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IDA-101 Baseline Test

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

One of the most important things for a technician to remember when dealing with electrical circuits is to _______________ them.

a)

Avoid

b)

Disconnect

c)

Respect

d)

De-energize

2.

Which of the following can occur when electrical current flows through the human body?

a)

Death

b)

Serious injury

c)

Experience a stinging sensation

d)

All the choices are possible

3.

A person will experience electric shock if their body becomes part of an electrical circuit by making contact with the ____________________.

a)

L1 and L2 conductors in a disconnect switch

b)

All of the choices will result in electrical shock

c)

L1 and neutral conductors on a furnace

d)

L2 and grounding conductors on a condensing unit

4.

Which of the following paths of electrical current flow through the body has the highest risk of causing severe injury or death?

a)

From the left hand to the left elbow

b)

From the right hand to the left hand

c)

From the right knee to the right foot

d)

From the thumb to the index finger on the right hand

5.

Which of the following choices is a potential hazard technicians face when working with electricity?

a)

Electrical shock

b)

Fire

c)

All of the choices are correct

d)

Arc flash and burns

6.

How often is the National Electrical Code revised?

a)

Every five years

b)

Every eight years

c)

Every four years

d)

Every year

7.

Which article in the National Electrical Code specifically covers air conditioning and refrigeration equipment?

a)

Article 400

b)

Article 440

c)

Article 540

d)

Article 300

8.

The National Electrical Code is published by the __________________________.

a)

National Fire Protection Association

b)

National Electrical Code Council

c)

American Electricity Safety Association

d)

U.S. Department of Energy

9.

What should a technician do if they need to plug a grounded metal drill with a three-prong plug into an older receptacle made for two-prong plugs?

a)

Tell the customer the work cannot be completed

b)

Break off the third (ground) prong so the plug will fit the receptacle

c)

Purchase a portable generator to power the drill

d)

Use a grounding adapter to connect the drill to the receptacle

10.

Which of the following electrical devices is designed to protect electrical circuits from excessive current flow?

a)

Ground fault circuit interrupters and circuit breakers

b)

Fuses and circuit breakers

c)

Arc fault circuit interrupters and ground fault circuit interrupters

d)

Thermal overloads and fuses

11.

Arc flash circuit interrupters are electrical devices designed to protect structures from fires started by electrical arcs caused by __________________________.

a)

Frayed wiring

b)

Loose wiring connections

c)

Faulty or damaged electrical equipment

d)

All of the choices are correct

12.

Most electrical circuits shown in a schematic diagram are arranged ____________________________.

a)

To show component placement in the equipment

b)

In order from the circuit with highest current draw to the lowest current draw

c)

With loads in alphabetical order

d)

With the circuits between the lines representing the electrical source

13.

The following electrical symbol represents a ____________.

a)

Shaded-pole compressor

b)

Single-phase compressor

c)

Dual-phase compressor

d)

Three-phase compressor

14.

The following electrical symbol represents a ____________.

a)

Relay coil

b)

Circuit breaker

c)

Fuse

d)

Signal light

15.

The following electrical symbol represents a ____________.

a)

Motor winding

b)

Defrost heater

c)

Crankcase heater

d)

Solenoid

16.

What is the most common voltage used in residential low-voltage control systems?

a)

24 volts

b)

36 volts

c)

48 volts

d)

12 volts

17.

The following schematic diagram of a dehumidifier shows a(n) _______________ control system.

a)

Line-voltage

b)

Low-voltage

c)

Intermediate-voltage

d)

Indirect-voltage

18.

The defrost timer of the typical walk-in cooler will initiate defrost cycles ______________________.

a)

When frost is detected on the evaporator

b)

After every six hours of cooling operation

c)

Every eight hours

d)

At preset time intervals

19.

Which of the following statements is true about the operation of the commercial freezer using the following schematic diagram?

a)

All of the statements are true

b)

The condenser fan motor operates when the compressor is operating

c)

The defrost heater operates when the defrost timer is closed between terminals 4 and 2, and the defrost thermostat is closed

d)

The compressor does not operate when the defrost heater is operating

20.

What is the purpose of a limit switch on a gas furnace?

a)

A safety device to turn off the gas valve if the temperature of the furnace’s heat exchanger reaches an unsafe level

b)

A safety device to prevent the furnace from heating the structure above the set-point of the heating thermostat

c)

A safety device to prevent the blower motor from overheating

d)

A control device to turn the furnace on when the room temperature falls below the set-point of the limit switch

21.

