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CCST Review Questions

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

__________________________ describe anything connected to a network

a)

Hosts

b)

Devices

c)

Nodes

d)

Terminals

2.

What is an alternative name that references a port address?

a)

Layer 2 address

b)

Socket

c)

MAC address

d)

Datagram

3.

A __________ is data encapsulated with the information needed to move from application to application.

a)

segment

b)

packet

c)

frame

d)

fragment

4.

Which options are alternative terms for a logical interface address?


a)

MAC address

b)

Physical address

c)

Host address

d)

Layer 3 address

5.

When a company or country specifies rules, guidelines, or conventions that dictate communication, interaction, or behavior, it is referred to as a __________.

a)

guidance

b)

procedure

c)

protocol

d)

standard

6.

How many bits make up the IPv6 address?


a)

128

b)

32

c)

48

d)

64

7.

Initially, IPv4 addresses were divided using addressing classes; this was replaced in 1993 by __________.


a)

VLSM

b)

DRAA

c)

CIDR

d)

SLAAC

8.

Of the four groups with different topological reaches, which one includes a default route for a network?


a)

Within this segment or broadcast domain

b)

On this network

c)

Out there “somewhere”

d)

On another network

9.

How many bits are used for a MAC address assigned to a physical interface?


a)

32

b)

128

c)

64

d)

48

10.

Of the many interface address protocols used on modern networks, which are in use every day?


a)

IPv4

b)

IPX

c)

IPv10

d)

IPv6

11.

What are some advantages of using a protocol for address assignment versus computing an address?


a)

Support for DNS

b)

Logging and address mapping

c)

Support for DHCP

d)

Default gateway creation

12.

When a device wants to send traffic to another device on a separate segment or broadcast domain, what destination physical address would it put into the frame before forwarding it?


a)

Remote router’s physical interface address

b)

Destination hosts physical interface address

c)

Source hosts physical interface address

d)


Local router’s physical interface address

13.

Which message type is used by a host when attempting to compute a global IPv6 address for an interface?


a)

RD

b)

ND

c)

RS

d)

CDP

14.

What table is used by a router to determine where a packet should be forwarded?

a)

Routing table

b)

Learning table

c)

Switching table

d)

ARP table

15.

What is another term used to reference the routing table?


a)

RIB

b)

SRB

c)

BRB

d)

PIM

16.

What is another term used to reference the routing table?

a)

addr renew

b)

ip renew

c)

ipconfig /renew

d)

ipconfig /refresh

17.

Which IP header field is used by the traceroute utility to help determine the path a packet takes?

a)

Checksum

b)

DSCP

c)

Identification

d)

TTL

18.

Which CLI utilities are commonly used to verify the connectivity of a networked device?

a)

ping

b)

echo

c)

pathtrace

d)

traceroute

19.

Which Microsoft Windows PowerShell command is used to display information about the physical network interface?


a)

ifconfig

b)

getmac

c)

netinfo

d)

macinfo

20.

Which Microsoft Windows PowerShell command displays the local host routing table?

a)

Display-Routing Table

b)

addr route show

c)

Get-NetRoute

d)

ipconfig /route

21.

Host operating systems can be roughly split into two parts, including ________ and __________.


a)

user space

b)

core

c)

system space

d)

kernel

22.

A __________ is any device designed to monitor and control real-world systems.


a)

thing

b)

device

c)

node

d)

piece

23.

Which two operating systems dominate the current mobile market?

a)

Windows

b)

iOS

c)

Android

d)

Fire OS

24.

Which networking device is also called an intelligent reverse proxy?

a)

Firewall

b)

Load balancer

c)

Router

d)

IDS

25.

Which device type can scan for malware, data exfiltration, and/or evidence of network attack?

a)

Firewall

b)

Antivirus

c)

Router

d)

IDS

26.

Which layers of the OSI model are generally grouped and handled by single protocols?

a)

Application/Presentation

b)

Network/Data link

c)

Presentation/Session

d)

Session/Transport

27.

