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Mock First Professional Examination

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Wet preparation can be observed with these objectives.

a)

×4

b)

×10

c)

×40

d)

×100

e)

×400

2.

Immersion oil can be removed from objectives lens with.

a)

xylene

b)

methylated spirit

c)

soft cloth

d)

lens paper

e)

Glycerol

3.

----- specimen can be sent for bacteriological culture in an unsterile clean container.

a)

Blood

b)

Cerebrospinal fluid

c)

urine

d)

sputum

e)

stool

4.

Wet preparation is used to examine.

a)

specimens and cultures for motile bacteria

b)

specimens for cell type

c)

CSF for capsulated yeast cells

d)

stool samples for ova and parasites

e)

morphological arrangement of bacteria

5.

Examination of urine deposit reveal the presence of.

a)

calcium oxalate

b)

Red blood cells

c)

white blood cells

d)

spermatozoa

e)

kidney stones

6.

These are Gram negative organisms.

a)

Neisseria

b)

Staphylococci

c)

Streptococci

d)

Klebsiella

e)

Proteus

7.

Simple bacteriological stains includes.

a)

Crystal violet

b)

methylene blue

c)

carbol fuchsin

d)

copper sulphate

e)

Indian ink

8.

Ziehl Neelsen staining procedure for sputum AFB is.

a)

Carbol fuchsin, rinse, acid alcohol rinse, malachite green.

b)

Strong Carbol fuchsin with mild heating, rinse, 3% acid alcohol, rinse, malachite green

c)

Strong Carbol fuchsin with mild heating, rinse, 3% acid alcohol, rinse, methylene blue

d)

Strong Carbol fuchsin with mild heating, rinse, 10% acid alcohol, rinse, methylene blue

e)

Strong methylene blue with mild heating, rinse, 3% acid alcohol, rinse, Carbol fuchsin

9.

Preparation of chocolate agar media involve.

a)

use of 10% blood agar

b)

Heating blood agar mixture in water bath at 100°C until turn chocolate

c)

Heating blood agar mixture in a water bath at 70 - 80°C until turn chocolate

d)

use of 4% blood agar

e)

Heating blood agar mixture in autoclave until turn chocolate

10.

Choice media for urine culture are.

a)

Blood agar

b)

chocolate agar

c)

CLED agar

d)

nutrient agar

e)

Saboraud agar

11.

Choice media for stool culture are.

a)

CLED agar

b)

DCA

c)

Blood agar

d)

nutrient agar

e)

selenite F

12.

MacConkey agar is sterilised using.

a)

Sieze filter

b)

Autoclave

c)

Hot air oven

d)

Lysol

e)

Tyndalisation

13.

Escherichia coli is.

a)

motile

b)

urease positive

c)

citrate positive

d)

indole negative

e)

lactose fermenting

14.

Staphylococcus aureus is.

a)

motile

b)

Gram negative cocci

c)

catalase positive

d)

coagulase positive

e)

appears in chains

15.

Psuodomonas aeruginosa is.

a)

Gram negative bacilli

b)

motile

c)

oxidase positive

d)

strict aerobe

e)

a non-lactose fermenter

16.

Bacterial growth in blood culture is evidenced by.

a)

floccular growth on top of medium

b)

Haemolysis

c)

increased volume of broth

d)

Turbidity of the medium

e)

All of the above

17.

MacConkey agar can be use for the isolation of.

a)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b)

Streptococcus viridian

c)

Corynebacterium dipthera

d)

Mycobacterium bovis

e)

Proteus mirabilis

18.

Anaerobic cultivation is achieved using.

a)

Blood agar in CO2 jar

b)

Glucose deep agar

c)

iron stripe method

d)

Double plate method

e)

All of the above

19.

Vibio cholera is selectively grown on.

a)

50% Crystal violet blood agar

b)

manatol salt agar

c)

Thiosulphate citrate bile salt agar

d)

Alkaline peptone water

20.

----- organism is positive for oxidase test.

a)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b)

Streptococcus viridians

c)

Haemophilus influenza

d)

Mycobacterium bovis

e)

Proteus mirabilis

21.