Which of the following statements is true about the operation of a packaged air conditioning unit if the fan switch on the thermostat is in the “on” position?

a)

The indoor fan motor will cycle on and off with the compressor

b)

The outdoor fan motor will operate continuously

c)

The indoor and outdoor fan motors will operate continuously

d)

The indoor fan motor will operate continuously

22.

What is often used to control large contactors with high-voltage coils in commercial equipment that is controlled by a low-voltage thermostat?

a)

Control relays

b)

Lockout relays

c)

Step-up transformers

d)

Intermediate-voltage contactors

23.

Which of the following statements is true about the lockout relay circuit shown in the following schematic diagram?

a)

All of the statements are true about the lockout relay (LR) circuit

b)

The lockout relay (LR) coil is wired in series with the contactor (C) coil

c)

The contactor (C) coil will be de-energized when the lockout relay (LR) coil is energized

d)

The lockout relay (LR) coil is wired parallel to the safety switches

24.

A commercial air conditioning system that has two cooling capacities made possible by two compressors will likely be controlled by ______________________.

a)

A multistage thermostat

b)

A single-stage thermostat

c)

A manual switch

d)

A variable speed drive

25.

Which terminal on a multistage thermostat operates the second-stage heating cycle?

a)

W1

b)

Y2

c)

W2

d)

Rh

26.

When is the Y1 terminal energized on a multistage heating and cooling thermostat?

a)

First-stage heating

b)

First-stage cooling

c)

Y1 is always energized

d)

Second-stage heating

27.

A heat pump can no longer supply enough heat to properly condition the structure without supplementary heating when operating below the ________________.

a)

Balance point

b)

Critical temperature

c)

Thermal threshold

d)

Equilibrium level

28.

Which thermostat terminal will control the reversing valve for a heat pump system that energizes the reversing valve in the cooling mode of operation?

a)

O

b)

B

c)

Re

d)

W2

29.

What happens during the defrost cycle on a typical heat pump system?

a)

The supplementary heating is turned on

b)

All of the actions occur during the defrost cycle

c)

The outdoor fan motor is turned off

d)

The reversing valve is put in the cooling mode

30.

The voltage and amperage of alternating current electricity is represented graphically by a(n) __________________.

a)

Sine wave

b)

Square wave

c)

Triangle wave

d)

Sawtooth wave

31.

How many alterations or current flow reversals are there in one cycle of alternating current electricity?

a)

Two

b)

Five

c)

Three

d)

One

32.

What will be the approximate effective voltage of an alternating current voltage source if the peak voltage is 340?

a)

240 volts

b)

277 volts

c)

360 volts

d)

208 volts

33.

The number of alternating currents in a circuit that are alternating at different time intervals describes the ___________ of the circuit.

a)

Frequency

b)

Power factor

c)

Phase

d)

Reactance

34.

An electrical device that is composed of windings and a rotating magnet that is used to produce alternating current electricity is called a(n) _______________.

a)

Rectifier

b)

Alternator

c)

Inverter

d)

Generator

35.

The sine waves representing each phase of three-phase alternating current electricity are separated by ___________ degrees.

a)

120

b)

90

c)

180

d)

360

36.

When a conductor is exposed to fluctuating magnetic strengths or more than one magnetic field at a time, the voltage produced that counteracts the original voltage is caused by _______________.

a)

Reactance

b)

Conductance

c)

Impedance

d)

Inductance

37.

What type of load resists changes to voltage more than changes in current flow when connected to alternating current electricity?

a)

Conductors

b)

Capacitors

c)

Inductors

d)

Resistors

38.

What voltage will a technician read between L1 and neutral on a typical residential voltage system?

a)

208 volts

b)

120 volts

c)

Zero volts

d)

240 volts

39.

What color wire is typically used for neutral conductors in a 120-volt circuit?

a)

Black

b)

Bare copper

c)

White

d)

Green

40.

What voltage will a technician read between the L1 and L2 conductors on a typical residential voltage system?

a)

240 volts

b)

120 volts

c)

208 volts

d)

277 volts

41.

What is an advantage of three-phase power over single-phase power?

a)

All of these are advantages of three-phase power distribution systems

b)

Three-phase motors have better starting and running characteristics than single-phase motors

c)

Commercial customers can often buy three-phase power at a lower cost than single-phase power

d)

Three-phase motors do not require special starting components such as capacitors and starting relays

42.

