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VTA130 Final exam review

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If you are looking through a microscope with a 10× eyepiece and a 10× objective lens, what is the magnification of your specimen?

a)

1000×

b)

10×

c)

20×

d)

100×

2.

Ringworm is a

a)

Fungus

b)

Nematode parasite

c)

Ectoparasite

d)

Skin mite

3.

What is this animal?

a)

Tick

b)

Louse

c)

Demodex

d)

Flea

4.

What is this animal?

a)

Ear mite

b)

Flea

c)

Tick

d)

Louse

5.

What is this animal?

a)

Louse

b)

Tick

c)

Ear mite

d)

Flea

6.

What spreads heartworm disease?

a)

Mosquitos

b)

Ear mites

c)

Ticks

d)

Fleas

7.

What is the most common way pets get tapeworms?

a)

Mosquitos

b)

Fleas

c)

Ticks

d)

Ear mites

8.

Which of these is a tickborne disease?

a)

Heartworms

b)

Fleas

c)

Ear mites

d)

Anaplasmosis

9.

Fluid samples from body cavities should be preserved with what?

a)

EDTA

b)

Heprin

c)

Cirtate

d)

Water

10.

What are the segments of tapeworm that you frequently see in the host's stool called? 

a)
Proglottids
b)
Ova
c)
Cysticerci
d)
Scolex
11.

What is an anticoagulant?

a)
A substance that promotes blood clotting.
b)
An anticoagulant is a substance that prevents blood clotting.
c)
A vitamin that enhances blood circulation.
d)
A type of medication for high blood pressure.
12.

Can a veterinarian prescribe medication to a person?

a)

No

b)

Yes

c)

Only if it is a medication for pets and people

13.

What does coagulation mean?

a)
The process of a liquid changing into a solid or semi-solid state.
b)
The act of filtering impurities from a liquid.
c)
A method of mixing different liquids together.
d)
The process of a solid turning into a liquid state.
14.

Which site is not commonly used in dogs for venipuncture?

a)

Medial saphenous vein

b)

Lateral saphenous vein

c)
Cephalic vein
d)
Jugular vein
15.

Urinalysis should be set up as soon as possible after collection because

a)

Changes to the physical, chemical and microscopic characteristics begin immediately after collection

b)

Urine smells bad in the lab

c)

Smelling dog urine is not fear free for cat and small mammal patients in the hospital

d)

Urine will start to dissipate into the air and you will not have enough sample left for your test

16.

A client asks when they should collect urine from their pet for testing. What should you say?

a)

The first morning sample after the pet has slept

b)

The sample directly after the pet has eaten

c)

The last urination of the day

d)

The urination after drinking a large amount of water

17.

What is Sarcoptes scabiei?

a)
Sarcoptes scabiei is a mite that causes scabies.
b)
Sarcoptes scabiei is a fungus found in soil.
c)
Sarcoptes scabiei is a virus that causes flu.
d)
Sarcoptes scabiei is a type of bacteria.
18.

Why should we NOT choose manual expression for a pet that has a urinary obstruction?

a)

The bladder could burst

b)

The urine will be less concentrated

c)

The urine get contaminated from the obstruction

d)

We should choose manual expression for pets with urinary obstructions.

19.

Which insect spreads heartworm disease?

a)

Flies

b)

Ticks

c)

Fleas

d)

Mosquitos

20.

What do you call a urine sample that was collected during urination

a)

Voided

b)

Table top collection

c)

Cystocentesis

d)

Free catch

21.

Manual expression and cystocentesis require the bladder to be full enough to palpate and hold in position.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Urine collection method where you collect urine from a table or floor

a)

Voided

b)

Cystogenesis

c)

Catheter

d)

Free catch

23.


Which collection method is considered the best for superficial or deep tissue masses?

a)

Fine needle aspirate

b)

Cystocentesis

c)

Venipuncture

d)

Stab technique

24.

What is the technique called during a fine needle aspirate when you pierce the site with a needle several times to collect cells?

a)

Stab technique

b)

Swab technique

c)

Impression smear

d)

Wedge technique

25.

