound is reflected from the opposite wall of the gully.

209.

The diagrams show examples of wave motion. Which waves are longitudinal?

a)

1 only

b)

2 and 3 only

c)

2, 3, and 4

d)

2, and 4 only

210.

The diagram shows compressions and rarefactions in air as a sound wave moves from left to right. A quieter sound of the same frequency is made.

What will happen to the number of particles in a region of rarefaction and in a region of compression?

a)

Rarefaction: Decrease | Compression: Decrease

b)

Rarefaction: Decrease | Compression: Increase

c)

Rarefaction: Increase | Compression: Decrease

d)

Rarefaction: Increase | Compression: Increase

211.

A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts the alarm so that it produces a louder note of a higher pitch.

What effect does this have on the amplitude A and on the frequency F of the sound?

a)

A: larger | F: greater

b)

A: larger | F: smaller

c)

A: smaller | F: greater

d)

A: smaller | F: smaller

212.

Two beams of light are both the same colour of red. One beam is travelling through air. The other beam is travelling through water. Each beam has a different brightness.

Which quantity is the same for both sets of waves?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Frequency

c)

Speed

d)

Wavelength

213.

The diagram shows a ray of light in air incident on a glass block. Some of the light is refracted and some of the light is reflected. Two angles, p and q, are marked on the diagram.

Which answer gives the angle of incidence (p or q) and states whether total internal reflection occurs (yes/no)?

a)

p, no

b)

p, yes

c)

q, no

d)

q, yes

214.

The diagram shows a ray of light in glass incident on the surface between the glass and air.

What happens if the angle of incidence is made larger than the critical angle for the glass?

a)

The angle of refraction becomes equal to 90 degrees

b)

There is a refracted ray, and a ray inside the glass.

c)

There is a refracted ray only.

d)

There is only a ray reflected inside the glass.

215.

The diagram shows how a ray of light refracts when going from air to Perspex. The critical angle of Perspex is c. Which expression is correct?

a)

sin x / sin z = sin c

b)

sin z / sin x = sin c

c)

sin w / sin y = sin c

d)

sin y / sin w = sin c

216.

The letter F is reflected in a mirror. What does the optical image look like?

a)

b)

c)

d)

217.

In the diagram, the mountaineer can hear the stream although he cannot see it. When he is closer to the gully, he can both hear and see the stream. When he is further from the gully, he can neither hear nor see the stream.

Which statement is NOT correct?

a)

As he approaches the gully edge, he hears first the short wavelength, higher frequencies and then the long wavelength, lower frequencies.

b)

As he approaches the gully edge, the sound becomes louder.

c)

He hears the stream because some of the sound is diffracted.

d)

He hears the stream because some of the sound is reflected from the opposite wall of the gully.

218.

Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?

a)

b)

c)

d)

219.

Light travels in a vacuum and then enters a glass block. The speed of the light in the glass block is 2.0 x 10^8 m/s.

Which statement about the speed of light is correct?

a)

The speed in a vacuum is 1.5 times the speed in the glass.

b)

The speed in the glass is the same as the speed in a vacuum.

c)

The speed in the glass is 1.5 times the speed in a vacuum.

d)

The speed in the glass is 1.0 x 10^8 times the speed in a vacuum.

220.
A wave source produces 3000 crests every minute. The wave has a speed of 300m/s. What is the wavelength of the wave?
a)
0.10m
b)
0.17m
c)
6.0m
d)
10.0m
221.
An object is placed in front of a converging lens of focal length 15 cm. Which row describes the image of the object?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
222.
The water wave shown has a frequency of 4.0 Hz. What is the speed of the wave?
a)
3.0 cm/s
b)
12 cm/s
c)
48 cm/s
d)
72 cm/s
223.
Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller
a)
Infrared waves
b)
Radio waves
c)
Ultraviolet waves
d)
Visible light
224.

The speed of light in air is 3.0 x 10^8 m/s. The critical angle for light in a transparent plastic material placed in air is 37°. What is the speed of light in the plastic material?

a)
1.8 x 10^8 m/s
b)
2.4 x 10^8 m/s
c)
3.8 x 10^8 m/s
d)
5.0 x 10^8 m/s
225.

A sound wave travels from air into water. Which row describes what happens to the frequency and the wavelength of the wave?

a)

Frequency: decreases; Wavelength: increases

b)

Frequency: decreases; Wavelength: stays the same

c)

Frequency: stays the same; Wavelength: decreases

d)

Frequency: stays the same; Wavelength: increases

226.

The horn of a ship makes a sound. The captain on the ship hears an echo from a cliff 4.0 s later. When the speed of sound is 340m/s, what's the distance between the cliff and the ship?

a)

170 m

b)

340 m

c)

680 m

d)

1360 m

227.

The diagrams represent water waves in a tank. Which diagram represents a wave that changes speed?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

D

d)

228.

A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed. What causes the ripples to refract?

a)

The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water

b)

The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water

c)

The ripples hit the wall of the tank

d)

The ripples pass through a narrow gap

229.
An eclipse of the Sun happens when the Moon comes between the Earth and the Sun. Which statement is correct?
a)

Infrared radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and ultraviolet radiation.

b)

Ultraviolet radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and infrared radiation.

c)

Visible light from the Sun disappears before ultraviolet radiation and infrared radiation

d)

Infrared radiation, ultraviolet radiation and visible light from the Sun all disappear at the same moment.