Which of the following applications will not have a three-phase power distribution system?

a)

Residential homes

b)

Industrial buildings

c)

Commercial buildings

d)

Large institutional buildings

43.

Which of the following choices best represents the measurements a technician will likely read on a three-phase, 240-volt delta system?

a)

208 volts between all of the hot legs, 120 volts between two of the hot legs and ground, and 240 volts between the high leg and ground

b)

240 volts between all of the hot legs, 120 volts between two of the hot legs and ground, and 208 volts between the high leg and ground

c)

240 volts between all of the hot legs, 120 volts between two of the hot legs and ground, and 277 volts between the high leg and ground

d)

120 volts between all of the three hot legs and volts between each hot leg and the ground

44.

Which of the following three-phase voltage systems is useful for applications where there is a need for many 240-volt circuits, but very few 120-volt circuits?

a)

240-volt delta system

b)

208-volt wye system

c)

277-volt wye system

d)

230-volt wye system

45.

What type of three-phase voltage system is commonly used in commercial and industrial applications to supply power to 277-volt single-phase loads?

a)

575-volt wye systems

b)

240-volt delta systems

c)

277-volt wye systems

d)

480-volt wye systems

46.

A contactor will contain which of the following parts?

a)

Coil

b)

Contactors contain all of these parts

c)

Armature

d)

Contact

47.

What part of a contactor slides up and down within slots within the contactor’s frame?

a)

Mechanical linkage

b)

Armature

c)

Contacts

d)

Coil

48.

Contactor coils are available for which of the following voltages?

a)

120 volts

b)

24 volts

c)

208/240 volts

d)

Coils are available for all the voltages

49.

Contact points in a contactor are often made of _____________________.

a)

Brass alloy

b)

Copper

c)

Aluminum

d)

Silver

50.

Which of the following resistance readings indicates a shorted coil that could cause damage to the control system if energized?

a)

Zero ohms

b)

15 ohms

c)

Infinite ohms

d)

100 ohms

51.

Which of the following contactor parts could develop faults and prevent proper operation?

a)

Contacts

b)

All parts could become faulty

c)

Mechanical linkage

d)

Coil

52.

What would a reading of 15 volts across the contacts of the same pole of a contactor indicate?

a)

15 volts is being supplied to the contactor

b)

15 volts is being lost through the contact

c)

15 volts is being supplied to the equipment

d)

Voltage readings across the contacts are irrelevant

53.

Relays are built with the same general components as ___________________.

a)

Solenoids

b)

Motors

c)

Contactors

d)

Transformers

54.

Contactors are typically used to control high current applications and relays are used to control ________________ current applications.

a)

Higher

b)

All

c)

Lower

d)

Unlimited

55.

An electric device that protects a load from high amperage draw by opening a set of contacts to break the circuit to the load describes a(n) _______________.

a)

Solenoid

b)

Current relay

c)

Contactor

d)

Overload

56.

What overload protection device is composed of a piece of wire that melts if the current draw gets too high?

a)

Thermal overload

b)

Circuit breaker

c)

Fuse

d)

Magnetic overload

57.

What does a line break overload do to protect a motor in an overload situation?

a)

Cause the fuse to blow

b)

Reduce the speed of the motor

c)

Break the power to the motor

d)

Break the power to the motor control circuit

58.

The internal compressor overload used on most residential central systems is a ____________ type of overload.

a)

Line break

b)

Solid state

c)

Pilot duty

d)

Magnetic

59.

What type of overload breaks the control circuit in an overload event?

a)

Internal compressor overload

b)

Circuit breaker

c)

Thermal line-break overload

d)

Pilot duty overload

60.

Which of the following types of overload relays are used on magnetic starters?

a)

Thermal relay

b)

Molten-alloy relay

c)

Bimetal relay

d)

All these overload types are used

61.

Which of the following conditions could prevent the contacts on a magnetic starter from closing?

a)

Open control coil

b)

Tripped overload relay

c)

All these conditions will keep the contacts from closing

d)

Worn or broken linkage

62.

Motors are very important loads in heating, cooling, and refrigeration equipment because they are used to rotate ____________________.

a)

All of the choices are correct

b)

Fans

c)

Pumps

d)

Compressors

63.

In which of the following areas do contactors and relays experience problems?

a)

Failure of the mechanical linkage

b)

Failures can be experienced in all these areas

c)

Contact failure

d)

Coil failure

64.