What collection method is used to test tissue masses?

a)

Fine needle aspirate (FNA)

b)

Swabbing

c)

Tissue scrape

d)

Impression smear

26.

For an ear cytology, if you see occasional cocci on some slides how would you rate it?

a)

+1

b)

0

c)

3+++

d)

4++++

27.

What does turbid mean?

a)

Urine that is very cloudy

b)

Urine that is clear

c)

Urine that is orange or red tinged

d)

Urine that has a sweet smell

28.

Which of the following is NOT a blood collection site commonly used for canine patients?

a)

Lateral saphenous

b)

Medial saphenous

c)

Cephalic

d)

Jugular

29.

An anticoagulant:

a)

Heparin

b)

Aspirin

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Paracetamol

30.

An anticoagulant

a)

Is only found in a purple top tube

b)

Is a substance that does not allow blood samples to form clots

c)

Is a substance that helps blood to clot faster

d)

Is always in the form of a powder coating inside the blood tube

31.

Which of the following tubes does not contain an anticoagulant?

a)

Blue top

b)

Red top

c)

Green top

d)

Purple top

32.

What components of blood are examined on a blood smear?

a)

Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets

b)

Red blood cells, plasma, platelets

c)

White blood cells, platelets, serum

d)

Plasma, platelets and EDTA

33.

The physical exam of a dead canine patient for the purpose of diagnosis is called

a)

Autopsy

b)

Necropsy

c)

Euthanasia

d)

Dissection

34.

When examining the plasma color, a yellow plasma sample is

a)

Icteric

b)

Lipemic

c)

Hemolyzed

d)

Normal

35.

The liquid portion of whole blood is

a)

Plasma

b)

White blood cells

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Serum

36.

Which of the following tubes does not contain an anticoagulant?

a)

Green top

b)

Blue top

c)

Red top

d)

Purple top

37.

A marble top tube contains

a)

Serum separator gel

b)

Sodium citrate

c)

Heparin

d)

Anticoagulant

38.

Which anticoagulant is beneficial for collection of small samples but may cause cell clumping and often stains poorly?

a)

Lithium heparin

b)

Sodium citrate

c)

EDTA

d)

No additive

39.

Mycology is the study of

a)
the study of plants
b)
the study of animals
c)
the study of bacteria
d)
the study of fungi
40.

Which of the following is the most commonly used anticoagulant because it preserves cell morphology?

a)

Sodium citrate

b)

Heparin

c)

EDTA

d)

Oxalate

41.

Which anticoagulant is beneficial for collection of small samples, but may cause cell clumping and often stains poorly?

a)

Lithium Heparin

b)

EDTA

c)

No Additive

d)

Sodium citrate

42.

Which anticoagulant is only used for coagulation studies, and causes cell morphology changes?

a)

Lithium Heparin

b)

EDTA

c)

No Additive

d)

Sodium citrate

43.

An EDTA blood tube is:

a)

Blue

b)

Green

c)

Purple

d)

Red

44.

A blood tube containing lithium heparin is:

a)

Blue

b)

Green

c)

Purple

d)

Red

45.

Veterinarians can prescribe dewormer for people.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

A blood tube with no additives is:

a)

Red

b)

Purple

c)

Blue

d)

Green

47.

What is the most common roundworm of dogs and puppies?

a)

Toxocara cati

b)

Toxocara canis

c)

Cestoda

d)

Ancylostoma duodenale

48.

A blood tube containing sodium citrate is:

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Marble

49.

A marble top tube contains:

a)

Heparin

b)

Anticoagulant

c)

Sodium citrate

d)

Serum separator gel

50.

The liquid portion of whole blood is:

a)

Plasma

b)

Red blood cells

c)

White blood cells

d)

Platelets

51.

In non-additive tubes, a clot forms, and the liquid portion is:

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Plasma

c)

White blood cells

d)

Serum

52.

What does PCV stand for?

a)

Packed Cell Volume

b)

Plasma Cell Volume

c)

Platelet Cell Volume

d)

Peripheral Cell Volume

53.