Which layer of the OSI model is related to physical addresses and switching protocols?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

2

28.

Which layer of the OSI model is most often used to control end-to-end quality of service?

a)

Application

b)

Data link

c)

Presentation

d)

Network

29.

Which layer of the OSI model is related to protocols like TCP and UDP?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

30.

In a fiber-optic cable’s light, color is measured by its __________.

a)

diameter

b)

wavelength

c)

radius

d)

mean

31.

Which fiber-optic technology allows a single cable to carry multiple signals?

a)

CSA

b)

PDM

c)

FDM

d)

WDM

32.

What is the method used by wired Ethernet to avoid potential collisions?


a)

CSMA/CA

b)

ALOHA

c)

CSMA/CD

d)

MRTS

33.

What is the term that refers to the maximum size that a packet can be for a specific link?

a)

MTU

b)

SLI

c)

PDU

d)

SPF

34.

What are the two different types of common pluggable interface?

a)

RGB

b)

LRF

c)

GBIC

d)

SFP

35.

What are some of the devices that can cause interference with a device's Wi-Fi signal?

a)

Single-mode cables

b)

Fluorescent lights

c)

Electrical wires

d)

Fiber-optic

36.

__________ is often used to denote the maximum data-carrying capacity of a link.

a)

Spectrum

b)

Bandwidth

c)

Throughput

d)

Maxput

37.

Which material allows only about 20% of a Wi-Fi signal through?

a)

Brick

b)

Drywall

c)

Metal

d)

Window glass

38.

What is the name of a device that bridges between Wi-Fi and wired networks?

a)

Switch

b)

Repeater

c)

AP

d)

Router

39.

__________ works by combining the signal from two or more different antennas.

a)

Wave bending

b)

Beam forming

c)

Frequency aiming

d)

Attenuating wave

40.

When the amount of data that comes into a device is faster than is permitted by the output interface, a(n) __________ is used.

a)

output queue

b)

ingress queue

c)

input buffer

d)

propagation buffer

41.

__________ is the amount of data delivered without error using real sources and under real-world conditions.

a)

Optiput

b)

Goodput

c)

Bandwidth

d)

Throughput

42.

__________ is the difference in delay between packets.

a)

Retard

b)

Wait

c)

Delay

d)

Jitter

43.

What is the name of the Linux-based utility that can display the delay and jitter across a networking path?


a)

Nmap

b)

Mtr

c)

Meter

d)

Pathtrace

44.

When packet forwarding devices can’t drain their output queues fast enough, _______ occurs.

a)

queue max

b)

queuing breach

c)

buffer bloat

d)

buffering exhaustion

45.

When pairs of different racks are oriented back-to-back, they form a __________ that allows heat to be efficiently handled.

a)

spread aisle

b)

cooling aisle

c)

brake aisle

d)

hot aisle

46.

Which port types are usually used by network engineers to configure a device using its CLI?

a)

Out-of-band

b)

Aux

c)

Console

d)

Terminal

47.

Which characteristics are typically associated with a Cisco line card?

a)

It has a separate forwarding engine

b)

It is larger in size.

c)

It uses the router forwarding engine.

d)

It is smaller in size.

48.

Which port on a networking device is most often used by network engineers to initially configure it?

a)

Out-of-band

b)

Aux

c)

Console

d)

Terminal

49.

The virtual conduits designed to hold cables between floors is called a __________.


a)

riser

b)

plenum

c)

frame

50.

On a home network, the router always has which interfaces?

a)

WAN

b)

LAN

c)

Internet

d)

Local

51.

What is the name of the location in a corporate building where access to the Internet enters?

a)

Intermediate distribution frame

b)

Wiring closet

c)

Building distribution frame

d)

Terminal office

52.

What is the location’s name that contains the wiring for each specific floor in a building?

a)

Intermediate distribution frame

b)

Building distribution frame

c)

Main distribution frame

d)

Terminal distribution frame

53.

