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Social Science Final Exam

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who said this - Democracy is a Government of the people, by the people and for the people?

(a)  

2.

Which are features of Democracy?

a)

Democracy is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people.

b)

Elections offer a choice and fair opportunity to the people to change the current rulers

c)

The choice and opportunity is available to all the people on an equal basis

d)

All the above

3.

Myanmar has the rule of

(a)  

4.

In Pakistan, General Pervez Musharraf led a military coup.....

a)

October 1999

b)

October 1998

c)

September 2002

d)

December 2002

5.

General Musharraf issued a ‘Legal Framework Order’ that amended the Constitution of Pakistan.

a)

October 2002

b)

August 2002

c)

August 1999

d)

October 2002

6.

In China, elections are regularly held after (a)  

7.

Chinese parliament, called Quanguo Renmin Daibiao Dahui (National People’s Congress) has the power to appoint the President of the country. It has nearly 3,000 members elected from all over China. Some members are elected by (a)  

8.

The party which has the control of China is (a)  

9.

Mexico holds elections after (a)   to elect its President.

10.

In Mexico, until 2000 every election was won by party called (a)  

11.

In Saudi Arabia women did not have the right to vote till (a)  

12.

In Fiji, the electoral system is such that the (a)  

13.

Zimbabwe attained independence from White minority rule in (a)  

14.

ZANU-PF, the party that led the freedom struggle,Its leader was (a)  

15.

In Zimbabwe (a)   party ruled till 2017

16.

Give one argument against democracy? Your opinion

4 lines
17.

Give one argument for supporting democracy?

4 lines
18.

In your opinion is Democracy the way to rule the country.

a)

yes

b)

no

19.

There were (a)   members in the Constituent Assembly.

20.

Which of the following does the constitution do?

a)

It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kind of people to live together.

b)

It specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have power to take which decisions.

c)

It lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the rights of the citizens are.

d)

It expresses the aspirations of the people about creating a good society.

e)

All of the above

21.

In which year government of India act was adopted?

a)

1937

b)

1936

c)

1935

d)

1938

22.

While making the constitution our leaders were inspired by which of the following countries?

a)

The practice of parliamentary democracy in Britain

b)

Bill of Rights in the US

c)

Socialist revolution in Russia

d)

All of them

23.

Are all the countries having constitution,democratic?

a)
b)
24.

Which national leader first tried to draft a Constitution for India?

a)

Jawaharlal Nehru

b)

Motilal Nehru

c)

Mahatma Gandhi

d)

BR Ambedkar

25.

The Constituent Assembly represented to Whom?

a)

Indian National Congress

b)

Muslim League

c)

The People of India

d)

Princely States

26.

Young India was a

a)

Political party

b)

Extremist group

c)

Magazine

d)

Moderate group

27.

An introductory statement in a constitution which states the reasons and guiding values of the constitution is (a)   .

28.

The Assembly was dominated by the (a)   , the party that led India’s freedom struggle.

29.

Constituent Assembly met for how many days?

(a)  

30.

The Constitution of India is:

a)

a) flexible

b)

(b) rigid

c)

(c) partly flexible and partly rigid

d)

(d) none of these

31.

India is a secular state because:-

a)

(а) there is no state religion

b)

(b) every citizen has the right to adopt and practice any religion

c)

(c) no discrimination can be made among citizens on the basis of religion

d)

d) all of the above

32.

How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution ?

a)

9

b)

10

c)

11

d)

12

33.

Which country has the world's longest written constitution ?

a)

Russia

b)

India

c)

USA

d)

France

34.

Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?

a)

India has the largest number of voters

b)

India’s Election Commission is very powerful

c)

In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote

d)

In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict

35.

The number of Lok Sabha Constituencies in India at present is:

a)

541

b)

546

c)

543

d)

540

36.

The voter’s list is also known as:

a)

Election

b)

Voter Identity Card

c)

Electoral Roll

d)

None of these

37.

Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?

a)

Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections

b)

Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over

c)

The Right to Vote should be given to selected people only

d)

Elections should be in a free and fair manner

38.

The number of seats reserved for scheduled caste in Lok Sabha is:

a)

59

b)

79

c)

89

d)

99

39.

Which one of the following provisions fails to ensure fair and equal chance to compete to candidates and political parties?

a)

No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters

b)

No party or candidate is bound by the model code of conduct

c)

No party or candidate can use government resources for election campaign

d)

Nobody can appeal to the voters in the name of caste or religion

40.

Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?

a)

Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government

b)

People select the representative of their choice in an election

c)

Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of judiciary

d)

People can indicate which policies they prefer

41.

Which of the following does not include election procedure?

a)

Voting

b)

Nomination of Candidate

c)

Booth capturing

d)

Canvassing

42.

Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out an election campaign?

a)

Giving money to voters to cast vote for particular candidate

b)

Using television channels.

c)

Door-to-door canvassing.

d)

Contacting voters on phone.

43.

Is it good to have Political Competition? Which of the following statements justify this?

a)

It creates a sense of disunity and factionalism

b)

Political Competition helps to force political parties and leaders to serve people

c)

It gives fair chance to people for the responsible government

d)

Political Competitions causes some decisions and ugliness

44.

Which of the following is not a feature of Election system in India?

a)

Universal Adult Franchise

b)

Secret Voting

c)

Reservation of seats in the legislature for the members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

d)

Communal Electorate

45.

Elections in India for Parliament and State Legislatures are conducted by

a)

President

b)

Prime Minister

c)

Governor

d)

Election Commission of India

46.

In Democracy Elections are important because

a)

The formation of government becomes easy

b)

They help in the formation of opposition party

c)

They are a check on the working of the government

d)

All of the them

47.

Following is a weakness (challenge to) Indian election system:

a)

Secret Ballot

b)

Use of Electronic Voting Machines

c)

Misuse of Official Machinery

d)

Universal Adult Franchise

48.

Which of the following statements regarding elections and election commission hold true?

a)

Election Commission of India has enough powers to conduct free and fair elections in the country.

b)

There is a high level of popular participation in the elections in our country.

c)

It is very easy for the party in power to win an election.

d)

Many reforms are needed to make our elections completely free and fair.

49.

The tropic of Cancer does not pass through -

a)

Rajasthan

b)

Chhattisgarh

c)

Odisha

d)

Tripura

50.

The easternmost longitude of India is -

a)

97°25' E

b)

77°6' E

c)

68°7'E

d)

82°32'E

51.

Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with....

a)

China

b)

Nepal

c)

Bhutan

d)

Myanmar

52.

If you intend to visit Navaratri during summer vacations, which one of the following union territories of India you will be going to?

a)

Puducherry

b)

Lakashadweep

c)

Andaman and Nicobar

d)

Diu and Daman

53.

My friend hails from a country which does not share its land boundary with India. Identify the country -

a)

Bhutan

b)

Tajikistan

c)

Bangladesh

d)

Nepal

54.

Which is the largest country (area wise) in the world?

a)

Russia

b)

Canada

c)

India

d)

USA

55.

Which ocean will have to be crossed while going from Sri Lanka to Africa

a)

Pacific Ocean

b)

Atlantic Ocean

c)

Indian Ocean

d)

None of these

56.

Which of the following divides India into two equal parts?

a)

The Tropic of Cancer

b)

Prime meridian

c)

Standard Meridian

d)

None of these

57.

A landmass surrounded by water on three sides is called a.............

a)

Mountain

b)

Plateau

c)

Islands

d)

Peninsula

58.

What is the length of the land boundary of India?

a)

17200 KM

b)

16200 KM

c)

15200 KM

d)

14200 KM

59.

When did the Suez Canal open for international Trade?

a)

In 1769

b)

In 1947

c)

In 1853

d)

In 1869

60.

Name the Strait which separates India from Sri Lanka.

a)

The Yamuna Strait

b)

The Desert Strait

c)

The Malwa Strait

d)

The Palk Strait

61.

Which longitude is taken as the Standard Meridian of India

a)

94°7' E

b)

80°39' E

c)

82°30' E

d)

92°25'E

62.

Read carefully after that Identify the incorrect characteristics features of India.

a)

India lies in the northern hemisphere

b)

The tropic of Cancer divides the country into almost two equal parts.

c)

India is the six largest country of the word

d)

India has India has an important strategic position in South Asia

63.

An imaginary semi- circular line, joining the North Pole and the South Pole, that passes over the Greenwich observatory near London. Called.............

a)

Tropic of Capricorn

b)

Tropic of Cancer

c)

Semi Meridian

d)

Prime Meridian

64.

A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _.

a)

coast

b)

island

c)

peninsula

d)

None of the above

65.

