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AP Gov - Unit 1 Review

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a bicameral legislature?

a)

A legislature where members are elected every two years

b)

A one house legislature

c)

A legislature in the national/central government

d)

A two house legislature/chambers that have different structures and rules

2.

Which plan of government provided for a unicameral structure (with one legislature to make laws)?

a)

The US Constitution

b)

The Bill of Rights

c)

The Articles of Confederation

d)

The Declaration of Independence

3.

Match the following aspects of the US Constitution with their parts:

a)

Defines the role of Congress

1.

Article 1

b)

Defines the role of the Executive Branch, including the President

2.

Article II

c)

Defines the role of the Judiciary

3.

Article III

d)

Defines how the Constitution can by amended

4.

Article V

e)

Establishes that the US Constitution and federal laws take precedence over state laws

5.

Supremacy Clause (A6C2)

4.

How did the framers of the US Constitution guarantee that changes could be made to the Constitution to allow for political change, but also ensure that there were checks and balances to the process?

a)

They included Article V to allow for the amendment process involving both the national government and the states.

b)

They created three branches of government.

c)

They created a judicial branch.

d)

They allowed presidents to have the power of veto.

5.

Match the following checks and balances to the correct branch of government:

a)

Approval is granted by this body for presidential appointments to the SCOTUS

1.

The Senate

b)

The power of veto is granted to reject laws passed by Congress

2.

The President

c)

The power to impeach a president or justice

3.

Congress/legislative branch

d)

The power to declare a law unconstitutional (judicial review)

4.

The Supreme Court of the United States

6.

Who must ratify or accept a constitutional amendment after it has be proposed by Congress?

a)

3/4 of the states

b)

2/3 of the states

c)

The Secretary of State

d)

The Supreme Court of the United States (SCOTUS)

7.

Match the following

a)

Solved the debate over representation at the Constitutional Convention

1.

The Great (Connecticut) Compromise

b)

Solved the debate over slavery at the Constitutional Convention

2.

Three-Fifths Compromise

c)

Powers shared by the national and state governments - multiple access points for citizens seeking change

3.

Concurrent powers

d)

Who was most wary of the Supremacy Clause?

4.

Antifederalists like Brutus

e)

Who championed a large republic with a strong central government?

5.

James Madison & Alexander Hamilton

8.

Questioned the Constitution's protections of States Rights

a)

AntiFederalists

b)

Federalists

c)

Pluralism

d)

Elitism

9.

Articles of the Confederation

a)

Created a National Government that was too weak

b)

Created State Governments that were too weak

c)

Created an Executive Branch that was too powerful

d)

Created a Judicial Branch that was too powerful

10.

BiCameral

a)

Means a one house legislature

b)

Means a two house legislature

c)

Means a three house legislature

d)

Means no riding camels on Broad Street after midnight

11.

Bill of Rights

a)

Establishes the rules for impeaching a President

b)

Establishes the people's right of Habeas Corpus

c)

Establishes term limits for Congressmen

d)

Establishes the Supremacy Clause

12.

Commerce Clause

a)

Says only the states can regulate foreign trade

b)

Says states will regulate their own trade with other states

c)

Says that the Federal Government will regulate all trade

d)

Says that all trade is forbidden. Fend for yourself.

13.

Electoral College

a)

Is the group that "formally" elects the President based on states' votes.

b)

Is the group that has to propose all laws for Congress to consider

c)

Is the group in charge of ensuring fair and secure elections

d)

Ensures that our elections reflect a direct democracy

14.

Elite Democracy

a)

Suggests that a few large groups will dominate our democracy

b)

Suggests that a wealthy, isolated group of people will dominate our democracy

c)

Suggests that politicians will always follow the will of the people

d)

Suggests that the working class will rise up to dominate our democracy

15.

Pluralist Democracy

a)

Suggests that a few large groups will dominate our democracy

b)

Suggests that a wealthy, isolated group of people will dominate our democracy

c)

Suggests that politicians will always follow the will of the people

d)

Suggests that the working class will rise up to dominate our democracy

16.

Extradition

a)

People from all states must be treated equally within states

b)

Licensing from states must be recognized by other states

c)

An accused criminal must stand trial in the state where they committed a crime

d)

States may not make pacts or agreements w/ one another w/o Congressional approval

17.