230.
A passing boat causes a floating object on a lake to bob up and down 18 times in 12s. The wavelength of the wave created by the boat is 48 cm. What is the velocity of these water waves?
a)
32cm/s
b)
72cm/s
c)
576cm/s
d)
864cm/s
231.
An intruder alarm sensor detects that a person is warmer than his surrounding. Which type of electromagnetic wave does the sensor detects?
a)
infared
b)
radio
c)
ultraviolet
d)
visible light
232.
A dolphin sends out a sound wave. An echo returns 0.010s later from a fish which is 7.5m from the dolphin. What is the speed of the sound wave in water?
a)
0.075m/s
b)
0.15m/s
c)
750m/s
d)
1500m/s
233.
A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at the passing waves. She notices that five complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s. What is the frequency of this wave?
a)
0.25 Hz
b)
4.0 Hz
c)
15 Hz
d)
100 Hz
234.
Which describes what is transferred by a wave?
a)
Energy and Matter
b)
Just energy
c)
Just matter
d)
Neither energy nor matter
235.
Which statement about waves is correct?
a)
Waves do not transfer either energy or matter.
b)
Waves transfer both energy and matter.
c)
Waves transfer energy without transferring matter.
d)
Waves transfer matter without transferring energy.
236.
An electronic engineer makes devices which can receive television pictures from satellites. Which type of electromagnetic radiation must these devices be able to receive?
a)
infra-red waves
b)
microwaves
c)
radio waves
d)
ultra-violet waves
237.
Which group contains only electromagnetic waves?
a)

light waves, radio waves, gamma-rays

b)
light waves, radio waves, sound waves
c)

light waves, sound waves, gamma-rays

d)

radio waves, sound waves, alpha-particles

238.
How do infra-red waves differ from ultraviolet waves?
a)
Infra-red waves are longitudinal.
b)
Infra-red waves have a lower speed in vacuo (in a vacuum).
c)
Infra-red waves have lower frequencies.
d)
Infra-red waves have smaller wavelengths.
239.
An echo-sounder on a ship produces a pulse of sound. The echo is received by the echo-sounder after two seconds. The speed of sound in sea-water is 1500 m/s. What is the depth of the sea-water below the ship?
a)
750m
b)
1500m
c)
3000m
d)
6000m
240.
A wave of frequency 6600 Hz travels 1320 m in 4.0 s. What is the wavelength?
a)
0.050m
b)
0.80m
c)
1.3m
d)
20m
241.
A sound wave travels through air. What name is given to a region in which the air molecules are further apart than normal?
a)
Compression
b)
Contraction
c)
Rarefaction
d)
Vacuum
242.
White light enters a glass prism. The light leaving the other side of the prism is separated into colors
a)

Path taken by the light: diagram 1; Color 1: red; Color 2: violet

b)

Path taken by the light: diagram 1; Color 1: violet; Color 2: red

c)

Path taken by the light: diagram 2; Color 1: red; Color 2: violet

d)

Path taken by the light: diagram 2; Color 1: violet; Color 2: red

243.

Diagram 1 shows the page of a book in front of a plane mirror. An eye is looking at the image of the page. Diagram 2 shows a large G on the page facing the mirror. What is the appearance of the image of G seen by the eye?

a)

b)

c)

d)

244.
Thermal radiation is a part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum?
a)
Gamma ray
b)
Infrared
c)
Ultraviolet
d)
Visible light
245.
Light travels at speed of 2.0 x 10^8 m/s in a glass block. In the glass, the wavelength of the light is 4.0 x 10^-7m. What is the freueny of the light?
a)
2.0 x 10^-15 Hz
b)
1.3 x 10^-2 Hz
c)
80 Hz
d)
5.0 x 10^14 Hz
246.
A laser is a source of light with a single frequency. Which description of this type of light is correct?
a)
Dispersed
b)
Focused
c)
Monochromatic
d)
Refracted
247.
The Moon is 380,000 km from the Earth. A laser light beam is directed from the Earth to the Moon. The beam is reflected back to the Earth. How long does it take for the light to travel to the Moon and back to the Earth?
a)
1.27 ms
b)
2.53 ms
c)
1.27 s
d)
2.53 s
248.
Which range of wave frequencies includes only sounds that can be heard by humans with normal hearing?
a)
3.0 Hz to 300 Hz
b)
30 Hz to 3000 Hz
c)
300 Hz to 30 000Hz
d)
3000 Hz to 300 000 Hz
249.
Which statement is correct?
a)

A remote controller emits microwave radiation adiation

b)
A remote controller emits infrared radiation
c)
A remote controller emits ultrasound
d)
A remote controller emits ultraviolet radiation
250.
Which diagram shows the dispersion of white light by a prism
a)

b)

c)

d)

251.
What is monochromatic light?
a)
A light of a single amplitude
b)
Light of single frequency
c)
Light of more than one color
d)
Light which travels with constant velocity
252.
Why are some radioactive sources stored in boxes made from lead?
a)

Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources

b)
lead decreases the half-life of radioactive sources
c)
lead increases the half life of radioactive sources
d)
lead repels emmisions from the radioactive sources
253.

The units of frequency are...

a)

metres

b)

seconds

c)

Hertz

d)

degrees

254.

Light is an example of a transverse wave

a)

True

b)

False

255.

Sound is an example of a transverse wave

a)

True

b)

False

256.

Which of the following statements describes the period of a wave?

a)

Number of waves per second

b)

Distance from crest to crest

c)

Distance from resting position to top of the wave

d)

Time taken to produce one wave

257.

A microwave has a frequency of 300MHz. What is the wavelength of these waves?

a)

1000 m

b)

100 m

c)

10 m

d)

1 m

258.

The period of a wave is 0.1 s. What is the frequency of this wave?

a)

0.1 Hz

b)

1 Hz

c)

10 Hz

d)

100 Hz

259.

The lowest frequency form of visible light is...

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Green

d)

Violet

260.

The correct order of the EM spectrum is...

a)

R M IR UV V X G

b)

G X UV V M R

c)

R M IR V UV G

d)

R M IR V UV X G

261.

One use of radio waves is...

a)

Broadcasting and communications

b)

Heating

c)

Observing internal structure of objects

d)

Sterilising food and medical equipment

262.