The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent. Which of the following is the name of the northern-most range?

a)

The Himadri

b)

The Himachal

c)

The Shivaliks

d)

The Purvanchal

66.

Which part of the Himalayas is perennially snowbound?

a)

Great Himalayas or Himadri

b)

Lesser Himalayas or Himachal

c)

Shivaliks

d)

Purvanchal

67.

Which of the following is the highest peak in India?

a)

Mt. Everest

b)

Kanchenjunga

c)

Nanga Parbat

d)

Nandadevi

68.

Which of the following ranges is not a part of the Lesser Himalayavs or Himachal?

a)

Pir Panchal

b)

Dhaula Dhar

c)

Mahabharat

d)

Kamet

69.

Which of the following ranges of the Himalayas are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by

rivers?

a)

(a) The Pir Panjal range

b)

The Karakoram range

c)

The Shivaliks

d)

The Ladakh range

70.

Which of the following ranges are not part of the Lesser Himalayas or Himachal?

a)

(a) Pir Panjal

b)

Dhauala Dhar

c)

Mahabharat

d)

Kamet

71.

In which division of the Himalayas are the famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu located?

a)

The Himadri

b)

The Himachal

c)

The shivaliks

d)

The Duns

72.

The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks are known as .

a)

Kangra Valley

b)

Patkai Bum

c)

Passes

d)

Duns

73.

From the point of view of geology, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is considered to be an

unstable zone?

a)

The Himalayas

b)

The Northern plain

c)

Peninsular plateau

d)

The great Deserts

74.

What do you mean by weather?

a)

Envelope of air surrounding the earth

b)

State of the atmosphere at any point of time

c)

Generalized monthly atmospheric conditions

d)

None of these

75.

Which of the following is an element of weather and climate ?

a)

Temperature

b)

Humidity

c)

Atmospheric Pressure

d)

All of these

76.

Which of these prevents the south-west monsoon from escaping from India?

a)

The Indian Deserts

b)

The Himalayas

c)

Low Pressure Over Central India

d)

None of These

77.

Which winds bring widespread rainfall over the mainland of India?

a)

Sea breeze

b)

Land breeze

c)

North easterlies

d)

South West monsoon

78.

Which one of the following places have cooler climate even in summers?

a)

Surat

b)

Jaisalmer

c)

Mussoorie

d)

None of these

79.

What does the word monsoon literally mean ?

a)

Season

b)

Wind Pattern

c)

Change

d)

None of these

80.

Which is the coldest place in India ?

a)

Shillong

b)

Srinagar

c)

Drass

d)

Shimla

81.

Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?

a)

Silchar

b)

Mawsynram

c)

Cherrapunji

d)

Guwahati

82.
What is climate?
a)
What's happening in space at a time and place.
b)
What's happening in our atmosphere at a time and place
c)
The average weather over many years
d)
The average temperature over many years.
83.

Which of the following states suffer from loo ?

a)

Tamil Nadu

b)

Uttar Pradesh

c)

Gujarat

d)

None of these

84.

__________________ is the fast flowing cold air current in a narrow zone in the upper atmosphere.

a)

Loo

b)

Mango showers

c)

Kaal Baisakhi

d)

Jet Streams

85.

In which months is the season of rainfall experienced in India ?

a)

January to March

b)

April to May

c)

June to September

d)

October to December

86.

What are the two main factors that determine the climate of an area?

a)

precipitation and humidity

b)

temperature and air pressure

c)

wind conditions and humidity

d)

temperature and precipitation

87.

The ____________ of any area depend on the latitude and altitude of the place

a)

Distance from the sea

b)

Ocean currents

c)

The pressure and wind system

88.

Areas which experience less contrasts in temperature conditions are___

a)

Inland areas

b)

Coastal areas

89.

Towards close of summer season , pre-monsoon showers which occur in kerala and karnataka are called

(a)  

90.

which of following is a climatic factor ?

a)

altitude

b)

latitude

c)

precipitation

d)

oxygen content

e)

soil nutrients

91.

which types of seasons do we experience in india ?

a)

advancing monsoon

b)

the hot weather season

c)

retreating monsoon

d)

all of the above

92.

total amount of rainfall in winter is known as

a)

rain map

b)

mahawat

93.

________has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.

a)

India

b)

Brazil

c)

Pakistan

94.

The evergreen forests in Brazil are known as______

a)

Lungs of the world

b)

Nose of the world

c)

Hands of the world

95.