Privileges and Immunities Clause

a)

People from all states must be treated equally within states

b)

Licensing from states must be recognized by other states

c)

An accused criminal must stand trial in the state where they committed a crime

d)

States may not make pacts or agreements w/ one another w/o Congressional approval

18.

Full Faith and Credit Clause

a)

People from all states must be treated equally within states

b)

Licenses from states must be recognized by other states

c)

An accused criminal must stand trial in the state where they committed a crime

d)

States may not make pacts or agreements w/ one another w/o Congressional approval

19.

Marbury vs Madison

a)

Established Judicial Review

b)

Reinforced the Full Faith and Credit Clause

c)

Established the practice of Extradition

d)

Reinforced the Supremacy Clause

20.

McCulloch vs Maryland

a)

Established Judicial Review

b)

Reinforced the Full Faith and Credit Clause

c)

Established the practice of Extradition

d)

Reinforced the Supremacy Clause

21.

Mandates

a)

Unfunded directives from the Federal Government

b)

Money given to the states in exchange for them meeting certain criteria

c)

Money distributed to the states based on how well they respond to given directives

22.

Project Grants

a)

Unfunded directives from the Federal Government

b)

Money given to the states for particular purposes in exchange for the states meeting certain criteria

c)

Money distributed to the states based on how well they respond to given directives

23.

The Senate

a)

Legislative Chamber where each state gets 2 representatives

b)

Legislative Chamber where each state gets representatives based on their population

c)

Legislative Chamber where states get representatives based on how much they pay in taxes

d)

Legislative Chamber where members are selected by 'the lower' house

24.

The House of Representatives

a)

Legislative Chamber where each state gets 2 representatives

b)

Legislative Chamber where each state gets representatives based on their population

c)

Legislative Chamber where states get representatives based on how much they pay in taxes

d)

Legislative Chamber where members are selected by 'the lower' house

25.

Impeachment

a)

The House of Representatives' ability to charge EXE and JUD branch officials with wrongdoing

b)

The Senate's ability to charge EXE and JUD branch officials with wrongdoing

c)

The concept that all people have the right to a trial by jury

d)

The concept that nectarines are actually better than peaches

26.
Of the following, the most significant difference between the Constitution of 1787 and the Articles of Confederation was that the Constitution
a)
made states sovereign over the national government, while the Articles were based on national sovereignty.
b)
was difficult to amend, while the Articles included an easier process requiring approval by a simple majority of states.
c)
created a dominant national executive, while the Articles established a dominant national legislature.
d)
provided for a strong national government with many powers, while the Articles created a weak central government with few independent powers.
27.
The Connecticut Compromise drafted at the Constitutional Convention of 1787 is significant for which of the following reasons?
a)
It established the presidential system and gave the United States Supreme Court power to serve as the ultimate arbiter of constitutional disputes.
b)
It provided equality of representation among the states in both the House of Representatives and the Senate.
c)
It proposed a Senate with equal representation for each state and a House of Representatives with membership established according to the population of each state.
d)
It denied Congress the power to establish tariffs on exported merchandise.
28.
According to James Madison, which of the following best controls the effects of factions?
a)
Direct democracy
b)
Popular election of state judges
c)
A large republic
d)
Property requirements for eligibility to work
29.
Under the Articles of Confederation, which of the following were true?

I. Congress could not tax the states directly.
II. The executive branch of government exercised more power than Congress.
III. Congress was a unicameral body.

IV. States were represented in Congress proportionally according to population.
a)
I and II
b)
I and III
c)
II and III
d)
II and IV
30.
The Connecticut Compromise resolved the controversy at the Constitutional Convention involving
a)
the method of choosing the President.
b)
the regulation of interstate and foreign trade.
c)
representation in Congress.
d)
the protection of the institution of slavery.
31.
The issue of enslaved people for the purpose of representation was the main issue of -
a)
Great Compromise
b)
One-Third Compromise
c)
Three-Fifths Compromise
d)
Slave Compromise
32.