The following image demonstrates...

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

c)

Interference

d)

Diffraction

263.

 θ1 =35°, θ2=25°\theta1\ =35\degree,\ \theta2=25\degree  What is the refractive index, n, of water?

a)

1.37

b)

1.36

c)

1.35

d)

1.34

264.

20 waves pass a point in 5 s. How is the frequency of these waves?

a)

100 Hz

b)

20 Hz

c)

5 Hz

d)

4 Hz

265.

All waves can be reflected and refracted.

a)

True

b)

False

266.

The critical angle in the diagram is 43 degrees. What is the angle of refraction at the critical angle?

a)

Less than 43

b)

Equal to 43

c)

More than 43 but less than 90

d)

Equal to 90 degrees

267.

The critical angle of a block is 45 degrees. What is the refractive index of this block?

a)

1.39

b)

1.40

c)

1.41

d)

1.42

268.
A particle that carries a negative electric charge is called a(n) ______.
a)
neutron
b)
atom
c)
proton
d)
electron
269.
What do the lines around this magnet represent?
a)
North Pole
b)
South Pole
c)
Magnetic Declination
d)
Magnetic Field
270.
As the distance between two magnets increases (they get farther apart), the force between them:
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the Same
271.
If you cut a magnet in half, what happens to the poles?
a)
One half gets the North Pole, the other half gets the South Pole
b)
Both halves get only a North Pole
c)
Both halves get only a South Pole
d)
Both halves get a North pole and a South Pole
272.
What is responsible for the Magnetic Field around Earth?
a)
The Earth's crust
b)
The Earth's molton iron core
c)
The Earth's mantel
d)
The Sun
273.
What kind of magnet can be turned on and off?
a)
refridgerator magnet
b)
electromagnet
c)
magnetite
d)
iron
274.
This is a picture of a simple electromagnet. How can the electromagnet be made stronger?
a)
Add more coils of wire to the nail.
b)
Use a smaller battery.
c)
Reverse the poles of the magnet.
d)
Remove all the coils and the nail.
275.

Magnets on refrigerator cannot be turned off. Which type of magnets they belong?

a)

electromagnets

b)

battery

c)

permanent magnets

d)

copper wire

276.

Which electromagnet is stronger?

a)

A

b)

B

277.

Which of these circuits will not allow the lightbulb to light up

a)
b)
c)
d)
278.

Select BOTH of the parallel circuits.

There are two correct answers!

a)

b)

c)

d)

279.
Two types of circuits are
a)
parallel and magnetic
b)
electromagnetic and series
c)
series and parallel
280.
____________ stops the flow of electricity.
a)
A conductor
b)
An insulator
281.
The unit for current is the 
a)
Volt
b)
Ohm
c)
Amp
282.
What is the unit for resistance?
a)
Volts
b)
Amperes
c)
Ohms
283.
If the battery produced 12.6 Volts and what would be the current flow be for a 6 Ohm resistor
a)
2.1 Amps
b)
2.4 Amps
c)
1.71 Amps
d)
15 Amps
284.

What voltage is needed to cause a 2amps current flow through a 10Ω resistor?

a)
5V
b)
0.2V
c)
20V
d)
200V
285.

What voltage is needed to cause a 50amps current flow through a 10Ω resistor?

a)

15V

b)

500V

c)

500 kV

d)

0.2V

286.
Which formulas represents Ohm's law?
a)
V=IR
b)

F=MA

c)

Fg=MG

287.
Which type of current comes from a battery?
a)
alternating current (AC)
b)
direct current (DC)
288.
What is a closed path for electrons to flow through?
a)
static electricity
b)
circuit
c)
amperes
289.
Electric current is measured in ______.
a)
Watts
b)
Volts
c)
Amperes
290.
Which subatomic particles have a positive charge?
a)
neutrons
b)
electrons
c)
protons
291.
An accumulation of electrons on an object is known as ___________.
a)
current
b)
AC
c)
static electricity
292.
What is the unit for resistance?
a)
Volts
b)
Amperes
c)
Ohms
293.
Electricity is the flow of _________.
a)
protons
b)
neutrons
c)
electrons
294.

Which of these is caused by static electricity?

a)

A magnet attracts a paper clip

b)

Glue holds two pieces of paper together

c)

Socks taken from a clothes dryer stick together

d)

Ice sticks to a car’s windshield

295.

Which choice describes the behavior of an electric charge?

a)

Like charges attract. Unlike charges repel.

b)

Like charges repel. Unlike charges attract.

c)

Like charges attract. Unlike charges attract.

d)

Like charges repel. Unlike charges repel.

296.
A particle that carries a negative electric charge is called a(n) ______.
a)
neutron
b)
atom
c)
proton
d)
electron
297.
A neutral object becomes negatively charged when it loses electrons.
a)
true
b)
false
298.
Conduction is the process of charging an object without touching it.
a)
true
b)
false
299.

What is the end result of charging by contact?

a)

Both object have the same charge, so they will attract one another

b)

Both object have the same charge, so they will repel one another

c)

Both object have the opposite charge, so they will attract one another

d)

Both object have the opposite charge, so they will repel one another

300.
If two balloons have the same charge, what will happen if you place them close to each other?
a)
Nothing
b)
They will be attracted
c)
They will pop
d)
They will push each other away.
301.
When you charge a balloon by rubbing it on your hair this is an example of what method of charging?
a)
Friction
b)
Conduction
c)
Grounding
d)
Induction
302.

What happens when you split a magnet in half?

a)

It becomes twice as strong

b)

You end up with two smaller magnets

c)

You end up with a North Pole magnet and a South Pole Magnet (as long as you split it perfectly in half)

d)

Your magnet loses all of it's magnetism (it leaks out of the break)

303.