Exposure to fume of formalin brings about this condition.

a)

conjunctivitis

b)

Nasal irritation

c)

Headache

d)

ill health

e)

Tonsillitis

22.

The application of 20% alcohol brings about the.

a)

spreading out of section

b)

Hely's bond

c)

proper fixation

d)

staining

e)

Good dehydration

23.

The stain used demonstrating epithelial cells in non-gynaecological samples includes.

a)

papanicolaou

b)

ziehl Neelsen

c)

Haematoxylin and eosin

d)

Romanowsky stain

e)

Verhoeff-vanGieson

24.

The following is a common sectioning tool in histopathology laboratory.

a)

Carmel hair brush

b)

Tissue processor

c)

Petri dish

d)

Couplin jar

e)

20% alcohol

25.

In honing the following movement is observed.

a)

Back of knife leads

b)

cutting lacet upwards

c)

oscillation

d)

Back of knife trails

e)

cutting facet leads

26.

In stropping the following movement is observed.

a)

Oscillation

b)

Back of knife leads

c)

Back of knife upwards

d)

cutting facet leads

e)

cutting facet frails

27.

The differentiation of section in Haematoxylin and eosin staining technique is enhanced by.

a)

water

b)

1% acid alcohol

c)

1% alcohol

d)

10% acid alcohol

e)

10% alcohol

28.

The temperature of water bath used for sectioning a tissue embedded in soft wax is.

a)

10-15°C

b)

40-45°C

c)

50-55°C

d)

60-65°C

e)

35-40°C

29.

Canada basalm is miscible with this solvent.

a)

Toulene

b)

Xylene

c)

DPX

d)

cedarwood oil

e)

liquid paraffin wax

30.

Sections are for microscopic examination at.

a)

3-5mm thickness

b)

3-5u thickness

c)

5-8mm thickness

d)

5-8u thickness

e)

4-6cm thickness

31.

Hydration of section during staining enhances the.

a)

uptake of stains

b)

uptake of cleaning agents

c)

uptake of alcohol

d)

uptake of cedar wood oil

e)

uptake of mountant

32.

In preparing 10% formol saline, the inclusion of this constituent is essential.

a)

sodium chloride

b)

potassium dichromate

c)

Alcohol

d)

potassium hydroxide

e)

Aluminum oxide

33.

This tool enables the attachment of tissue block to wooden block.

a)

molten wax

b)

the spatula

c)

Heat

d)

microtome

e)

mountant

34.

Honing of microtome knife could be done on.

a)

Belgian yellow stone

b)

leather sheep

c)

Indian yellow stone

d)

American granite stone

e)

Soweto yellow stone

35.

The decalcifying agent used for surface decalcification in embedded tissue is.

a)

10% hydrogen peroxide

b)

10% sulphuric acid

c)

mollifex solution

d)

concentrated ammonia

36.

The most common adhesive agent used in cytology is.

a)

Albumin

b)

yolk

c)

molten wax

d)

sodium chloride

e)

Alcohol

37.

Which of these materials is used in the collection of cervical smear.

a)

frosted end Slide

b)

cryostat

c)

facemask

d)

eosin solution

e)

Applicator stick

38.

Weigert Haematoxylin is used in one of the following ways.

a)

solution A and B are used immediately after preparation

b)

solution A and B are mixed shortly before use

c)

solution B is used first and then A later.

d)

solution A is never mixed with B

e)

solution A and B used as counter stains

39.

Testicular biopsy is usually preserved in.

a)

Mercury solution

b)

Ethanol

c)

formaldehyde

d)

potassium dichromate

e)

Bouin's fluid

40.

The staining time for Erlich Haematoxylin is.

a)

half of an hour

b)

15 mins

c)

three quarter of an hour

d)

1 hour

e)

Briefly

41.

Iodine preparation is used mainly to identify.

a)

segments of parasite

b)

Adult

c)

Cyst

d)

Larvae

e)

Schultner's dot

42.