To choose the president through an indirect vote we use the

a)

Commerce compromise

b)

Great Compromise

c)

Three-fifths Compromise

d)

Electoral College

33.
Who names new Supreme Court Justices?
a)
The President
b)
The Electoral College
c)
Congress
34.
As originally written, who could citizens directly vote for according to the constitution? 
a)
Members of the House only
b)
Senators only
c)
both senators and members of the house
d)
Members of the house and the president
35.
When Thomas Jefferson copied John Locke's ideas about the social contract, what did he say the people had the right to do to a government who was not protecting the people's rights?
a)
Write a letter
b)
Suggest how it could be better
c)
Wait until they started to respect the people's rights
d)
Abolish it
36.

The ____________ clause gives federal law ultimate authority when there is a conflict between states and the national government.

a)

elastic

b)

supremacy

c)

necessary and proper

d)

full faith and credit

37.
What allows for the Constitution to be a flexible document?
a)
The amendment process
b)
The enumerated powers
c)
The delegated powers
d)
The impeachment process
38.
Gives Congress the power to regulate commerce among the states, with foreign nations, and among Indian tribes.
a)
Supremacy Clause
b)
Full Faith and Credit Clause
c)
Privileges and Immunities Clause
d)
Commerce Clause
39.
Which political set up most approximates the U.S. system of government?
a)
A representative republic
b)
Direct democracy
c)
Socialist democracy
d)
A parliamentary republic
40.
States honoring each other's laws and records refers to which constitutional clause?
a)
Commerce Clause
b)
Supremacy Clause
c)
Privileges and Immunities Clause
d)
Full Faith and Credit Clause
41.
States not discriminating against residents from other states refers to which constitutional clause?
a)
Commerce Clause
b)
Supremacy Clause
c)
Privileges and Immunities Clause
d)
Full Faith and Credit Clause
42.

If the president vetoes a bill, how can the veto be overridden?

a)

By a majority vote of the Supreme Court

b)

By a 2/3 vote of the Senate

c)

By a 2/3 vote of both house of Congress

d)

By a majority vote in both houses

43.

All of the following were weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation EXCEPT:

a)

Nine of the thirteen states had to approve all laws.

b)

A national court system ruled on the constitutionality of laws.

c)

Congress worked in committees without a chief executive.

d)

Congress could raise money by borrowing or by asking states for money.

44.

Which of the following was adopted to resolve the issue of representation in the House and Senate?

a)

Three-Fifths Compromise

b)

Virginia Plan

c)

New Jersey Plan

d)

Great Compromise

45.

Which of the following accurately characterizes the main difference between elite theories and pluralist theories of politics in the United States?

a)

Elite theories argue that a single minority dominates in all policy areas; pluralist theories argue that many minorities compete in different policy areas.

b)

Elite theories argue that social status is the major source of political power; pluralist theories argue that wealth is the major source.

c)

Elite theories view government as efficient; pluralist theories view it as slow and wasteful.

d)

Elite theories concentrate on the role of interest groups; pluralist theories emphasize the role of individuals.

46.

Which of the following is the best example of a categorical grant?

a)

Money given to states for special education programs

b)

Money given to individuals in the form of tax rebates

c)

Money given to states unconditionally

d)

Money given to states to spend at their discretion on transportation

47.

The debates between Federalists and Anti-Federalists were primarily about which of the following issues?

a)

The right of the people to rebel

b)

The existence of slavery

c)

The scope of power of the central government

d)

The need to establish a standard currency

48.

In a federal system of government, political power is primarily

a)

vested in the regional governments

b)

vested in the central government

c)

divided between regional governments and local governments

d)

divided between the central government and regional governments

49.

The Americans with Disabilities Act, which provides protections for the disabled, is an example of

a)

a federal mandate

b)

horizontal federalism

c)

dual federalism

d)

state supremacy

50.

Which of the following statements best describes government under the Article of Confederation?

a)

The Confederation government established guidelines for setting new territories and admitting new states.

b)

The Confederation government was hampered in its ability to levy taxes.

c)

The Articles of Confederation had been written so that real power remained with the states.

d)

States could not make treaties without Congress’s approval.

51.

Giving state governments greater discretion in deciding how to achieve the specific goals of welfare reform is an example of

a)

an unfunded mandate

b)

implied powers

c)

dual federalism

d)

devolution

52.

Cooperative federalism can best be described by which of the following statements?

a)

Government must have cooperation from the people in order to make legislative decisions.

b)

Different levels of government are involved in common policy areas.

c)

The federal government must make regulations that can be applied across every state in the same way.

d)

Business and government can work together to more effectively accomplish shared goals.