Lubricant should be used when collecting a sample for vaginal or ear cytology

a)

True

b)

False

54.

What does PCV stand for?

a)

Packed Centrifuge Volume

b)

Packed Cell Volume

c)

Packed Cell Velocity

d)

Per Cell Volume

55.

The PCV is the percentage of red blood cells in:

a)

Serum

b)

Plasma

c)

Clotted blood

d)

Whole blood

56.

What color is the blood tube that a PCV sample is collected from?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Purple

57.

When examining the plasma color, a red or pink plasma sample is:

a)

Icteric

b)

Normal

c)

Hemolyzed

d)

Lipemic

58.

A parasite that lives on the outside of his host is a

a)

Ectoparasite

b)

Endoparasite

c)

Insect

d)

Arachnid

59.


If collecting a fluid sample (thoracic, abdominal, pericardial) for cytology, which anticoagulant should it be mixed with?

a)

EDTA

b)

Gram stain

c)

Heprin

d)

Quick dip

60.

When examining the plasma color, a yellow plasma sample is:

a)

Icteric

b)

Normal

c)

Hemolyzed

d)

Lipemic

61.

When examining plasma color, a sample that is lipemic is

a)

White from a fatty meal

b)

Yellow from liver disease

c)

Hemolyzed from poor venipuncture technique

d)

Normal/typical/healthy

62.

What is the term used to describe plasma that appears yellow?

a)

Hemolyzed

b)

Normal

c)

Lipemic

d)

Icteric

63.

A normal plasma color is:

a)

White

b)

Clear/straw

c)

Red/pink

d)

Yellow

64.

Which components of blood are examined on a blood smear?

a)

Red blood cells, plasma, platelets

b)

Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets

c)

White blood cells, platelets, serum

d)

Plasma, platelets, EDTA

65.

Erythrocytes are:

a)

Parasites

b)

Platelets

c)

Red blood cells

d)

White blood cells

66.

Leukocytes are:

a)

Parasites

b)

Platelets

c)

Red blood cells

d)

White blood cells

67.

Thrombocytes are:

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Parasites

c)

White blood cells

d)

Platelets

68.

In which area of the blood smear are cells the least dense, spread far apart, and we can scan for platelet clumps?

a)

Center of the smear

b)

Edge of the smear

c)

Middle of the smear

d)

Near the slide's label

69.

In this area of the blood smear, cells are stacked in an even layer, and morphology can be evaluated:

a)

Feathered edge

b)

No man's land

c)

Monolayer

d)

Basal layer

70.

What color is the tube that the patient sample is collected in for analysis with the CBC blood machine?

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Purple

71.

What does "CBC" mean?

a)

Complete Blood Collection

b)

Critical Blood Count

c)

Critical Blood Collection

d)

Complete Blood Count

72.

Which of the following is not a component of the urinalysis?

a)

Packed cell volume

b)

Total plasma protein

c)

Red blood cell count

d)

White blood cell count

73.

Which mite is zoonotic and causes intense itching by burrowing into the skin triggering an allergic reaction?

a)

Scabies

b)

Flies

c)

Mosquitos

d)

Heartworms

74.

Which of these diseases is NOT spread by a tick?

a)

Lyme disease

b)

Anaplasmosis

c)

Ehrlichiosis

d)

Heartworm disease

75.


Spinning a urine sample in the centrifuge results in a clear liquid and a sediment. What is the term for the clear liquid?

a)

Supernatant

b)

Solute

c)

Dilutant

d)

Solution

76.

What anticoagulant is used to collect blood samples for the chemistry analyzer?

a)

Lithium Heparin

b)

EDTA

c)

Sodium Citrate

d)

Heparin

77.

Which of the following is NOT a constituent of blood associated with liver function?

a)

Protein

b)

Creatinine

c)

Bile acids

d)

Albumin

78.

What parasite is protozoal?

a)

Roundworm

b)

Hookworm

c)

Coccida

d)

Flea

79.