What happens when an object with random magnetic domains is placed into a strong magnetic field?

a)

It is attracted to the magnetic field

b)

It aligns with the field and shoots off like superman

c)

It aligns with the field and usually becomes a temporary magnet itself

d)

Its domains start moving faster and it gets warmer

304.

How are two ways that Earth's magnetic field is useful for us?

a)

It allows us to know which direction is "Down" and allows for better navigation

b)

It protects the surface of the earth from UV rays and causes tides

c)

It produces the Auroras and causes the spin of the earth

d)

It blocks the harmful Solar Wind and allows for more efficient navigation

305.

What happens magnetically when electricity runs through a wire (or any charged particle moves).

a)

Nothing, magnetism and electricity are separate phenomenon

b)

The magnetic field matches that of the Earth

c)

It generates a magnetic field around the wire

d)

It uses magnetism to move the charge through the wire

306.

This is when the magnetic domains within a piece of metal (like a nail) are oriented by an electrical current, making a very strong temporary magnet. (Vocab)

a)

Magnetic Pole

b)

Dipole

c)

Electromagnet

d)

Electric Motor

e)

Magnetic Domain

307.

These are the areas of a permanent magnet where the magnetic field is the strongest, usually one at each end of the magnet. (Vocab)

a)

Magnetic Pole

b)

Dipole

c)

Electromagnet

d)

Electric Motor

e)

Magnetic Domain

308.

Complete the sentence: An ammeter is a device that measures

a)

voltage.

b)

charge.

c)

current.

d)

resistance.

309.

Which is the unit of measure for current?

a)

amp

b)

volt

c)

coulomb

d)

joule

310.

Which of the following materials is not a conductor?

a)

wire wool

b)

ionic solution

c)

steel

d)

plastic

311.

Complete the following sentence: A current is defined as

a)

stationary electrons.

b)

the energy in a cell.

c)

a net flow of charge.

d)

electrons.

312.

Which of the following statements about conventional current is correct?

a)

The electrons do not move.

b)

The electrons flow in all directions.

c)

Electrons flow from negative to positive.

d)

Electrons flow from positive to negative.

313.

A voltmeter measures the voltage across a component. Where should it be positioned in a circuit in order to measure voltage correctly?

a)

in series with the component

b)

in parallel with the component

c)

over the cell

d)

anywhere in the circuit

314.

Where would you place an ammeter in a series circuit to get a reading?

a)

next to the cell only

b)

in parallel with the component

c)

in parallel with the cell

d)

anywhere in the circuit

315.

Which of the following represents the definition of an amp?

a)

Cs

b)

s/C

c)

C/s

d)

J/C

316.

Which of the following represents the relationship between charge, current and time?

a)

Q = I × t

b)

Q = I/t

c)

Q = t/I

d)

Q = V × t

317.

A kettle requires a current of 2.1 A and takes 3 minutes to boil a litre of water. Calculate the charge through the wire in this time?

a)

6.3 C

b)

378 C

c)

0.7 C

d)

6.3 Q

318.

Calculate the number of electrons passing through a wire in 5 seconds if the current through it is 2 A.

a)

6 × 10^19

b)

1.7 × 10^-18

c)

10

d)

2

319.

Which of the following represents the definition of a volt?

a)

C/s

b)

J/C

c)

JC

d)

J

320.

Which of the following represents the relationship between energy, voltage and charge?

a)

E/V = Q

b)

E = V/Q

c)

E = V × I

d)

E = V/I

321.

The voltage across a kettle is 230 V. Calculate the energy supplied if 100 C of charge pass through the kettle’s wires.

a)

0.44 J

b)

2.3 J

c)

440 kJ

d)

23 kJ

322.

The voltage across a cooker is 230 V. There is a current of 12 A for 10 minutes. Calculate the total amount of energy.

a)

28 kJ

b)

1.7 kJ

c)

1.7 MJ

d)

2 kJ

323.

What does this circuit symbol represent?

a)

resistor

b)

diode

c)

variable resistor

d)

light dependent resistor

324.

What does this circuit symbol represent?

a)

Lamp/bulb

b)

Cell

c)

Motor

d)

Voltmeter

325.

What does this circuit symbol represent?

a)

Lamp

b)

Resistor

c)

Fuse

d)

Light-dependent resistor

326.

What does this circuit symbol represent?

a)

Variable resistor

b)

Light emitting diode (LED)

c)

Bulb/lamp

d)

Diode

327.

What does this circuit symbol represent?

a)

Motor

b)

Generator

c)

Electric bell

d)

Bulb/lamp

328.

What does this circuit symbol represent?

a)

Bulb/lamp

b)

Battery

c)

Resistor

d)

Cell

329.

Which component would you use to indicate that a current may be flowing?

a)

voltmeter

b)

buzzer

c)

cell

d)

resistor

330.

In a parallel circuit, 0.8 A arrives at a junction between two wires. It splits with 0.2 A going down the first wire. What would the ammeter reading on the second wire be?

a)

0.8 A

b)

0.6 A

c)

0.2 A

d)

It will depend on the resistance of the components down that wire.

331.

Which of the following statements about a parallel circuit that has bulbs on each wire is not correct?

a)

If one bulb filament breaks the other bulbs will remain on.

b)

Switches can be placed throughout the circuit so that different bulbs can be turned on and off.

c)

The current around the circuit will be the same at all points.

d)

Parallel circuits are used in the home for lighting.

332.

Which of the following statements about a series circuit is not correct?

a)

The current is the same throughout the circuit.

b)

The voltage is shared across components.

c)

Different bulbs can be turned on and off depending on where you place a switch.

d)

When one bulb is broken the circuit will no longer work.