53.

The Tenth Amendment to the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to

a)

prevent states from taxing agencies of the federal government

b)

reserve powers to the states

c)

restrict the application of judicial review

d)

allow for the burning of the flag as an expression of protest

54.

Which of the following constitutional principles most directly addresses the relationship between the national and state governments?

a)

The Bill of Rights

b)

Separation of powers

c)

Representation

d)

Federalism

55.

Of the following, which has been used most to expand the power of the national government?

a)

The First Amendment

b)

The Fifth Amendment

c)

The habeas corpus clause of the Constitution

d)

The commerce clause of the Constitution

56.

The outcome of a conflict between the Constitution and the states is determined by

a)

the Great Compromise

b)

the supremacy clause

c)

Federalist #10

d)

judicial review

57.

Which of the following would least likely be favored by state governments?

a)

unfunded mandates

b)

categorical grants

c)

block grants

d)

revenue sharing

58.

Which of the following statements is correct about the differences between the Federalists and Anti-Federalists?

a)

Neither group was willing to dissolve the union over the questions of counting slaves for purposes of representation.

b)

The Federalists believed a Bill of Rights was essential whereas the Anti-Federalists did not.

c)

The Federalists believed in national sovereignty whereas the Anti-Federalists believed in strong state governments.

d)

he Federalists did not believe in the need for a presidential cabinet whereas the Anti-Federalists did.

59.

Which of the following is an example of checks and balances, as established by the Constitution?

a)

A requirement that states lower their legal drinking age to eighteen so they can receive federal highway grants

b)

Media criticism of public officials during an election campaign period

c)

The requirement that presidential appointments to the Supreme Court be approved by the Senate

d)

The election of the President by the Electoral College rather than by direct election

60.

The importance of Shays' Rebellion to the development of the United States Constitution was that it

a)

revealed the necessity of adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution

b)

demonstrated the intensity of anti-ratification sentiment within the thirteen states

c)

convinced the delegates attending the Constitutional Convention to accept the Connecticut Plan

d)

indicated that a strong national government was needed to protect property and maintain order

61.

States and localities have the most discretion in establishing policy when federal funding is derived from

a)

categorical grants

b)

matching grants

c)

block grants

d)

project grants

62.

The Constitution grants Congress the power to establish post offices and post roads. This is an example of

a)

enumerated powers

b)

implied powers

c)

reserved powers

d)

concurrent powers

63.

“Dual Federalism” refers to the fact that

a)

the Constitution provides two layers of government in the nation—the national and the state

b)

There are two major forms of aid from the national government to the states—categorical and block grants

c)

both the national and state governments can levy taxes on citizens

d)

there is a distinct line between policies surrounding public education and private education in the states.

64.

Both the national and states’ governments can establish court systems. This is an example of

a)

reserved powers

b)

a mandate

c)

concurrent powers

d)

full faith and credit clause

65.

“In every free government, the people must give their assent to the laws by which they are governed. This is the true criterion between a free government and an arbitrary one. The former are ruled by the will of the whole, expressed in any manner they may agree upon; the latter by the will of one, or a few. If the people are to give their assent to the laws, by persons chosen and appointed by them, the manner of the choice and the number chosen, must be such, as to possess, be disposed, and consequently qualified to declare the sentiments of the people; for if they do not know, or are not disposed to speak the sentiments of the people, the people do not govern, but the sovereignty is in a few. Now, in a large extended country, it is impossible to have a representation, possessing the sentiments, and of integrity, to declare the minds of the people, without having it so numerous and unwieldy, as to be subject in great measure to the inconveniency of a democratic government….” --Brutus 1

a)

Average citizens cannot be trusted to vote because of low levels of education.

b)

The federal government should have greater authority than state legislatures.

c)

Nations with extended territory cannot fairly represent their citizens in a republican form of government.

d)

A small federal legislature is the best way to represent the will of the people in a large country.

66.

Which of the following best characterizes the general argument made in Brutus 1?

a)

A large republic is dangerous to personal liberty and undermines the states.

b)

A small republic is more susceptible to corruption than a large republic.

c)

A large republic would be preferable to a small one because more people could participate.

d)

A small republic would pose more danger to individual liberty than a large republic.

67.