If the voltage loss measured across the contacts of a contactor is more than 5% of the line voltage, the contactor ____________________.

a)

Is too large for the application

b)

Should be replaced

c)

Is good

d)

Has a faulty coil

65.

What is the condition of a relay coil rated to operate on 24 volts if the coil has a resistance of 50 ohms?

a)

Open

b)

Good

c)

Shorted

d)

Grounded

66.

What is the condition of a contactor coil rated to operate on 120 volts if the coil has a resistance of infinite ohms?

a)

Open

b)

Good

c)

Shorted

d)

Grounded

67.

A problem with the mechanical linkage of a contactor could cause ____________________.

a)

All of the choices are correct

b)

Misalignment of the contacts

c)

The contacts to stick closed

d)

The contacts to not close

e)

The contacts to open prematurely

68.

Which of the following resistance readings indicates a good fuse?

a)

10 ohms

b)

Infinite ohms

c)

50 ohms

d)

Zero ohms

69.

What would a reading of 120 volts across a fuse indicate?

a)

All of the choices are correct

b)

The fuse is open

c)

120 volts are being lost through the fuse

d)

The fuse should be replaced

70.

A motor with a rating of 15 full load amps is protected by a line voltage overload that keeps opening at a current draw of 14 amps, indicating the overload is ___________.

a)

Shorted

b)

Weak

c)

Too large for the motor

d)

Good

71.

What should the resistance measure across the pilot duty contacts on a pilot duty overload whose line-voltage element is connected to a motor that is turned off?

a)

One ohm

b)

Infinite ohms

c)

Zero ohm

d)

10 ohms

72.

What should the resistance measure through the thermal element of a pilot duty thermal overload?

a)

One ohm

b)

Infinite ohms

c)

10 ohms

d)

Zero ohms

73.

What should the resistance read across the contacts of an open on temperature rise thermostat used on a unit heater if the setpoint of the thermostat is 70°F and the room temperature is 65°F?

a)

One ohm

b)

Zero ohm

c)

Infinite ohms

d)

10 ohms

74.

Why are low-voltage thermostats often more difficult to troubleshoot than line-voltage thermostats?

a)

Low-voltage thermostats are installed in hard access locations

b)

All of the choices are correct

c)

Low-voltage thermostats often have more functions

d)

Low voltage is harder to detect with a voltmeter

75.

Which of the following low-voltage thermostat terminals should be energized when there is a call for heating?

a)

O

b)

W

c)

Y

d)

All of the choices are correct

76.

When should 24 volts be read between the Y and C terminals on a low-voltage heating and cooling thermostat?

a)

When the thermostat is set off

b)

When the thermostat is set to operate continuous fan only

c)

When the thermostat is set to operate in heating

d)

When the thermostat is set to operate in cooling

77.

What should the resistance of the contacts read on a low-pressure switch with a cut-out setting of 20 psig and a cut-in setting of 50 psig if the system pressure is 75 psig?

a)

Infinite ohms

b)

24 ohms

c)

Zero ohms

d)

10 ohms

78.

Which choice best describes the condition of a control transformer if the resistance of the primary winding is 25 ohms, and the secondary winding is one ohm?

a)

Shorted

b)

Good

c)

Open

d)

Bad

79.

Sequencers are commonly used to control electric resistance heaters, and they act much like a _____________________.

a)

Time-delay relay

b)

Contactor

c)

Thermal overload

d)

Circuit breaker

e)

Switching relay

80.

When the furnace is off and cool, the limit switches should have a resistance of ______________.

a)

Infinite ohms

b)

10 ohms

c)

Zero ohm

d)

100 ohms

81.

Which of the following conditions can cause the pilot flame to go out when the knob or lever on the combination gas valve is released?

a)

A pilot flame is not touching the thermocouple

b)

Faulty thermocouple

c)

All the conditions could cause the pilot flame to go out

d)

Faulty pilot solenoid

82.

What is a method of checking the flame rectification circuit to sense the flame in gas furnaces?

a)

Check to see if 24 volts is being supplied to the flame sensor using an AC voltmeter

b)

Check for DC microvolts using a voltmeter

c)

Check for DC amps by placing the amp-on ammeter around the wire to the flame rod

d)

Check for DC microamps by placing a microammeter in series with the flame rod or system ground

83.