333.
A wire is moved across a magnetic field. This causes an induced current in the wire. The induced current interacts with the magnetic field to produce a force on the wire. In which direction is this force?
a)
in the direction of the current
b)
in the direction of movement of the wire
c)
in the opposite direction to the current
d)
in the opposite direction to the movement of the wire
334.
The diagram shows a circuit which includes two resistors and a battery. The voltmeter reads 6.0V. What is the potential difference across the 30Ω resistor?
a)
2.0V
b)
6.0V
c)
18V
d)
24V
335.
A resistor has a potential difference (p.d.) of 12 V across it and a current of 0.60 A in it. What is the resistance of the resistor?
a)
0.050 ohm
b)
2.0 ohms
c)
7.2 ohms
d)
20 ohms
336.
There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V. Which equation gives the power P dissipated in the resistor?
a)
P=IR
b)
P=It
c)
P=IV
d)
P=IV/t
337.
Which metal could be used for a permanent magnet and which metal could be used for the core of an electromagnet?
a)
Permanent magnet: iron; core of electromagnet: copper
b)
Permanent magnet: iron; core of electromagnet: steel
c)
Permanent magnet: steel; core of electromagnet: copper
d)
Permanent magnet: steel; core of electromagnet: iron
338.
Two resistors, with resistances R1 and R2, are used as a potential divider. What is the relationship between R1, R2 and potential differences V1 and V2?
a)
R1 x R2 = V1 x V2
b)
R1 x V1 = R2 x V2
c)
R1/R2 = V1 x V2
d)
R1/R2 = V1/V2
339.
A student designs a circuit to use as a dimmer switch for a lamp. What happens to the brightness of the lamp and the potential difference (p.d.) across the lamp, when the slider is moved from X to Y?
a)
Brightness of lamp: decreases / p.d. Across the lamp: decreases
b)
Brightness of lamp: decreases / p.d. Across the lamp: increases
c)
Brightness of lamp: increases / p.d. Across the lamp: decreases
d)
Brightness of lamp: increases / p.d. Across the lamp: increases
340.
A resistor R is connected in parallel with an 8.0Ω resistor. The resistance of this combination is 4.0Ω. What is the resistance of resistor R?
a)
0.50Ω
b)
2.0Ω
c)
4.0Ω
d)
8.0Ω
341.
The diagram shows an a.c. generator. With the coil in the position shown, the output voltage is +10 V. When does the output voltage become –10 V?
a)
When the coil has turned 90°
b)
When the coil has turned 180°
c)
When the coil has turned 270°
d)
When the coil has turned 360°
342.
What is an electric field?
a)
A region around a wire carrying an electric current in which a compass needle experiences a force
b)
A region in which an electric charge experiences a force
c)
A region in which an electric charge is attracted by the Earth’s gravity
d)
A region through which electromagnetic radiation is passing
343.
Two meters are connected in a circuit to measure the current in a component and the potential difference across the component. Which meters are used and how are they connected to a component?
a)
an ammeter in parallel for current, a voltmeter in series for potential diffrence
b)
an ammeter in series for current, a voltmeter in parallel for potential difference
c)
a voltmeter in parallel current, an ammeter in series potential difference
d)
a voltmeter in series for current, an ammeter in parallel for potential difference
344.
The circuit shown can be completed by inserting components at X and at Y. The completed circuit is a potential divider in which the potential difference across component Y increases when the temperature increases. Which row shows the components at X and Y?
a)
X: light-dependent resisor; Y: resistor
b)
X: resistor; Y: light-dependent resistor
c)
X: resistor; Y: thermistor
d)
X: thermistor; Y: resistor
345.
A coil carries a current in a magnetic field. The coil experiences a turning effect. Which device uses this effect?
a)

a d.c. motor

b)
an electromagnet
c)
a relay
d)
a trandformer
346.
Which produces an electromotive force (e.m.f.)?
a)
a battery
b)
a filament lamp
c)
a resistor
d)
a spring balance
347.
What is a transformer used for?
a)
changing a direct current into an alternating current
b)
changing the magnitude of an alternating voltage
c)
reducing the frequency of an alternating current
d)
switching off the current in a circuit when there is a fault
348.
The diagram shows two resistors connected in a circuit. What could be the combined resistance of this arrangement of resistors?
a)
4.0Ω
b)
6.0Ω
c)
9.0Ω
d)
18Ω
349.

Which test could be used to find which end of the magnet is north pole?

a)
putting it near compass needle
b)
putting it near ferrous metal
c)
putting it near non-ferrous metal
d)
putting it near a steel spoon
350.
A step-up transformer is used before electricity is transmitted by overhead cables. Which statement explains why the step-up transformer is used?
a)
It increases the current to increase the speed at which the electricity travels.
b)
It increases the current to reduce energy loss in the cables.
c)
It increases the voltage to increase the speed at which the electricity travels.
d)
It increases the voltage to reduce energy loss in the cables.
351.
Why are lamps in a house lighting circuit connected in parallel rather than in series?
a)
If one lamp stops working, the remaining lamps become brighter.
b)
Less current is taken from the power supply.
c)
The lamps can be turned off independently using switches.
d)
When more lamps are added, their brightness decreases.
352.
In an electrical circuit, what is the purpose of the fuse?
a)
To connect the metal case of an appliance to the Earth
b)
To cut off the electrical supply if the current is too large
c)
To keep an electrical appliance dry in damp conditions
d)
To maintain a steady voltage as the current varies
353.
An electric kettle has a metal casing. The cable for the kettle contains a wire that is connected to the earth pin of the plug. Which danger does this guard against?
a)
the cable to the kettle becoming too hot
b)
the casing of the cable becoming live
c)
the casing of the kettle becoming wet on the outside
d)
the casing of the kettle overheating
354.
A computer engineer wants the speed of a fan to increase when the temperature inside a computer increases. The engineer knows that a larger current causes the fan to turn more quickly. Which component should be used to make this happen?
a)
a relay
b)
a thermistor
c)
a variable resistor
d)
a transformer
355.
A student use a length wire as a resistor of higher resistance. He makes a second resistor from the same material. To be certain of making a second resistor of higher resistance, he should use a piece of wire that is…
a)
longer and thicker
b)
longer and thinner
c)
shorter and thicker
d)
shorter and thinner
356.