True/ False

A greater diversity in wildlife is found in India than any other country in the world

a)

True

b)

False

96.

The Wildlife Protection was in

a)

1972

b)

1978

c)

1989

d)

1971

97.

Identify the animal

a)

Duck

b)

Hen

c)

Dodo

d)

None of the above

98.

Various awareness programs for conservation of Natural Vegetation

a)

Van Mahotsav

b)

Wild life week

c)

Social Forestry

d)

All of the above

99.

A large areas where vegetation, wildlife and environment are conserved to preserve the biological diversity

a)

Wildlife sanctuary

b)

Biosphere Reserve

c)

National Park

d)

All of the above

100.

The place where both natural vegetation and wildlife both are preserved

a)

Wildlife sanctuary

b)

National Park

c)

Biosphere reserve Park

d)

Bird Sanctuary

101.

Ranthambore Tiger Reserve is in

a)

Harayana

b)

Tamil Nadu

c)

Assam

d)

Rajasthan

102.

Which of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to ?

a)

Tundra

b)

Tidal

c)

Himalayan

d)

Tropical Rain forests

103.

Trees in a Thorn Forest are..

a)

Tall

b)

Dense

c)

Scattered

d)

None of these

104.

Which of the following terms is used to denote animal species of a particular region or period?

a)

Ferm

b)

Flora

c)

Fauna

d)

None of these

105.

Thorny shrubs and scrubs grow in area of

a)

Heavy rainfall

b)

Low rainfall

c)

Moderate rainfall

d)

None of the above

106.

Tropical deciduous forest is also known as ___________.

a)

coniferous

b)

equatorial forest

c)

temperate

d)

monsoon forest

107.

Trees of the Tropical Deciduous Forests shed their leaves in:

a)

Winter

b)

Summer

c)

Monsoon

d)

Autumn

108.
Alpine and Tundra vegetation is found at the height of:
a)
6000 metres
b)
9000 metres
c)
4500 metres
d)
4000 metres
109.
Ebony, mahogany and rosewood trees are grown in which type of the forests?
a)
Coniferous forest
b)
Tropical rainforest
c)
Tropical thorn forest
d)
None of these
110.

Mountain forests are also called ----------------- forests.

a)

Mangrove

b)

thorny forests

c)

Evergreen

d)

Montane

111.

Tropical Deciduous Forests shed their leaves for —

a)

9 — 10 weeks

b)

7 – 8 weeks

c)

6 – 8 weeks

d)

2 – 4 weeks

112.

One important variety of coniferous forests is:

a)

Rosewood

b)

Pine

c)

Teak

d)

Neem

113.

The size of the human population began to increase exponentially after the

a)

bubonic plague

b)

development of plowing and irrigation

c)

Industrial Revolution

d)

development of the first cities.

114.

Which of the following is NOT a potential limiting factor of human population growth?

famine medicine war disease

a)

disease

b)

war

c)

medicine

d)

famine

115.

After the demographic transition is complete, a population

grows rapidly. grows slowly. begins a period of rapid decline. stays about the same size as time passes.

a)

grows rapidly

b)

grows slowly

c)

begins a period of rapid decline

d)

stays about the same size as time passes.

116.

Since the mid-1960s, the average annual growth rate of the human population has

remained about the same. failed to show a consistent pattern. increased. decreased.

a)

remained about the same

b)

failed to show a consistent pattern.

c)

increased

d)

decreased

117.

Name the type of pyramid in the picture.

a)

slow growth

b)

rapid growth

c)

zero growth

d)