Which of these parasites is found in a skin snip sample.

a)

Onchocerca vovulus

b)

Paragonimus westermani

c)

Leishmania

d)

Trypanosoma species

e)

Toxoplasma gondii

43.

In collecting specimen for parasitological investigation, the specimen container must possess the following qualities except.

a)

leak proof

b)

clean

c)

Dry

d)

Free from antiseptic and disinfectant

e)

Heparinized container

44.

r must possess the following qualities except.

a)

leak proof

b)

clean

c)

Dry

d)

Free from antiseptic and disinfectant

e)

Heparinized container

45.

The egg of one of these parasites has a terminal spine.

a)

Shistosoma haematobium

b)

Shistosoma japanicum

c)

Shistosoma mansoni

d)

Shistosoma makongi

46.

Which of these is one of the reagents used for formol ether concentration technique.

a)

iodine

b)

Diethyl ether

c)

Distilled water

d)

Dimethyl ether

e)

Diethyl alcohol

47.

One if these is a layer formed in formol ether concentration after centrifugation.

a)

Faecal debris

b)

water

c)

Diethyl and dissolved glucose

d)

Faecal Buffy

e)

Kupfer layer

48.

Which of these is not a non-parasitic structure found in faeces.

a)

Charcol leydon crystals

b)

Starch cell

c)

proglotides

d)

yeast

e)

spores

49.

The presence of ingested cells in the cytoplasm is a diagnosis feature for this parasite.

a)

Fasciola hepatica

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Tania species

d)

Shistosoma haematobium

e)

Shistosoma mansoni

50.

The type of blood film used for speciation of plasmodium is.

a)

Thick blood film

b)

thin blood film

c)

Blood smear

d)

whole blood

e)

Blood serum

51.

The major constituent of Giemsa stain is.

a)

azure and eosin

b)

Eosin and alcohol

c)

Eosin and methyl green

d)

Eosin and saffranin

e)

Eosin and water

52.

Malaria parasites in thick and thin blood film require staining pH.

a)

6.1-6.2

b)

7.1-7.2

c)

8.1-8.2

d)

5.1-5.2

e)

9-10

53.

Which of these objectives lenses is best employed for stained films.

a)

immersion oil lens

b)

×100

c)

×40

d)

×250

e)

×10

54.

This stage of Plasmodium can be found in blood film except.

a)

larvae

b)

Cyst

c)

Gametocytes

d)

merozoites

e)

Ova

55.

The microscopic examination of scanty parasites in a blood specimen is best processed using.

a)

centrifuged blood

b)

thin film

c)

wet preparation

d)

thick film

e)

serum smear

56.

The commonest cause for not finding parasites in patients with malaria is.

a)

malaria pigment

b)

Too few parasites in peripheral blood

c)

Effect of alcohol on red blood cells.

d)

Excess immersion oil

e)

Over differentiation

57.

The blood film made for malaria parasites investigation is dried on a hot plate for.

a)

60 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

10 minutes

e)

5 minutes

58.

The ova of Trichuris trichuira has a unique shape referred to as.

a)

Barrel

b)

mutoid

c)

Elliptical

d)

Spindle

e)

Oval

59.

The fertilised ovum of Ascaris lumbricoides has a characteristics pattern.

a)

Uneven albuminous coat

b)

Even albuminous coat

c)

Large cylindrical coat

d)

Bulbilous coat

e)

Yellowish coat

60.

The ovum of hookworm is referred to as.

a)

Round

b)

oval and segmented

c)

cylindrical and segmented

d)

Barrel and unsegmented

e)

Rod-like

61.

The shape of Entamoeba histolytica is.

a)

Regular

b)

Irregular

c)

Cylindrical

d)

Oval

e)

Spindle

62.

Which is true about the AUTO-CONTROL in ABO Blood grouping.

a)

It helps to detect anti-M antibodies

b)

It helps to detect anti-N

c)

It helps to detect auto- immune antibodies

d)

It helps to detect anti-A antibodies

63.

What is critical in the grouping of cord blood.

a)

Through washing of the red blood

b)

Warming of the red blood cells

c)

mixing of the red blood cells

d)

Spinning of the blood cells

e)

None of the above

64.