A student has a bar magnet. He brings the magnet close to an object. The magnet and the object repel each other. What is the other object made from?

a)
another permanent magnet
b)
any magnetic material
c)
a block of wood
d)
a piece of copper
357.
Which role show the components x and y?
a)
x = light-dependent resistor y = resistor
b)
x = resistor y = light-dependent resistor
c)
x = resistor y = thermistor
d)
x = thermistor y = resistor
358.
Which metal is used for core of a transformer
a)
Aluminum
b)
Copper
c)
Soft iron
d)
Steel
359.

What will change the direction of this force?

a)
increasing the current
b)
reversing the current
c)
increasing the current of the magnetic field
d)
using an electromagnet with the same polarity as the perminent magnet
360.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

361.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

362.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

363.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

364.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

365.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

366.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

367.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

368.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

369.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

370.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

371.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

372.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

373.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

374.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

375.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

376.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

377.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

378.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

379.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

380.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

381.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

382.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

383.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

384.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

385.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

386.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

387.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

388.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

389.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

390.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

391.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

392.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

393.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

394.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

395.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

396.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

397.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

398.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

399.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

400.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

401.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

402.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

403.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

404.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

405.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

406.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

407.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

408.

Which of the following is true of the Sun?

a)

The Sun is the closest star to Earth.

b)

The Sun is the smallest star in the Milky Way

c)

The Sun is the largest planet in our Solar System.

d)

The Sun is an example of a galaxy that gives off light energy.

409.

What causes the day/night cycle?

a)

Earth turning on its axis.

b)

Earth revolving around the Sun.

c)

The Sun revolving around the Earth.

d)

The Moon revolving around the Earth.

410.

When the Moon is directly between the Sun and the Earth, what phase would the Moon be in?

a)

Full Moon

b)

New Moon

c)

Half Moon

d)

Waxing Crescent

411.

What evidence from the text supports why the Moon seems to change shape from night to night?

a)

The Moon shines on Earth differently depending on the weather.

b)

As the Moon travels around Earth, its distance from Earth changes.

c)

The moonlight hits Earth at different places depending on the time of day.

d)

As the Moon travels around Earth, sunlight hits it from different directions.

412.

Which of the following stars has the highest surface temperature?

a)

White

b)

Yellow

c)

Red

d)

Bluish-white

413.

Which of the following forms a star?

a)

Nebulae

b)

Supernova

c)

White dwarf

d)

Black hole

414.

Which of the following characteristics can be used to classify stars?

I Age

II Shape

III Brightness

IV Colour

a)

I and II

b)

III and IV

c)

II and III

d)

I and IV

415.

The following information shows the formation of a star.

P- The gas ball starts to shine and a new star is born.

Q- A lot of heat energy and light energy are released from the core.

R- The gases and dust particles in nebulae are pulled by a strong gravitational force until it becomes compact core.

S- The core becomes hotter causing a nuclear reaction to occur when the temperature and pressure are too high.

a)

P,Q,R,S

b)

P,Q,S,R

c)

R,Q,S,P

d)

R,S,Q,P

416.

Diagram shows a galaxy. What is the type of this galaxy?

a)

Elliptical

b)

Spiral

c)

Milky Way

d)

Irregular

417.

Why is the temperature of Venus higher than Mercury?

a)

The density of Venus is higher

b)

The gravitational force on Venus is higher

c)

Venus does not have clouds to absorb and reflect heat

d)

The atmospheric layer of Venus contains 96% of carbon dioxide gas that causes greenhouse effect

418.

Diagram shows the planets in solar system. Which of the following are terrestrial planets?

a)

Mercury, Saturn, Earth and Mars

b)

Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars

c)

Mercury, Venus, Earth and Neptune

d)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune

419.

Which of the following are gas planets?

a)

Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars

b)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Earth

c)

Mercury, Venus, Earth and Neptune

d)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune

420.

Which of these objects is a dwarf planet?

a)

Moon

b)

Mercury

c)

Pluto

d)

Aris

421.

What shape are the orbits of comets?

a)

Rectangular

b)

Irregular

c)

Elliptical

d)

Circle

422.

Which of the following is a natural satellite?

a)

International space station

b)

Hubble space telescope

c)

Communication satellite

d)

Moon

423.

Which body was the first stage in the formation of the Sun?

a)

Protostar

b)

Main sequence star

c)

Supernova

d)

Nebula

424.

What is a comet?

a)

An object that orbits the Earth, made from rocky material, dust and ice

b)

An object that orbits the Sun, made from rocky material and metals

c)

An object that orbits the Sun, made from rocky material, dust and ice

d)

An object that orbits the solar system, made from rocky material and metals

425.

What happens to the gravitational force of attraction between two objects if the distance between them increases?

a)

Force of attraction increases

b)

Force of attraction decreases

c)

Force of attraction remains constant

d)

Force of attraction cease to exist

426.

What happens to the speed and velocity of a planet in a circular orbit?

a)

velocity changes and the speed changes

b)

velocity changes but the speed remains constant

c)

speed changes but the velocity remains constant

d)

speed increases but the velocity remains constant

427.

What is a nebula?

a)

A cloud of dust and gas

b)

A collection of billions of stars

c)

An early solar system, with a protostar, planets and moons

d)

A core with abundant of hydrogen

428.

Which two things balance and keep a main sequence star in equilibrium?

a)

Gravity and friction

b)

Gravity and air resistance

c)

Gravity and radiation pressure

d)

Gravity and electrostatic attraction

429.