Which large-scale transit provider facility is used by providers and customers to ensure the easiest connectivity?

a)

Termination point

b)

Peering point

c)

CoLo

d)

PoP

54.

Which type of peering allows an organization, like a research organization, to be given Internet access for free?

a)

Provider-customer peering

b)

Settlement peering

c)

Free peering

d)

Open peering

55.

What is the name of the access technology used by fiber to the neighborhood (FTTN) and fiber to the curb (FTTC)?

a)

FWA

b)

SONET

c)

Ethernet

d)

GPON

56.

The primary advantage of a _________ topology is in its ability to connect multiple locations with a minimal amount of wiring.

a)

hub-and-spoke

b)

ring

c)

bus

d)

mesh

57.

To support the huge number of hosts and services provided by data center networks, they connect multiple fabrics using a __________.

a)

DCI

b)

DRP

c)

PoP

d)

TRU

58.

Which type of fabric is most often used in large-scale designs?

a)

Toroid

b)

Spine-and-leaf

c)

Hypercube

d)

Scafida

59.

What is the name of the principal language users use on the modern Internet?

a)

JSON

b)

TCP

c)

HTTP

d)

HTML

60.

In a clos fabric, servers can be attached to any leaf; these leaves are also called __________.

a)

ToS

b)

ToR

c)

LoT

d)

LrA

61.

Which TCP flag is used when initiating a three-way handshake?

a)

SYN, RST

b)

SYN, FIN

c)

ACK

d)

SYN

62.

Which field in the IPv4 header is used to control and identify fragments?

a)

Protocol

b)

Time to live

c)

Identification

d)

Fragment offset

63.

What is the name of the protocol that acts as an alternative to TCP by offering many of its features but reducing latency?

a)

UDP

b)

QUIC

c)

TLS

d)

LRF

64.

What is the name of the protocol that transports much of the traffic on the modern Internet and provides flow and error control?

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

QUIC

d)

ICMP

65.

When using fixed-length fields, what type of pieces of information does a host need to interpret it?

a)

Grammar

b)

Dictionary

c)

Interpreter

d)

Codex

66.

Which technologies are commonly used to display styled pages in a web browser?

a)

UDP

b)

SSH

c)

CSS

d)

HTML

67.

Which Linux CLI command can generate an SSH RSA keypair?

a)

rsa-gen -key 256

b)

ssh -key rsa

c)

ssh-keygen -t rsa

d)

scpkey -rsa

68.

Which HTTP request is used to request data from the server?

a)

Retrieve

b)

Head

c)

PUT

d)

GET

69.

Which protocols are designed to encrypt DNS data between a host and its recursive server?

a)

DoB

b)

DoH

c)

DoT

d)

DoP

70.

__________ servers resolve a domain name by finding the correct IP address.

a)

DNS

b)

TFTP

c)

HTTP

d)

ARP

71.

A(n) __________ is used to indicate the distance between a trusted source of time and the local server.

a)

Zone

b)

Lamina

c)

Level

d)

Stratum

72.

Which cloud deployment model type involves using more than one cloud provider?

a)

Multi-cloud

b)

Hybrid cloud

c)

Comprehensive cloud

d)

Fault-resilient cloud

73.

What is the name given to a purpose-built circuit that is connected directly from a transit or access provider directly to a customer or cloud provider’s network?

a)

Customer link

b)

Multicloud connection

c)

VPN connection

d)

Direct connection

74.

Most cloud services deploy data centers into __________ and split each into several __________.

a)

availability zones, regions

b)

regions, availability zones

c)

local areas, local zones

d)

local zones, local areas

75.

What is the name of an application that was built to run in the cloud?

a)

Cloud intended

b)

Cloud native

c)

Cloud centered

d)

Cloud designed

76.

__________ describes the steps a user must pass through to access resources.

a)

APT

b)

ACR

c)

ALT

d)

AAA

77.