Minerals that exist as positively charged or negatively charged particles in aqueous solution are: 

a)

Electrolytes

b)

Plasma

c)

Serum

d)

Clot

80.

What organs are associated with the term “hepatobiliary”?

a)

Liver and kidney

b)

Gallbladder and pancreas

c)

Liver and spleen

d)

Liver and gallbladder

81.

Which of the following are constituents of blood associated with kidney function?

a)

BUN and glucose

b)

Bile acids and bilirubin

c)

Creatinine and BUN

d)

white blood cell count and red blood cell count

82.

Immunologic tests utilized in cats and dogs to specifically test for pancreatitis are:

a)

CBC/ Chem 10

b)

CBC/ Chem 17

c)

CPLI/ FPLI

d)

Chem 17/ Electrolytes

83.

Fructosamine and glucose are constituents of blood related to pancreatic function.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Minerals that exist as positively charged or negatively charged particles in aqueous solution are:

a)

Electrolytes

b)

Transferases

c)

Phosphatases

d)

Bile acids

85.

Which of the following is not a guideline for sample collection and handling?

a)

Collect the sample aseptically

b)

Keep the specimen warm during transport

c)

Label the specimen container

d)

Keep the specimen cool during transport

86.

What is the purpose of bacterial streaking?

a)

Growth of large volumes of bacteria

b)

Growth of multiple colonies of bacteria

c)

Motility testing

d)

Isolation of specific types of bacteria

87.

Which tapeworm is spread through the ingestion of fleas?

a)

Ancylostoma duodenale

b)

Toxocara cati

c)

Taenia

d)

Dipylidium caninum

88.

What procedure is performed to differentiate between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria?

a)

Bacterial streaking

b)

Pressure-sensitive tape mount

c)

Gram stain

d)

Acid-Fast

89.

Which of the following is NOT a component of macroscopic evaluation of bacteria?

a)

Morphology

b)

Color

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Border

90.

Rabies testing is done on what kind of sample?

a)

Brain

b)

Skin

c)

Blood

d)

Hair

91.

Ticks can give dogs what disease?

a)

Anaplasmosis

b)

Rabies

c)

Heartworms

d)

Bordetella

92.

Mycology is the study of what?

a)

Fungi

b)

Blood

c)

Skin

d)

Hair

93.

When collecting an abdominal fluid sample from a dog, what anticoagulant should it be mixed with?

a)

EDTA

b)

Gram stain

c)

Saline

d)

Sterile water

94.

Why is the first morning urine the best for urinalysis?

a)
It is the only urine sample available in the morning.
b)

It contains more yeast than other samples.

c)
It is less affected by hydration levels.
d)
The first morning urine is the best for urinalysis because it is more concentrated.
95.

What type of sample collection is performed for cytologic evaluation of flat, dry lesions?

a)

Tissue scraping

b)

Impression smear

c)

Swabbing

d)

FNA

96.

Flea tapewoms look like what?

a)

Grains of rice

b)

Thick spaghetti noodles

c)

Coils like macaroni noodles

d)

Bowtie pasta

97.

Pressing a clean glass slide to several areas of a lesion is called what?

a)

Complete blood count

b)

Bacterial streaking

c)

Impression smear

d)

Swab

98.

When suspended in fecasol, parasite eggs do what?

a)

Expand so you can see them more easily

b)

Float to the top

c)

Sink

d)

Hatch

99.

Changes to physical, chemical, and microscopic characteristics of urine begin

a)
When urine is stored in the bladder.
b)

As soon as it is collected

c)

12 hours after collection

d)

6 hours after collection

100.

What instrument is used to read the specific gravity of urine?

a)

Microscope

b)

Refractometer

c)

CBC reader

d)

Centrifuge

101.

The urine dipstick is used for what part of the urinalysis?

a)

Gross examination

b)

Microscopic examination

c)

Smell

d)

Biochemical analysis

102.

Gross analysis, biochemical testing, specific gravity, and microscopic evaluation are all part of a complete what?

a)

Blood count

b)

Urinalysis

c)

Fecal

d)

Cytology

103.