Where do elements of heavier than iron form?

a)

In nuclear fusion in main sequence stars

b)

In supernova

c)

In the big bang

d)

In nuclear fusion in planetary nebula

430.

What will the Sun in the next stage of its life?

a)

A red giant

b)

A red supergiant

c)

A black hole

d)

A neutron star

431.

Which type of star has supernova explosions?

a)

Stars similar in size to our Sun

b)

Stars much bigger than our Sun

c)

All stars go through a supernova explosion

d)

Medium stars

432.

What happens when a white dwarf cools completely?

a)

It stops emitting light and becomes a dark dwarf

b)

It stops emitting light and becomes a neutron star

c)

It stops emitting light and becomes a black hole

d)

It stops emitting light and becomes a planetary nebula

433.

What is red-shift?

a)

The time when a star moves from the main sequence to be a red giant

b)

The red filter used by astronomers to analyse the light from distant stars

c)

The increase in wavelength of light from a distant galaxy moving away from Earth

d)

The increase in wavelength of light from a distant galaxy moving away from Sun

434.

Which of the following suggests that the solar system is made from the debris of old supernova explosions?

a)

The Sun is a relatively small mass star

b)

There is gold in the ground on Earth

c)

The Sun is mostly hydrogen

d)

There is hydrogen on Earth

435.

Most distant galaxies show more red-shift. Which major theory does this support?

a)

Theory of stellar evolution

b)

The Big Bang theory

c)

Fermi paradox

d)

Kardashev scale

436.

What is the basic idea of the Big Bang theory?

a)

The universe expanded from a single tiny point, starting about 13.8 billion years ago

b)

The universe will end in a giant dark energy explosion

c)

The solar system began when a protostar started nuclear fusion reactions

d)

Continous creation of matter throughout the universe

437.

Which of the following is not evidence of the Big Bang theory

a)

Cosmic microwave background radiation

b)

Doppler red-shift of light observed from distant stars and galaxies

c)

Galaxies are moving away from Earth

d)

Models of Accretion Theory

438.

The orbital period of a Moon around the Earth is about 30 days. The average radius of its orbit is 380000km. Calculate the orbital speed of the Moon in m/s.

a)

920m/s

b)

9200m/s

c)

92 m/s

d)

92000m/s

439.

The Sun is 150 million km away from the Earth. Calculate the time, in minutes, it takes light to travel from the Sun to us.

a)

7.2 minutes

b)

8.3 minutes

c)

9.4 minutes

d)

6.3 minutes

440.

A star is a distance of 3.6 x 1019 m from us. Calculate the distance in light years.

a)

3689 light years

b)

3789 light years

c)

368.9 light years

d)

378.9 light years

441.

Estimate the Hubble constant given v= 11000 km/s and d= 5.0 x 1024 m.

a)

2.2 x 1018

b)

2.2 x 10-18

c)

2.2 x 1021

d)

2.2 x 10-21

442.

Estimate the age of the Universe in years.

a)

1.4 x1010

b)

4.45 x 1017

c)

4.45 x 107

d)

1.4 x107

443.

The unit of activity is...

a)

Becquerel

b)

Seconds

c)

Metres

d)

Sievert

444.

The atomic number indicates how many...are found in the nucleus of an atom.

a)

Neutrons

b)

Protons

c)

Electrons

d)

Quarks

445.

The most penetrating form of nuclear radiation is...

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

heat

446.

Which best describes the structure of a beta particle?

a)

helium nucleus

b)

slow moving proton

c)

fast moving electron

d)

high frequency light wave

447.

What is the half-life of this radioactive substance?

a)

5700 years

b)

11400 years

c)

17100 years

d)

22800 years

448.

The overall charge on an alpha particle is...

a)

-1

b)

0

c)

+1

d)

+2

449.

The overall charge on a gamma ray is...

a)

-1

b)

0

c)

+1

d)

+2

450.

A hydrogen atom has an atomic number of 1, mass number of 1. The first isotope of hydrogen has an atomic number of...

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

451.

Atomic decay or the process of radioactivity is a random process.

a)

True

b)

False

452.

The most ionising form of nuclear radiation is...

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

infrared

453.

Carbon-12 has an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 12. How many electrons would be found in a neutral atom of carbon-12?

a)

6

b)

12

c)

18

d)

24

454.

A radioactive source has an initial activity of 200kBq and a half-life of 15 days. How many days would it take for the activity to fall to 25kBq?

a)

15

b)

30

c)

45

d)

60

455.

A source of background radiation is...

a)

cosmic rays from the Sun

b)

radon gas in the air

c)

radioactive isotopes in food

d)

radioactive minerals in the earth

456.

Why isotopes tend to be radioactive?

a)

An excess of neutrons in the nucleus

b)

An excess of electrons in the nucleus

c)

The nucleus being too heavy

d)

•The nucleus being too light

457.

A decay process causes deduction in number of mass number of the parent element.

name the decay process.

a)

alpha decay

b)

beta decay

c)

gamma decay

458.

A decay process causes additional in number of atomic number of the parent element.

name the decay process.

a)

alpha decay

b)

beta decay

c)

gamma decay

459.

name the X.

a)

Helium nucleus

b)

electron

c)

proton

d)

Hydrogen nucleus

460.

The diagram shows a decay equation. What is the value of A and Z?

a)

A: 206

Z: 80

b)

A: 210

Z: 81

c)

A: 210

Z: 80

d)

A: 210

Z: 83

461.

Determine the radioactive rays that are emitted in each stage of the above series of the decay

a)

α, β, α\alpha,\ \beta,\ \alpha

b)

α, β, β\alpha,\ \beta,\ \beta

c)

β, α, α\beta,\ \alpha,\ \alpha

d)

β, α, β\beta,\ \alpha,\ \beta

462.

Why gamma decay do not alter atomic and mass number of the radioisotope?