Which of the following is an accurate summary of James Madison's argument in The Federalist 10?

a)

A large republic makes it possible to abolish factions and concentrate all power at the national level.

b)

A large republic allows the federal government to dominate the state governments through the necessary and proper clause.

c)

A large republic is a direct democracy where the people have a direct vote in policy matters, which controls factions.

d)

A large republic presents more opportunities for groups to participate, compete, and limit each other.

68.

In The Federalist 10, which of the following did James Madison argue would best control the negative effects of factions?

a)

A large federal republic

b)

A large unitary government

c)

A small direct democracy

d)

A law that prohibits factions

69.

Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the infographic above?

a)

Once a proposed amendment passes the first round of approval, there are four ways it can be ratified.

b)

Amendment proposals are more easily passed by Congress than by states.

c)

Only a few amendments have been ratified by special conventions in at least three-fourths or 34 of the states.

d)

Amending the Constitution is a relatively easy process.

70.

The cartoon expresses which of the following viewpoints?

a)

It's hard to define "life, liberty, and pursuit of happiness."

b)

Politicians tend to be more focused on public opinion than policy.

c)

The members of the Continental Congress were old and feeble.

d)

Sometimes even wealthy and educated individuals don't know the best course of action.

71.

Which inference is most clearly drawn from the graph?

a)

More federal grant money goes to "Other" than to all specifically identified categories combined.

b)

During the period 2000-2010, "Transportation" funding grew by a greater percentage than "Income security" funding.

c)

The category receiving the largest federal funding has shifted over time from "Education, training, employment, and social services" in 1975 to "Health" in 2011.

d)

The same amount of funding has been allocated to "community and regional development" each year since 1978.

72.

In United States v. Morrison, the Supreme Court struck down the Violence Against Women Act of 1994, stating: "Gender-motivated crimes of violence are not, in any sense of the phrase, economic activity. While we need not adopt a categorical rule against aggregating the effects of any non economical activity in order to decide these cases, thus far in our Nation's history out cases have upheld Commerce Clause regulation of intrastate activity only where that activity is economic in nature."


Which of the following cases best serves as precedent for the decision in United States v. Morrison?

a)

U.S. v. Lopez

b)

Marbury v. Madison

c)

McCulloch v. Maryland

d)

None of these cases could serve as precedent.

73.

If the president vetoes a bill, how can the veto be overridden?

a)

By a majority vote of the Supreme Court

b)

By a 2/3 vote of the Senate

c)

By a 2/3 vote of both house of Congress

d)

By a majority vote in both houses

74.

Who has the power of advice and consent to confirm presidential nominees?

a)

Senate

b)

House of Representatives

c)

Both houses of Congress

d)

Supreme Court

75.

Which of the following statements best describes the impact of the Supreme Court's decision in McCulloch v. Maryland?

a)

The Court ruled that states have authority over commercial activity within their borders, weakening national power.

b)

The Court ruled that creating a national bank fell within the national government's enumerated powers, confirming national powers.

c)

The Court upheld a division of power between the states and the national government by allowing states to tax national banks within their borders.

d)

The Court ruled that the necessary and proper clause allows the national government to create banks, strengthening national powers.

76.

By holding that Congress may regulate activity that is neither interstate nor commerce under the Interstate Commerce Clause, the Court abandons any attempt to enforce the Constitution's limits on federal power....

---Justice Clarence Thomas, dissenting opinion, Gonzales v. Raich

Which of the following statements best describes the viewpoint conveyed in the quotation?

a)

The system of federalism is threatened by the national government's expansion of power under the commerce clause.

b)

The federal government's authority under the commerce clause applies to interstate and commercial activity.

c)

The Tenth Amendment established a federal system of government where powers are reserved to the states.

d)

The commerce clause allows the federal government to regulate commercial activity within each state.

77.

Government in which citizens choose representatives to make laws and to govern on their behalf

a)

Power

b)

Citizens

c)

Republic

d)

Values

78.

A political system in which all citizens meet to discuss government matters and to vote firsthand

a)

Direct democracy

b)

Dictatorship

c)

Representative democracy

d)

Theocracy

79.

