wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Accessibility and Housing Standards Quiz

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the minimum height of an accessible lavatory counter?

a)

0.60 m

b)

0.70 m

c)

0.80 m

d)

0.85 m

2.

What is the minimum width of an accessible parking slot for PWD?

a)

2.50 m

b)

2.70 m

c)

3.50 m

d)

3.70 m

3.

What is the minimum dimension of an accessible toilet cubicle?

a)

1.60 m x 1.70 m

b)

1.70 m x 1.70 m

c)

1.70 m x 1.80 m

d)

1.80 m x 1.80 m

4.

What is the maximum height of the basin tip of the urinal bowl?

a)

0.45 m

b)

0.46 m

c)

0.47 m

d)

0.48 m

5.

What is the minimum length of a PWD ramp level area?

a)

1.20 m

b)

1.50 m

c)

1.80 m

d)

2.10 m

6.

What is the maximum gradient of a ramp to a dropped curb?

a)

1:12

b)

1:100

c)

1:20

d)

1:200

7.

What is the maximum gradient of a dropped curb towards the street gutter?

a)

1:12

b)

1:100

c)

1:20

d)

1:200

8.

What is the maximum distance of one rest stop to another on busy or lengthy walkways?

a)

8 m

b)

12 m

c)

15 m

d)

20 m

9.

What is the minimum height clearance of walkways?

a)

1.80 m

b)

2.10 m

c)

2.00 m

d)

2.40 m

10.

What is the minimum height of an area reachable by bending knees?

a)

0.20 m

b)

0.30 m

c)

0.40 m

d)

0.60 m

11.

What is the maximum height of an area reachable by bending knees?

a)

0.20 m

b)

0.30 m

c)

0.40 m

d)

0.60 m

12.

What is the height of door hardware handles & handrails?

a)

0.85 m

b)

1.20 m

c)

1.10 m

d)

0.90 m

13.

What is the height of the center line of tactical signage?

a)

0.85 m

b)

1.50 m

c)

1.60 m

d)

0.90 m

14.

What is the maximum travel distance from the main entrance to the elevator lobby?

a)

10 m

b)

20 m

c)

30 m

d)

40 m

15.

What is the minimum dimension of an elevator?

a)

1.20 m x 1.40 m

b)

1.10 m x 1.40 m

c)

1.20 m x 1.50 m

d)

1.10 m x 1.50 m

16.

What is the minimum clearance between the wall & handrail?

a)

25 mm

b)

30 mm

c)

50 mm

d)

100 mm

17.

What is the minimum height of door thresholds?

a)

25 mm

b)

30 mm

c)

50 mm

d)

100 mm

18.

What is the width range of easy-to-grasp handrails?

a)

25 mm - 50 mm

b)

30 mm - 50 mm

c)

50 mm - 100 mm

d)

75 mm - 100 mm

19.

What is the clear width of a standing disabled person?

a)

0.60 m

b)

0.80 m

c)

0.75 m

d)

0.90 m

20.

What is the clear width of a walking stick user?

a)

0.60 m

b)

0.80 m

c)

0.75 m

d)

0.90 m

21.

What is the clear width of a disabled person in a wheelchair?

a)

0.60 m

b)

0.80 m

c)

0.75 m

d)

0.90 m

22.

Bathrooms shall be provided with window/s with an area of not less than ____ of its floor area?

a)

1/30

b)

1/20

c)

1/10

d)

1/50

23.

Mezzanine floors shall have a clear ceiling height of not less than 1.80 m above and below it; it shall not cover the floor area below it by:

a)

50%

b)

30%

c)

20%

d)

10%

24.

What is the minimum clear width of stairs?

a)

550 mm

b)

600 mm

c)

500 mm

d)

700 mm

25.

What is the maximum rise in stairs?

a)

300 mm

b)

200 mm

c)

250 mm

d)

280 mm

26.

What is the maximum height between stairway landing?

a)

3.0 m

b)

2.8 m

c)

2.0 m

d)

3.6 m

27.

Handrails shall not be less than ____ or more than ____ above the upper surface of the tread, measured vertically to the top of the rail from the leading edge of the tread.

a)

0.80 m : 1.20 m

b)

0.85 m : 1.0 m

c)

0.90 m : 1.20 m

d)

1.0 m : 1.20 m

28.

What is the minimum headroom clearance for stairs?

a)

2.00 m

b)

2.50 m

c)

3.0 m

d)

2.25 m

29.

What is the minimum clear height of doors?

a)

2.10 m

b)

2.0 m

c)

2.5 m

d)

2.7 m

30.

Rooms for habitable use shall be provided with windows with a total free area of openings equal to at least _____ of the floor area of the room.

a)

20%

b)

10%

c)

30%

d)

50%

31.

What is the minimum lot frontage for rowhouse units in economic housing as provided for in BP 220?

a)

2.0 m

b)

3.0 m

c)

3.5 m

d)

4.0 m

32.

What is the minimum lot frontage in corner lots for single detached housing?

a)

6.0 m

b)

5.0 m

c)

4.0 m

d)

8.0 m

33.