Because

a)

gamma ray is an energy

b)

gamma ray is a nucleon

c)

gamma ray is a particle

463.

"Time required for mass / activity/ number of nuclei of a radioactive substance to fall to half its initial value."

This is definition of

a)

radioactivity

b)

decay process

c)

half-life

d)

isotope

464.

A sample of radioactive material stored in the laboratory has an initial activity

of 20 s-1 . If its half-life is 9 minutes, how much is its activity after 45 minutes?

a)

2.5 s-1

b)

1.25 s-1

c)

0.625 s-1

d)

5 s-1

465.

A radioactive material stored in the laboratory has a half-life of 4 days. Calculate the number of days taken for the activity of a sample of radioactive material to reduce to 6.25% of its initial activity.

a)

12 days

b)

9 days

c)

16 days

d)

20 days

466.

A radioactive material stored in the laboratory has a half-life of 6 days. Calculate the number of days taken for the radioactive material to decayed 75 % of its initial decay rate.

a)

12 days

b)

9 days

c)

18 days

d)

24 days

467.

A radioactive material stored in the laboratory has a half-life of 12 hours. Calculate the number of days taken for the radioactive material to decayed 15/16 of its initial decay rate.

a)

2.5 days

b)

1 days

c)

1.5 days

d)

2 days

468.

Diagram shows comparison between non-irradiated food and irradiated food. State type of the rays used to the irradiated food

a)

alpha radiation

b)

beta radiation

c)

gamma radiation

469.

Diagram shows a household fire alarm. State type of the rays used in the alarm

a)

alpha radiation

b)

beta radiation

c)

gamma radiation

470.

Diagram shows a way to inspect thickness of a paper. State type of the rays used

a)

alpha radiation

b)

beta radiation

c)

gamma radiation

471.

exposure to high doses of radioactive radiation may causes

a)

tissue damage

b)

mutation

c)

diabetes

d)

heart attack

472.

the followings procedures can minimise the risk of radioactive radiation EXCEPT

a)

Store the sources in lead-lined boxes

b)

Minimise the amount of time with the source

c)

keep yourself (and other people) as far from the sources

d)

Use hands to handle the source

473.

Velocity is?

a)

a helium nucleus

b)

rate of change of distance moved with the direction

c)

the energy store in a body due to its height

d)

the amount of matter that an object is made of

474.

Work done?

a)

Force x distance moved in the direction of the force

b)

force per uint area

c)

number of complete oscillations per unit of time on the wave

d)

the force exerted by the Earth

475.

Kinetic energy?

a)

Energy stored in chemical substances

b)

Energy that an object has due to its position (height)

c)

Energy that an object has due to its motion

476.

Power?

a)

the amount of energy transfer

b)

Force/cross-sectional area

c)

Current x time

d)

the rate at which work is done (work done/time taken)

477.

The law of Conservation of energy states that:

"Energy cannot be .......... or .........., it only changes from one form to another."

a)

created - destroyed

b)

changed - transfered

c)

stored - moved

478.

Pressure?

a)

rate of change of velocity

b)

force per unit of area (force/area)

c)

vibration of the particles are parallel to the direction that energy transfers.

d)

force x distance moved in the direction of the force

479.

acceleration

a)

a scalar quantity has magnitude only

b)

rate of change of distance moved

c)

rate of change of velocity

d)

number of oscillations per unit time of a point on the wave

480.

mass

a)

position where zero amplitude

b)

the amount of matter in an object

c)

the force exerted by the Earth

d)

force/area

481.

Weight

a)

Current in a circuit

b)

Force exerts on a body due to gravity

c)

the amount of matter in a body

d)

energy of a mass due to its motion

482.

Gravitational potential energy

a)

Energy stored in chemical substances

b)

Energy of an object due to its motion

c)

Energy of an object due to its position (height)

d)

rate of change of velocity

483.

Hooke's law

a)

rate of change of velocity

b)

Force due to gravity

c)

Force/area

d)

force is proportional to the extension unless the limit of proportionality is exceeded

484.

Electric field

a)

proton

b)

electron

c)

region of space where a force acts on a stationary charge

d)

the amount of energy converted from chemical to electrical

485.

Pressure

a)

region of space where a force acts on a stationary charge

b)

Force/area

c)

vibrations of the particles are perpendicular to the direction of the propagation of energy

d)

potential difference/current

486.

What property of this wave is represented by the letter "A"

a)

amplitude

b)

crest

c)

trough

d)

wavelength

487.
What property of the wave is represented by the letter "B"?
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
488.
The number of wavelengths that pass a point each per second is:
a)
frequency
b)
period
c)
longitudinal 
d)
transverse wave 
489.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
490.
Which of the following can sound travel through?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
all of the above
491.

An object has which color for being a good absorber?

a)

Black

b)

White

c)

Yellow

d)

Green

492.

__________ is a phenomenon that the light is reflected when it hits a shiny surface such as a mirrior.

a)

Diffraction

b)

Refraction

c)

Reflection

d)

Turning effect

493.

What is the correct equation for refractive index

a)

n = sinr / sini

b)

n = sini / sinr

c)

c = sini / sinr

d)

Sinc = sini / sinr

494.

What is the correct equation for acceleration

a)

a = (v - u) / t

b)

a = d / t

c)

a = f x m

495.

What is the correct equation linking speed of a wave frequency and wavelength

a)

v = f x λ\lambda

b)

v = f / λ\lambda

c)

v = λ\lambda / f

496.

How do you find the number of neutrons in an element

a)

Mass number - atomic number

b)

Atomic number - mass number

c)

Mass number / atomic number

497.

What is the correct equation for electrical power

a)

P = I x V

b)

P = V / I

c)

P = I / V

498.

What is the correct equation linking charge current and time

a)

Q = It

b)

I = Qt

c)

t = QI

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