What were the Articles of Confederation?

a)

A design of government in which each branch has powers that can prevent the other branches from making policy

b)

A governing document that created a union of thirteen sovereign states in which the states, not the union, were supreme

c)

A document asserting that persons born in the U.S. are citizens and prohibits states from denying persons due process or equal protection under the law

d)

A design of government that distributes powers across institutions in order to avoid making one branch too powerful on its own

80.

Which of the following policies is the Tenth Amendment?

a)

A constitutionally required process for selecting the president through slates of electors chosen in each state, who are pledged to vote for a nominee in the presidential election

b)

An agreement reached by delegates at the Constitutional Convention that a slave would count as three-fifths of a person in calculating a state’s representation

c)

Reserves powers not delegated to the national government to the states and the people; the basis for federalism

d)

Asserting that persons born in the U.S. are citizens and prohibits states from denying persons due process or equal protection under the law

81.

What is a Social Contract?

a)

An agreement for a plan of government that drew upon both the VA and NJ plans; it settled issues of state representation by calling for a bicameral legislature with a House of Representatives apportioned proportionally and a Senate apportioned equally

b)

An agreement whereby individuals voluntarily commit to establish a government that will protect the common interests of all

c)

The belief that the authority and legitimacy of government is based on the consent of the individuals living within its boundaries

d)

A governing agreement that creates a union of sovereign states in which the states are supreme

82.

Who were the Anti-Federalists?

a)

People who favored national action over action at the state and local levels

b)

People who joined together to create a group that were not government affiliated but fought to change things within the government

c)

People who opposed the proposed constitution who favored stronger state governments and adding individual rights to the U.S. constitution

d)

People who favor state of local action rather than national action

83.

Which answer below describes Congress?

a)

A form of government in which elected leaders represent the interests of the people

b)

A national legislative (law-making) body that was created under the Articles of Confederation and in Article I of the U.S. Constitution

c)

The branch of the federal government that interprets that laws of the nation

d)

A political system in which there are certain restrictions placed on the government to protect individual rights and liberties

84.

What was a key difference between the Virginia Plan and present-day American government?

a)

The Virginia Plan did not call for 3 branches.

b)

The Virginia Plan did not divide the legislature into two houses.

c)

In the Virginia Plan, the president was not elected by the people.

d)

In the Virginia Plan, none of the legislature was elected by the people.

85.

The Great Compromise refers to the

a)

adoption of the Virginia Plan

b)

creation of the Senate and the House of Representatives

c)

adoption of the New Jersey Plan

d)

decision to count each slave as sixty percent of a person

86.

How do citizens express their opinions about issues per a referendum?

a)

letters

b)

the ballot

c)

town meetings

d)

petitions

87.

Madison's main argument in Federalists No. 10 and No. 51 was in defense of

a)

small democracies governed by direct democracy

b)

a bill of rights

c)

large republics

d)

large legislatures with small districts and frequent turnover

88.

The effect of Shay's Rebellion on the attendance of the Constitutional Convention was

a)

the fear of the collapsing of state governments

b)

the fear of British intervention

c)

the fear of public outcry against strengthening the Articles

d)

the fear of war

89.

Which statement MOST accurately characterizes the motives of the Framers behind the Constitution?

a)

Most acted out of a mixture of motives, with economics playing a modest role

b)

Those with no debt, but who did have slaves supported the Constitution

c)

Those who had debt, but no slaves opposed the Constitution

d)

The Framers support was divided along class lines

90.

No branch of government performs the same functions as another. This is an example of ____.

a)

Checks and Balances

b)

Federalism

c)

Limited Government

d)

Separation of Powers

91.

In Federalist 10, James Madison argued that factions...

a)

Were bad and could be countered by a small republic

b)

were good and helped protect the rights of the people

c)

Were bad and could be countered by a big republic

d)

Were good by empowering the national government

92.

Which of the following was NOT a problem in the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Congress had no power to tax

b)

Unanimous consent needed for amendments

c)

The executive Branch was too powerful

d)

National gov't was far inferior to state gov'ts

93.

The Declaration of Independence includes all of the following except____.

a)

Natural Rights

b)

Participatory Democracy

c)

Social Contract Theory

d)

Republicanism

94.

What is popular Sovereignty?

a)

The people voting more directly on every bill/law

b)

Rights we are born with

c)

Power of the people

d)

A restricted Government

95.