The positive control in direct comb's test is same as.

a)

Weakly sensitized A The D positive cells

b)

Weakly sensitized O Rh D positive cells

c)

Weakly sensitized B Rh D positive cells

d)

Weakly sensitized AB Rh D positive cells

e)

Strongly sensitized O Rh D positive cells

65.

Washing of cord blood ensures.

a)

Complete removal of Wharton's jelly

b)

To include Wharton's jelly

c)

To make use of the Wharton's jelly

d)

To prepare the cord cells for transportation

e)

None of the above

66.

The use of A2 cells in ABO Blood grouping helps to detect.

a)

potency of Anti-A sensitized plasma

b)

potency of Anti-A sensitized complement

c)

potency of sensitized antibodies

d)

potency of Anti-A

e)

potency of red cells coated with platelets

67.

What does indirect comb's test detect?

a)

IgM antibodies

b)

ABO and Rhesus antigen

c)

Anti-A and Anti-B

d)

incomplete IgG antibodies

e)

platelets coated antibodies

68.

The DCT can be used for.

a)

Compatibility testing

b)

Blood grouping

c)

Detecting sensitized red cells.

d)

Detecting Haemolysed red cells

e)

None of the above

69.

The ICT can be used for.

a)

Blood grouping

b)

Total red cell count

c)

Compatibility testing

d)

Total white cell count

e)

None of the above

70.

Which of these anticoagulant is used for blood donor collection?

a)

Acid citrate dextrose

b)

EDTA

c)

Heparin

d)

Flouride

e)

Non-heparinised containers

71.

Ante-natal screening and serology is to detect.

a)

Tissue antigen

b)

Tissue antibodies

c)

Immune antibodies in the system of pregnant women

d)

HLA antigens

e)

None of the above

72.

Compatibility testing is the same as.

a)

Cross-labelling of blood

b)

cross-tagging of units of blood

c)

screening of units of blood

d)

cross-matching of blood

e)

cross-tagging of donor and recipient blood

73.

Bovine albumin is used in cross matching to ensure.

a)

Better antigen and complement association

b)

More sensitive antigen- antibody reactions

c)

Plasma and protein association

d)

serum and hapten associations

e)

All of the above

74.

Red blood cells suspended in low ionic strength saline.

a)

React in same way as in normal saline

b)

React less than in normal saline

c)

React better than in normal saline

d)

Not react at all

e)

React as in (a) and (b) above

75.

Transfusion of platelet concentrate helps to.

a)

Correct anaemia

b)

Correct loss of platelets

c)

Correct loss of leucocytes

d)

Correct bleeding disorders

e)

Correct polycythemia

76.

Blood component transfusion means.

a)

Giving the part of blood that is most beneficial to the patient

b)

Giving whole blood

c)

Giving whole blood and plasma

d)

Giving whole blood and platelets

e)

None of the above

77.

The anticoagulant for coagulation studies is.

a)

Acid citrate dextrose

b)

sodium citrate

c)

calcium oxalate

d)

potassium Flouride

78.

Which is TRUE about IgM antibodies?

a)

They are incomplete antibodies

b)

They are complete antibodies

c)

They are correct antibodies

d)

They are incorrect antibodies

e)

They are cold reacting antibodies

79.

The Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) is a.

a)

Test for vascular integrity

b)

Test for infections only

c)

A non-specific test but helps in diagnosis of certain diseases

d)

Test for cancer only

e)

A specific test that helps in the diagnosis of certain diseases

80.

Which is true for IgM agglutinins.

a)

They react best at 37°C

b)

They react best at 27°C

c)

They react best at 4°C

d)

They react weakly at 2°C

e)

They react poorly at 6°C

81.

Blood collected in HEPARIN anticoagulant is not suitable for film staining because it will.

a)

Haemolyse the red cells

b)

It will stain the background of the slide and render vision blur

c)

It will Haemolyse the white cell and make the vision difficult

d)

It will haemolyse the platelet and render vision difficult

e)

It will stain the background of the slide and render vision easy

82.