What is the minimum setback for dwelling units in both economic and socialized housing at the sides?

a)

2.0 m

b)

1.5 m

c)

1.0 m

d)

2.5 m

34.

What is the minimum width of the road-right-of-way of major roads that will serve as interconnecting roads?

a)

10 m

b)

12 m

c)

8 m

d)

6 m

35.

What is the minimum road-right-of-way for contiguous projects or projects developed in phases?

a)

8 m

b)

10 m

c)

6 m

d)

12 m

36.

What is the alley width intended to break a block & serve both pedestrian and emergency purposes?

a)

2.0 m

b)

4.0 m

c)

2.5 m

d)

3.0 m

37.

The distance between offset intersections from corner to corner should not be less than:

a)

10 m

b)

30 m

c)

20 m

d)

40 m

38.

What is the minimum lot area for single-detached units in economic housing projects?

a)

36 sqm

b)

72 sqm

c)

22 sqm

d)

42 sqm

39.

What is the minimum lot frontage for duplex/single-attached housing?

a)

5.0 m

b)

8.0 m

c)

6.0 m

d)

4.0 m

40.

What is the minimum area for parks & playgrounds?

a)

200 sqm

b)

50 sqm

c)

100 sqm

d)

500 sqm

41.

Saleable lots for single detached units must not exceed ___ the maximum selling price of house & lot packages.

a)

60%

b)

30%

c)

40%

d)

70%

42.

What percentage of gross subdivision area is allocated for community facilities if the density is not more than 150 dwelling units per hectare in socialized housing?

a)

1.5%

b)

2.0%

c)

1.0%

d)

3%

43.

What is the minimum distance between two buildings where the taller building has 3 or 4 storeys?

a)

5.0 m

b)

2.0 m

c)

3.0 m

d)

6.0 m

44.

When both sides of a building facing each other are blank walls (with minimal openings), what is the minimum distance required?

a)

1.0 m

b)

3.0 m

c)

5.0 m

d)

2.0 m

45.

What is the distance for provision of street lighting per pole?

a)

25 m

b)

30 m

c)

50 m

d)

60 m

46.

What is the minimum distance between buildings with more than 4 storeys?

a)

20 m

b)

10 m

c)

15 m

d)

30 m

47.

What is the suitable tree caliper diameter in millimeters or more for preservation?

a)

300 mm

b)

200 mm

c)

400 mm

d)

600 mm

48.

If a ground reservoir is to be put up, it must be protected from pollution by providing a buffer of at least:

a)

25 m

b)

30 m

c)

50 m

d)

20 m

49.

The elevated reservoir or water tank capacity must be of average daily demand plus fire reserve of:

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

10%

d)

50%

50.

Off-site parking may be allowed if the designated parking area is part of the project and is not more than:

a)

300 m

b)

400 m

c)

200 m

d)

100 m

51.

What is the minimum lot frontage for duplex units in both socialized & economic housing projects?

a)

5.0 m

b)

6.0 m

c)

4.0 m

d)

8.0 m

52.

What is the minimum lot frontage of a single-detached unit in an interior lot for both socialized and economic housing?

a)

4.5 m

b)

4.0 m

c)

5.0 m

d)

3.0 m

53.

What is the minimum lot frontage for rowhouses in socialized housing projects?

a)

3.0 m

b)

2.0 m

c)

3.5 m

d)

4.0 m

54.

What is the maximum block length in a subdivision under BP 220?

a)

300 m

b)

500 m

c)

200 m

d)

400 m

55.

What is the minimum floor area for socialized housing projects?

a)

18 sqm

b)

22 sqm

c)

32 sqm

d)

30 sqm

56.

What is the minimum horizontal dimension of courts under BP 220 with a minimum passageway width of ____ that leads to a street or yard?

a)

3.0 m : 1.0 m

b)

2.0 m : 1.2 m

c)

1.2 m : 2.0 m

d)

1.5 m : 2.40 m

57.

What is the maximum height of separation walls in joining of courts?

a)

3.0 m

b)

2.0 m

c)

4.0 m

d)

2.5 m

58.

Handrails are not required for stairs with less than _____ steps?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

5

59.

At least ____ millimeters of firewall is required whenever a dwelling abuts a property line.

a)

200

b)

100

c)

150

d)

110

60.

What is the required distance between buildings and eaves taller than 4 storeys?

a)

10 m : 6 m

b)

8 m : 4 m

c)

6 m : 2 m

d)

12 m : 8 m

61.

Housing units which are within the affordability level of the average and low-income earners, which is equal to 30% of the gross family income, as determined by MEDA, are classified as:

a)

Multi-dwelling housing

b)

Single-family dwelling

c)

Socialized & Economic Housing

d)

Rowhouses

62.

State-owned architecture schools are exempted from being _____ by the government so it can offer the architecture degree.

a)

listed

b)

recognized

c)

owned

d)

non-listed

63.

The BS Architecture Program is a ____ course.

a)

three-year

b)

four-year

c)

five-year

d)

six-year

64.

The architect is selected for a project by ____ method.

a)

direct

b)

referral by another architect

c)

design competition

d)

all listed

65.