Direct involvement of citizens in political decisions-- not through elected officials

a)

Elite Democracy

b)

Participatory Democracy

c)

Pluralist Democracy

d)

Representative Democracy

96.
Why can no branch of government become too strong or powerful?
a)
Not enough laws are there to control power.
b)
separation of powers checks the other branches
c)
the president of the U.S. has all the control
d)
no one branch wants to be powerful
97.
Bicameral means there are ___ branches or houses
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
98.
Which of the following documents represents the first adopted Constitution for the United States?
a)
Bill of Rights
b)
Articles of Confederation
c)
Virginia Plan
d)
U.S. Constitution
99.
In a federal system of government, political power is primarily
a)
vested in local governments
b)
vested in the regional governments
c)
divided between the central government and regional governments
d)
divided between regional governments and local governments
100.
Which of the following constitutional principles most directly addresses the relationship between the national and state governments?
a)
The Bill of Rights
b)
Separation of Powers
c)
Checks and Balances
d)
Federalism
101.
Which principle states that the government is subject to the will of the people (the people decide)?
a)
limited government
b)
checks and balances
c)
popular sovereignty
d)
federalism
102.
The __________ supported the Constitution and wanted a stronger national government.
a)
Federalists
b)
Anti-Federalists
c)
Constitutionalists
d)
Anti-Constitutionalists
103.
The __________ did not support the Constitution and believed the Constitution created a central government that was too strong.
a)
Federalists
b)
Anti-Federalists
c)
Constitutionalists
d)
Anti-Constitutionalists
104.
Which of the following did the Constitution help strengthen?
a)
Powers of the states relative to the federal government
b)
The economic powers of the federal government
c)
The powers of the states with regard to treaty making
d)
All of these
105.
Which Federalist Paper discusses factions as being inevitable but controllable in a large republic such as the United States?
a)
Federalist #10
b)
Federalist #51
c)
Federalist #78
d)
Federalist #85
106.
Which of these was NOT a strength of the Articles of Confederation?
a)
It had a strong executive branch
b)
It was a governing document that helped end the Revolutionary War
c)
It created a post office
d)
It acted as one nation for foreign disputes
107.
The Connecticut Compromise drafted at the Constitutional Convention of 1787 is significant for which of the following reasons?
a)
It established the presidential system and gave the United States Supreme Court power to serve as the ultimate arbiter of constitutional disputes.
b)
It provided equality of representation among the states in both the House of Representatives and the Senate.
c)
It proposed a Senate with equal representation for each state and a House of Representatives with membership established according to the population of each state.
d)
It denied Congress the power to establish tariffs on exported merchandise.
108.
The framers of the Constitution intended to establish
a)
a representative republic.
b)
a direct democracy.
c)
a socialist democracy.
d)
a parliamentary republic.
109.
According to James Madison, which of the following best controls the effects of factions?
a)
Direct democracy
b)
Popular election of state judges
c)
A large republic
d)
Property requirements for eligibility to work
110.
Under the Articles of Confederation, which of the following were true?

I. Congress could not tax the states directly.
II. The executive branch of government exercised more power than Congress.
III. Congress was a unicameral body.

IV. States were represented in Congress proportionally according to population.
a)
I and II
b)
I and III
c)
II and III
d)
II and IV
111.
In The Federalist number 10, James Madison contended that government should
a)
deny citizens access to competitive factions.
b)
abolish most competitive factions.
c)
limit the number of political factions.
d)
permit many factions to compete.
112.
Congressional override of a Presidential veto is an example of which of the following?
a)
Checks and balances
b)
Federalism
c)
Judicial Review
d)
Concurrent powers
113.
Which Court case helped strengthen the Necessary and Proper Clause and the Supremacy Clause?
a)
Marbury v. Madison (1803)
b)
McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)
c)
Gibbons v. Ogden (1824)
d)
U.S. v. Lopez (1995)
114.

Which of the following SCOTUS cases does the description below provide:

In a 5-4 decision, the Supreme Court affirmed the decision of the Court of Appeals. It held that while Congress had broad lawmaking authority under the Commerce Clause, the power was limited, and did not extend so far from "commerce" as to authorize the regulation of the carrying of handguns, especially when there was no evidence that carrying them affected the economy on a massive scale

a)

McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)

b)

Schenck v. United States (1919)

c)

US v Lopez (1994)

d)

McDonald v Chicago (2010)