What should a technician check if the burner does not start on an oil furnace using a cad cell primary control?

a)

Check to ensure the thermostat is closing to call for heat

b)

All of the checks should be made by the technician

c)

Check the power supply to the primary control

d)

Check all of the limit switches to ensure they are closed

84.

A cad cell primary control can be checked by connecting a resistor between the F terminals with ________________ of resistance.

a)

15,000 ohms

b)

1500 ohms

c)

150 ohms

d)

15 ohms

85.

When troubleshooting a switch to determine if it is malfunctioning, the technician must know the ________________ of the switch in the system.

a)

Location

b)

Function

c)

Off position resistance

d)

Layout

86.

What are the three areas of malfunction possible in a contactor?

a)

Coil, coil holder, and contacts

b)

Contacts, mechanical linkage, and frame

c)

Coil, coil holder, and mechanical linkage

d)

Coil, contacts, and mechanical linkage

87.

Which of the following items could assist the technician in correctly diagnosing problems in HVAC equipment?

a)

Installation and service manuals

b)

All of the choices are correct

c)

Troubleshooting charts

d)

Self-diagnostic features

88.

What is the purpose of a troubleshooting chart?

a)

Help the installation technician to use proper installation techniques

b)

Guide the technician through a systematic approach to troubleshooting HVAC systems

c)

Aid the technician in reading wiring diagrams enabling them to troubleshoot electrical problems in HVAC equipment

d)

A guide to help the homeowner troubleshoot and repair their HVAC unit

89.

What should be one of the first steps a technician takes when troubleshooting a residential air conditioning system?

a)

Check to see if correct line- and low-voltage is available to the system

b)

Check the running capacitor

c)

Check the resistance of the compressor motor

d)

Check the indoor fan motor

90.

What should be the next step taken if a technician has determined that line-voltage and control voltage are available to an HVAC system that will not operate?

a)

Replace the thermostat

b)

Check the capacitance of the run capacitor

c)

Measure the resistance of the compressor motor

d)

Isolate the circuit that contains the fault

91.

Which of the following choices describes a method to check the condition of a control transformer?

a)

Check the resistance of the transformer’s windings

b)

All of the choices are correct

c)

Check to ensure proper low-voltage is being produced by the transformer

d)

Check for proper line-voltage to the transformer

92.

What is the likely cause of a PSC condenser fan motor that will not start in a residential condensing unit if the compressor operates and the fan motor is warm to the touch?

a)

Open contactor coil

b)

Faulty capacitor

c)

Shorted compressor winding

d)

Open transformer winding

93.

Which of the following conditions can cause a motor to draw higher than normal amperage?

a)

Faulty running capacitor

b)

Worn or tight bearings

c)

Higher than normal mechanical load on the motor

d)

All of the choices are correct

94.

What items are commonly given on troubleshooting charts for HVAC equipment?

a)

All of the choices are correct

b)

Necessary remedy or repair action to correct the problem

c)

Causes of the symptoms

d)

Symptoms of improper operation

95.

Which of the following scenarios gives an example of troubleshooting using the hopscotching method?

a)

Checking the resistance of a pressure switch in a control circuit

b)

Checking the condition of the switches in a control circuit by checking the voltage at L1 and L2, then proceeding from one switch to the next in the circuit until the open switch is located

c)

Checking the mechanical condition of the load in the circuit

d)

Checking the resistance of the load in a circuit

96.

Which of the following voltage measurements indicates an open control device in the circuit whose diagram is shown below?

a)

230 volts read across OL

b)

Zero volts read across T

c)

Zero volts read across DLT

d)

Zero volts read across the HP

97.

What procedure is one of the easiest ways to check the condition of the switches in an energized electrical circuit?

a)

Hopscotching

b)

Current check

c)

Millivolt check

d)

Resistance check

98.

A service technician should never leave a conditioned air system with a safety control device ____________________.

a)

Jumped out

b)

Replaced with the incorrect part

c)

Removed from the circuit

d)

All of the choices are correct

99.

Which of the following conditions can result in a blown low-voltage fuse in an air conditioning control system?

a)

All of the choices are correct

b)

Shorted contactor coil

c)

Damaged control wiring

d)

Incorrect control wiring connections

100.

Which of the following components can be checked in a packaged unit if the technician positions the fan switch on the thermostat to the “Fan On” position?

a)

Compressor

b)

Condenser fan motor

c)

Transformer

d)

Crankcase heater