Which step in AAA verifies a user’s ability to use a specific resource?


a)

Authorization

b)

Authentication

c)

Accounting

d)

Auditing

78.

Shift left means bringing ________ and __________ into the design, testing, and deployment phases of network engineering.

a)

wireless, wired

b)

security, privacy

c)

development, operations

d)

operations, cloud

79.

What is the name of the process of removing, adding, or altering data to make identifying individuals more challenging?

a)

Suppression

b)

Clearing

c)

Obfuscation

d)

Deidentification

80.

What is the name of the system used to classify information technology vulnerabilities?

a)

CRE

b)

RPO

c)

RMA

d)

CVE

81.

In a network, the __________ includes the points in a network that connect to the Internet, an external system, or any place where it attaches to users.

a)

attack area

b)

attack zone

c)

attack surface

d)

attack square

82.

If an attacker sends a series of DNS queries fast enough to fill a recursive server’s cache, what attack is it considered?

a)

Man-in-the-middle attack

b)

Social engineering attack

c)

Resource exhaustion

d)

Supply chain attack

83.

What is the first thing any attacker attempts to set up once initial access is achieved?

a)

Lateral movement

b)

C2

c)

Ransomware setup

d)

Reflection

84.

The __________ contains a list of the valid email addresses in a domain that is used to determine an email address’s validity.

a)

DMARC

b)

SPF

c)

DKIM

d)

MTA

85.

Which feature will discard any packet where the reverse path, or path to the source address, doesn’t match the forwarding interface?

a)

MPLS

b)

pLOR

c)

OSPF

d)

uRPF

86.

Which type of cryptography uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt information?

a)

Asymmetric

b)

Stateless

c)

Stateful

d)

Symmetric

87.

Which device blocks or allows traffic flows in a zero trust system?

a)

SRU

b)

AAA

c)

PEP

d)

SSO

88.

Which network management protocol carries YANG-formatted data that is human readable and formatted using tags like HTML?

a)

GPRC

b)

SNMP

c)

Netflow

d)

NETCONF

89.

__________ means the connecting to and management of network devices through the same interfaces used to forward user traffic.

a)

In-band management

b)

Out-of band management

c)

On-network management

d)

Live management

90.

What is the name given to the intentional rebuilding of a system to fit current requirements?

a)

Redesigning

b)

Reworking

c)

Refactoring

d)

Recombining

91.

What is the name given to the periods of time that are allotted for networking staff to take a system down for maintenance?

a)

Maintenance breaks

b)

Change windows

c)

Configuration allotments

d)

Configuration allotments

92.

__________ is the amount of time the failure exists before being detected.

a)

Dwell time

b)

Detection time

c)

MTTF

d)

MTBF

93.

When you are designing for redundancy, how much does adding a third path (link) increase the resiliency?

a)

~25%

b)

~50%

c)

~12%

d)

~66%

94.

What is the name of the tool most often used by network engineers to perform packet capture?

a)

Ethereal

b)

Wireshark

c)

Tcpdump

d)

Netcat

95.

__________ exists when a single resource’s failure can cause some other group of devices to fail.

a)

Shared sacrifice

b)

Shared fate

c)

Single point of failure

d)

Shoulders problem

96.

What configurations’ names are stored on a Cisco IOS device?

a)

Startup configuration

b)

Admin configuration

c)

User configuration

d)

Running configuration

97.

Which Cisco IOS command is used to configure a static route?

a)

ip route

b)

route ip

c)

ip routing table

d)

address routing

98.

A(n) __________ is a set of policies that can be used to apply packet forwarding on a Cisco router.

a)

firewall

b)

CAM

c)

ACL

d)

routing table

99.

Which Cisco IOS command is used to enable the routing of IPv6 traffic?

a)

ipv6 enable

b)

ipv6 routing

c)

ipv6 unicast-routing

d)

routing ipv6

100.

__________________broadly means someone else owns and operates the infrastructure

a)

private cloud

b)

public cloud

c)

on premise public cloud

d)

off premise private cloud