Blood substitutes are not.

a)

Artificial blood surrogates

b)

Used to mimic the functions of biological blood

c)

Oxygen carriers

d)

Perfluorocarbons

e)

Biological blood components

83.

Patients with low PCV and haemoglobin levels will be transfused with.

a)

packed red cells (PRBC)

b)

Platelet concentrate (PLTC)

c)

Leucocyte concentra

84.

Patients with low PCV and haemoglobin levels will be transfused with

a)

packed red cells (PRBC)

b)

Platelet concentrate (PLTC)

c)

Leucocyte concentrate

d)

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

e)

only b and c above

85.

The microhaematocrit centrifuge is programmed to function at

a)

5000rpm for 5 minutes

b)

10,000rpm for 5 minutes

c)

20,000rpm for 10 minutes

d)

30,000rpm for 10 minutes

e)

All of the above

86.

The Neubauer counting chamber is used for:

a)

Counting money

b)

Counting test tubes

c)

Counting sample bottles

d)

Cell enumeration

e)

Assisting the ATM machine

87.

The westergren pippette is used for

a)

Measurement of red blood cells only

b)

measurement of white blood cells only

c)

Measurement of platelets and red blood cells

d)

ESR estimation

e)

ESR estimation and PCV

88.

Red cell antigens are found:

a)

On the red cell membrane

b)

On the white cell coat

c)

in the Platelet matrix

d)

Inside the red blood cell matrix

e)

All of the above

89.

The differentiatial white cell count entails;

a)

Enumerating the percentage of each white blood cell types

b)

Enumerating the percentage of plasma

c)

Enumerating the percentage of red blood cells

d)

Reporting on the red cells only

e)

None of the above

90.

Increased intracellular levels of 2,3 DPG causes

a)

Accident to the tissue

b)

Shift to the right of the haemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve

c)

Shift to left of the haemoglobin dissociation curve

d)

increased in partial pressure of oxygen

e)

All of the above

91.

Decreased intracellular levels of 2,3 DPG causes

a)

Shift to the bottom of the curve

b)

Shift to the left of the curve

c)

No shift at all.

d)

Shift above

e)

All of the above

92.

Anti-AB is usually included in routine cell grouping for

a)

Quality control

b)

detection of subgroups of A

c)

function at all

d)

Detection of Haemolysis

e)

Check forward grouping

93.

Haemolysin can best be detected at

a)

Room temperature

b)

37°C

c)

56°C

d)

Forward grouping

e)

Cold temperature

94.

Window period refers to

a)

Sweating in the night when the windows are closed

b)

A time when the windows are opened and one catches cold in the night

c)

A time between contacting an infection and the appearance of detectable antibodies

d)

A time when a patient is tested positive for HIV

e)

A time when antibodies begin to appear in serum

95.

The recommended anticoagulant or preservatives for blood bank is

a)

Acid citrate dextrose

b)

citrate phosphate dextrose

c)

Citrate phosphate dextrose adenine

d)

Heparin

e)

EDTA

96.

What volume of CPDA is in a blood bag

a)

63ml

b)

450ml

c)

250ml

d)

0.5ml

e)

100ml

97.

A blood group O individual has what antigen?

a)

No antigens

b)

Antigen A and B

c)

Antigen A only

d)

Antigen B only

e)

Antigen H only

98.

What is the difference between DCT and ICT

a)

DCT is used to detect red cell antibodies invivo

b)

DCT is used to detect irregular antibodies in serum

c)

ICT is used to detect red cells sensitized invivo

d)

ICT is used to detect irregular antibodies in serum

e)

No difference between DCT and ICT

99.

In the HB genotype test, water is used to

a)

wash the red blood cells

b)

Preserve the red blood cells

c)

Dilute the red cell suspension if too thick

d)

Haemolyse the red blood cells

e)

To release haemoglobin

100.

Ammonium oxalate solution is used for counting of

a)

white blood cells

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Reticulocytes

d)

Sickle cells

e)

Platelets

101.

Too small an amount of anticoagulant to red cells can lead to

a)

Clot formation

b)

Haemolysis

c)

Agglutination

d)

Precipitation

e)

Atypical reaction

102.