An architect may acquire a project through:

a)

invitation

b)

newspaper advertisement

c)

bidding

d)

Facebook

66.

An architect's license may be suspended due to:

a)

no projects done

b)

non-payment of dues

c)

non-renewal

d)

fraudulent acts

67.

What law regulates the practice of the profession of architecture in the Philippines?

a)

RA 8266

b)

RA 8256

c)

RA 9246

d)

RA 9266

68.

The architect is selected for a project by:

a)

bidding

b)

advertisement

c)

design competition

d)

proposal

69.

The client can select an architect through:

a)

bidding

b)

advertisement

c)

referral by an architect

d)

proposal

70.

Participants in a design competition should be:

a)

artists

b)

civil engineers

c)

students

d)

registered architects

71.

SPP 201 is:

a)

Pre-design services

b)

Regular Design Services

c)

Construction Services

d)

Post Construction Services

72.

SPP 202 is:

a)

Pre-design services

b)

Regular Design Services

c)

Construction Services

d)

Post Construction Services

73.

SPP 204 is:

a)

Pre-design services

b)

Regular Design Services

c)

Construction Services

d)

non-listed

74.

SPP 205 is:

a)

Pre-design services

b)

Regular Design Services

c)

Construction Services

d)

Post-Construction Phase

75.

SPP Documents replaced the:

a)

1975 UAP Documents

b)

1979 PIA Documents

c)

1979 UAP Documents

d)

IAPOA Documents

76.

The _____ are studies involving secondary information as inputs to Architectural Design.

a)

Architectural Programming

b)

Matrix Analysis

c)

Architectural Research

d)

Pre-feasibility studies

77.

Which is an unethical action concerning the Architect's responsibility to colleagues and subordinates?

a)

Provides free professional service for a charitable project

b)

Donates to obtain advantage in a religious project

c)

Undertakes a commission from another Architect duly notified

d)

Serves as professional adviser, accepts employment as Design Architect for a competition project

78.

The act of conceiving, choosing, and developing the type, disposition, arrangement, and proportioning of the structural elements of an architectural work giving due consideration to safety, cost-effectiveness, functionality, and aesthetics is called:

a)

structural designing

b)

structural work

c)

structural conceptualization

d)

structural analysis

79.

Within 15 days after the awards of Bids, the payment to the Architect shall be adjusted so that it will amount to a sum equivalent to what percentage of the Basic Fee, computed upon the winning Bid Price?

a)

65%

b)

75%

c)

85%

d)

95%

80.

Arrange sequentially the following work according to the 16-division uniform construction index: i. Thermal and Moisture Protection ii. Specialties iii. Finishes iv. Doors and Windows

a)

i, iii, iv, ii

b)

ii, iii, iv, i

c)

i, iv, iii, ii

d)

ii, iv, iii, i

81.

Which is an ethical action concerning the Architect's responsibility to manufacturers, dealers, and agents?

a)

Accepts market discounts credited to client

b)

Receives gifts or favors from agents

c)

Receives commissions placing him in a reciprocal frame of mind

d)

Avails of technical services by manufacturer accompanied by an obligation

82.

Which is an unethical action concerning the Architect's responsibility to clients?

a)

Undertakes construction for a fixed contract sum under design-build service

b)

Does not offer preliminary sketches without an agreement

c)

Advises client to forego unviable project

d)

Guarantees any estimates or cost of the work

83.

Not included in the scope of services for Interior Design of a music studio commissioned to an Architect is:

a)

Prepares electronic equipment specifications

b)

Prescribes interior finishes

c)

Prepares furniture schedule

d)

Assists negotiations with fabricators

84.

The client will not have this as a basis for selecting the Architect using comparative selection:

a)

Personal acquaintance

b)

Ability to undertake the project

c)

References from former clients

d)

Number of technical staff members

85.

An activity where the Architect may be paid on a per diem basis plus out-of-pocket expenses such as travel, accommodations, and subsistence, long-distance telephone calls, secretarial service is:

a)

Confer with prospective investors

b)

Data gathering

c)

Feasibility study

d)

Accounting

86.

Which group classification belongs to projects involving extensive detail such as furniture design, built-in equipment, special fittings, screens, counters, interiors, and other detailed parts of buildings or structures and landscaping designs?

a)

Group 6

b)

Group 7

c)

Group 8

d)

Group 9

87.

How are projects classified in determining the basis for the Architect's Basic Fee?

a)

Material specifications

b)

Total floor area

c)

Degree of project complexity

d)

Structural components

88.

Which work item is chargeable to the Owner and not included in the regular scope of services?

a)

Miniature models of design studies

b)

Extra drafting of changes made by Owner

c)

Structural analysis

d)

Electrical load calculation

89.

A method of compensation that is flexible, easy to apply, and related to the size and type of the project is:

a)

Multiple of direct personnel expense

b)

Percentage of construction cost

c)

Professional fee plus expenses

d)

Lump sum or fixed fee

90.

When the Architect as Environmental Planner is commissioned to do town and regional planning or urban renewal projects, he performs the following except one:

a)

Undertakes demographic analysis

b)

Prepares concept development plans

c)

Conducts planning studies

d)

Studies client's accounting