negative growth

118.
Why has the world population dramatically increased?
a)
Better medicine
b)
Better sanitation
c)
Better technology
d)
All of the above
119.
Number of Individuals per unit area
a)
density-dependent factors
b)
carrying capacity
c)
renewable resource
d)
population density
120.
What type of growth is shown in the diagram?
a)
exponential growth
b)
logistic growth 
c)
predator-prey cycle
d)
boom-bust curve
121.
Demography is the scientific study of
a)
parasitism and disease.
b)
modernized countries.
c)
human populations.
d)
none of these
122.
Demographic transition is change from high birthrates and high death rates to
a)
exponential growth.
b)
low birthrates and low death rates.
c)
low birthrates and high death rates.
d)
indefinite growth.
123.
In Rwanda, there are more young children than teenagers, and more teenagers than adults. This age structure indicates a population that
a)
has stopped growing.
b)
will double in 30 years.
c)
has a steady growth rate.
d)
will decrease in 30 years.
124.
Most of the worldwide human population is growing exponentially because
a)
human populations have not reached their exponential curve.
b)
most countries have not yet completed the demographic transition.
c)
human populations do not conform to the logistic model.
d)
the food supply is limitless.
125.
What three factors can affect ANY population's growth rate?
a)
Birthrate, death rate, migration
b)
disease, predation, migration
c)
medicine, agriculture, industry
d)
life expectancy, sanitation, vaccines
126.
Which of the following would most likely occur if a population exceeded the carry capacity of the environment?
a)
The birth rate would likely increase.
b)
Birth rate would be equal to the death rate.
c)
The death rate would increase.
d)
Immigration would increase.
127.
The percentages of individuals found at different age levels make up the ______ of the population.
a)
carrying capacity
b)
age structure
c)
survivorship
d)
birthrate
128.

Who gave the name 'India' ?

a)

Iranians

b)

Greeks

c)

Iranians and Greeks

129.

AD stands for two Latin words

a)

After Christ

b)

Before Present

c)

Before Christ

d)

Anno Domini

130.

Why hunter-gatherers moved from place to place ?

a)

search of food

b)

animals moved from place to place

c)

different seasons

d)

All of the above

131.

Inscriptions are written on hard surfaces.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

Bones of animals,birds and fish comes under which source?

a)

Manuscripts

b)

Archaeological

c)

Inscriptions

133.

Red fort in (a)  

134.

A place where historical records are kept.

(a)  

135.

THE MEDIEVAL PERIOD OF INDIAN HISTORY WAS STARTED WITH THE DEATH OF

a)

ALBERUNI

b)

HARSHA

c)

HARASHA

d)

AKBHAR

136.

AFTER BREAKUP OF HARSHA'S EMPIRE MANY KINGDOMS WERE INVOLVED IN FREQUENT BATTLE WITH EACH OTHER __________________ TOOK ADVANTAGE.

a)

TRIBES FROM CENTRAL ASIA

b)

TRIBES FROM NORTHERN ASIA

c)

TRIBES FROM SOUTHERN AISA

d)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

137.

_____________ inscription often record land granted to the rich to temple.

a)

Aluminum plate

b)

Gold plate

c)

Silver plate

d)

Copper plate

138.

Qutub minar is best example of ________________ in India.

a)

Islamic architecture

b)

European architecture

c)

Persian architecture

d)

Asian architecture

139.

The land of Bharata

a)

Bharatvarsha

b)

Bharatvarsh

c)

Bharatmahan

d)

Mera Bharat Mahan

140.

Marcopolo was a ___________________ traveller

a)

Persion

b)

Italian

c)

Japense

d)

Chinese

141.

The scholars who study the past

a)

Detectives

b)

Historians

c)

Preachers

142.

In which part historians have divided Indian history?

a)

Medieval, Modern, Colonial

b)

Ancient, Medieval, Colonial

c)

Ancient, Medieval, Modern

d)

None of these

143.

Bastar people believe each village was given land by

a)

The British

b)

The Gods

c)

The Earth

d)

The Chief

144.

Which of the following is a new development in forestry?

a)

Conservation of forests

b)

Collecting timber

c)

Scientific forestry

d)

Keeping communities away from forests

145.

Which among the following is the main reason for survival of some dense forests in India?

a)

Conservationists

b)

Environmentalists

c)

Scientific forestry

d)

Villages protected them as sacred grooves

146.

Sacred grooves are known as

a)

sarnas, kan, rai, devarakudu

b)

dhya, penda, bewar

c)

nevad, jhum, podu

d)

siadi, semur, Chena tavi,

147.

The scorched earth policy was followed by

a)

Japanese in Java

b)

British in India

c)

French in Vietnam

d)

Dutch in Java

148.

The system of blandongdiensten implies

a)

Forced villagers to cut trees as per the new forest laws

b)

Exempting villagers from rent if they worked collectively to provide free labour and buffalos for cutting and transporting timber

149.

Which of the following categories of forests is considered as the best on the basis of their utility?

a)

Reserved forests

b)

Protected forests

c)

Village forests

d)

Community forests

150.

Which of the following trees were promoted for building ships or railways?

a)

Firs and Pines

b)

Bushes and creepers

c)

Teak and Sal

d)

Shisham and Acacia