Staining of Reticulocytes is known as

a)

Supravital staining

b)

Cytochemical staining

c)

Differential staining

d)

Preferential staining

e)

Gram staining

103.

Ketonuria is detected in urine by

a)

Gilbert's test

b)

Rotheras test

c)

Sodium nitroprusside test

d)

Glucose oxidase test

e)

Benedict's test

104.

The following anticoagulant can be used to collect blood sample for glucose estimation

a)

Heparin

b)

EDTA

c)

Sodium/potassium oxidate

d)

Flouride oxalate

e)

Sodium citrate

105.

The clinical chemistry laboratory is required to have

a)

Safety showers

b)

eyewash station

c)

fires

d)

Dressing room

e)

Hazards

106.

The biosafety level of a laboratory is based on the

a)

Operations performed

b)

Routes of transmission of infectious agents

c)

Laboratory function or activity

d)

Some of the above

e)

None of the above

107.

The part(s) of the body most frequently subject to injury in the clinical laboratory is/ are

a)

Eyes

b)

Skin

c)

Mouth

d)

Digestive tract

e)

Respiratory tract

108.

In chloride estimation, the following reagents are applicable

a)

Silver nitrate

b)

Ammonia

c)

4-amino antipyrine

d)

Potassium iodide

e)

Acid bond

109.

Consider the following about fire/ fire extinguishers

a)

Halon for class C

b)

Carbon (iv) oxide for class B

c)

Carbon (iv) oxide for C

d)

Pressurised water for class D

e)

Dry chemicals for class A only

110.

Consider the following about micropipette volume (micro litter) and colour

a)

0.1-2.5/ blue

b)

2.0-20/red

c)

10-100/grey

d)

50-200/ yellow

e)

500-2500/red

111.

About incubators

a)

Calibration is necessary

b)

Very operational temperature

c)

use them in the presence of combustible materials

d)

personal protective materials are needed

e)

They work by heat transfer

112.

About spectrophotometers, spectrum range of wavelength include

a)

Ultraviolet is 10-200nm

b)

Near ultraviolet is 0-100nm

c)

Visible light is 38-780nm

d)

Near infrared is 780-3000nm

e)

Tar infrared is 30,000-300,000

113.

Atomic absorption spectrophotometer is used to estimate the following

a)

Bicarbonate

b)

lead

c)

magnesium

d)

potassium

e)

Chloride

114.

In Glucose estimation in blood the following can be used to read the absorbance

a)

Colorimeter

b)

Spectrophotometer

c)

Flourometer

d)

Nephelometer

e)

Lovibond

115.

Flame photometer is used to estimate the following

a)

Chloride

b)

Lithium

c)

Sodium

d)

magnesium

e)

Aluminum

116.

The following are parameters used to evaluate the functions of the liver

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Gamma glutamyl transferase

c)

Alanine amino transferase

d)

5' Nucleotidase

e)

Acid phosphate

117.

Glucosuria can occur in

a)

A patient with glucose level greater than 10mmol/l

b)

A patient with glucose immediately greater than 7.0mm/l

c)

A patient with normal renal threshold

d)

A patient with reduced renal threshold

e)

A patient with raised renal threshold

118.

The following are laboratory glassware

a)

Eriemeyer flask

b)

Griffin flask

c)

Filtering flask

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

119.

Common disiccants include

a)

Magnesium perchlorate

b)

Barium chloride

c)

Alumina

d)

phosphorus pentoxide

e)

Calcium sulphate

120.

About arterial blood samples

a)

Blood gases can be measured

b)

pH cannot be measured

c)

Syringe are used instead of evacuated tubes

d)

Partial pressure cannot be measured

e)

None of the above

121.

Analytical testing of blood involves the use of

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Whole blood

c)

White blood cells

d)

Plasma

e)

Platelet

122.

The following anticoagulants are used in clinical chemistry laboratory

a)

Sodium Heparin

b)

Lithium Heparin

c)

Ammonium Heparin

d)

Iodoacetate

e)

All of the above is true

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