Parasite eggs are identified in a fecal flotation because they

a)

sink in a solution with a lower specific gravity

b)

They get stained a bright blue color.

c)

remain undissolved in the solution.

d)

float in a solution with a higher specific gravity.

104.

Physical, chemical and microscopic characteristics change most rapidly in what kind of sample?

a)

Blood

b)

Hair

c)

Urine

d)

Skin

105.

What is this?

(a)  

106.

What is this?

(a)  

107.

What is this?

(a)  

108.

What is this?

(a)  

109.

Which mite is naturally occurring but causes skin inflammation in patients with compromised or weakened immune systems?

a)

Scabies

b)

Budding yeast

c)

Ticks

d)

Demodex

110.

Which type of collection is used on ulcerative lesions?

a)
Blood sample collection
b)
Tissue biopsy collection
c)
Urine sample collection
d)

Impression smear

111.

Which method of collection contains the largest amount of contamination and is the least desirable method of collection.

a)

Voided/ table top collection

b)

Cystocentesis

c)

Catheter

112.

What measures the concentration of the urine?

a)
Color intensity
b)
Volume of urine
c)
Specific gravity or osmolality
d)
pH level
113.
Question Image

Match the parts of the microscope

a)

A

1.

Ocular lens

b)

D

2.

Course Focus

c)

M

3.

Light

d)

J

4.

Stage

e)

E

5.

Fine Focus

114.

Put these urine collection methods in order of most contaminated and therefore least desirable for urinalysis to least contaminated and most desirable for urinalysis.

a)

Table Top/ Voided

b)

Free Catch

c)

Catheter

d)

Cystocentesis

1)
2)
3)
4)
115.

You are about to perform a complete urinalysis on your patient. The lab form has four sections. What are they?

a)

Gross exam, Specific gravity, biochemical analysis, microscopic exam

b)

Color, foam, volume, clarity

c)

Color, smell, taste, feel

d)

Glucose, Nitrate, Nitrite, Ketones

116.

You notice a patient has dark orange icterus plasma. What should you do?

a)

Show the DVM immediately because the patient has increased bilirubin and we should run a liver test.

b)

Go ask the veterinary technician to redraw the sample, they used poor venipuncture technique and ruined the sample.

c)

Ask the pet owner if the patient was fasted before drawing the sample. The plasma has fatty material in it.

d)

Run the sample because it is ideal for the patient to have icterus plasma.

117.

You have a patient named Bella being hospitalized and you need to run some tests on her. The patient had her blood drawn and urine collected early in the morning at 7:00 by an experienced technician named Sarah Beth. Then at 9:30, the patient was fed. Then at 10:00 the patient had her urine collected and blood drawn again by Sarah. While the patient was having her blood drawn, a student named Sally Mills was watching and wanted to learn venipuncture, so Bella's blood was drawn again. You pull the patient's blood and urine from the fridge at 11:00am, which bag of tubes is going to give us the most accurate result?

a)

Purple, red and green top tube labeled 7:00am SB. The green top has been spun, and the plasma is a clear straw color.

b)

Purple, red and green top tube labeled 10:00am SB. The green top has been spun and the plasma has a milky color.

c)

Purple, red and green top tube labeled 10:20am SM. The green top has been spun and the plasma is red.

118.

What is cystocentesis?

a)

Collecting urine by manually expressing the bladder

b)

Inserting a needle into the bladder through the ventral abdominal wall

c)

Collecting urine from a vein

d)

Collecting urine using a catheter through the urethra

119.

For urine testing, we will strongly recommend this kind of collection because it is the most accurate.

a)

Free catch

b)

Urinalysis litter

c)

Tabletop

d)

Cystocentesis

120.

What is an endoparasite?

a)

A parasite that lives on the ear of its host

b)

A parasite that eats the skin of its host

c)

A parasite that lives inside the host

d)

A parasite that is living with its definitive host

121.

What ectoparasite can cause endoparasite tapeworms?

a)

Ticks

b)

Fleas

c)

Mites

d)

Mosquitos

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