WorksheetsAssessmentOneRecap
Total questions: 80
Worksheet time: 41mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Why would a network system administrator implement a dedicated network infrastructure for (SAN) traffic?
a)
To simplify network configuration
b)
To ensure SAN performance is not impacted by other network traffic
c)
To reduce costs
d)
To allow client PCs to access the SAN
2.
Which of the following protocols allow servers to access storage devices over IP networks by using TCP/IP to encapsulate commands and data, run on existing Ethernet infrastructure.
a)
iSCSI
b)
Fibre Channel
c)
HTTP
d)
FTP
3.
Which of the following is not an intermediary networking device?
a)
Router
b)
VoIP
c)
Switch
d)
Access Point
4.
Which of the following would describe a dedicated server?
a)
Server that provides multiple types of resources requested by a client
b)
Server that is solely for the use of web applications
c)
Server that is used for files and mail
d)
Server that requests resources from a client
5.
What type of network is a client server network that requires a single server to provide resources?
a)
Decentralized network
b)
Centralized network
c)
Hybrid network
d)
Dynamic network
6.
What does the logical topology of a network describe?
a)
The physical placement of nodes
b)
How data flows through the network
c)
The type of appliances used
d)
The distance between nodes
7.
What does quality of service (QoS) functionality in a network do?
a)
It improves security
b)
It optimizes the network for time-sensitive applications
c)
It increases the bandwidth of all links
d)
It reduces the number of nodes in the network
8.
What are the purposes of the OSI model? (Multiple Answers)
a)
To define hardware specifications
b)
To ensure compatibility between network devices
c)
Troubleshooting the network
d)
To create standardized network protocols
9.
What is the role of the Data Link layer in network communication?
a)
Transmitting electrical signals
b)
Moving data between nodes on different networks
c)
Transferring data between nodes on the same segment
d)
Establishing a connection between hosts
10.
What does the Presentation layer (Layer 6) handle?
a)
Data routing
b)
Data formatting, encryption, and compression
c)
Session establishment
d)
Error detection
11.
Which layer is responsible for identifying network applications using port numbers?
a)
Network layer
b)
Transport layer
c)
Data Link layer
d)
Application layer
12.
What is the main function of the (TCP) in the Transport layer?
a)
Establishing the physical connection
b)
Moving data across a network of networks
c)
Ensuring reliable data delivery and flow control
d)
Formatting data for transmission
13.
What is the primary function of a SOHO router?
a)
Provide wireless connectivity
b)
Route traffic between LAN and WAN
c)
Manage multiple networks in a local network
d)
Assign IP addresses
14.
Which device helps connect a SOHO router to the Internet via a DSL service?
a)
Repeater
b)
Modem
c)
Access Point
d)
Firewall
15.
Which of the following describes the demarcation point of a network?
a)
Where the customer's equipment ends and the ISP's equipment begins
b)
The point where the LAN connects to the WAN
c)
The central point of wireless access
d)
The point where IP addresses are assigned
16.
What is modulation in network data transfer?
a)
Encoding signals by changing transmission medium properties
b)
The process of assigning IP addresses
c)
Increasing data bandwidth
d)
Encrypting data for security
17.
What is the term used to describe the amount of data that can be sent over a network link?
a)
Throughput
b)
Bandwidth
c)
Latency
d)
Signal strength
18.
What does the term "xBASE-y" in Ethernet media specifications represent?
a)
Cable length and bandwidth
b)
Signal mode and media type
c)
Bit rate, signal mode, and media type
d)
Frequency range and cable type
19.
What is the main disadvantage of copper cables for data transmission?
a)
High cost
b)
High attenuation over long distances
c)
Susceptibility to water damage
d)
Limited bandwidth
20.
Which of the following protocols will be found in the OSI layer 7?
a)
CSMA/CD
b)
TCP/IP
c)
HTTPS
d)
TCP/UDP
21.
What is a "collision domain" in Ethernet networks?
a)
An area where signals collide due to simultaneous transmission
b)
A domain where nodes can transmit and receive at the same time
c)
A region where only fiber optic cables are used
d)
An isolated network segment
22.
What is the maximum distance for 1000BASE-T over Cat 5e copper cable?
a)
50 meters
b)
100 meters
c)
200 meters
d)
500 meters
23.
What type of fiber optic cable supports the longest distances for data transmission?
a)
Multimode Fiber
b)
Single Mode Fiber
c)
Coaxial Cable
d)
Twisted Pair Copper
24.
What does twisting the pairs of wires in twisted pair cable achieve?
a)
Increases the bandwidth
b)
Reduces interference and crosstalk
c)
Increases signal strength
d)
Reduces cable cost
25.
What type of coaxial cable is typically used for long distance broadband implementation?
a)
RG6
b)
RG59
c)
RG11
d)
RG45
26.
What type of cable uses (DAC) Direct Attached Copper transceivers used for short distance and high speed of 10 and 40G ethernet connections?
a)
Coaxial cable
b)
Twinaxial cable
c)
Fiber optic cable
d)
UTP cable
27.
What is the function of the core in fiber optic cabling?
a)
To reflect signals back into the waveguide
b)
To provide the transmission path for light signals
c)
To protect the fiber strand
d)
To prevent bending of the fiber
28.
What is the main difference between Single Mode Fiber (SMF) and Multimode Fiber (MMF)?
a)
SMF uses LEDs, MMF uses lasers
b)
SMF has a larger core than MMF
c)
SMF supports longer distances and higher speeds than MMF
d)
SMF is used only indoors, MMF is used outdoors
29.
Which connector is small-form-factor and widely adopted for Gigabit Ethernet, used with SMF, MMF and Fiber Channel?
a)
SC
b)
ST
c)
LC
d)
MPO
30.
What is a primary advantage of Angled Physical Contact (APC) fiber connectors?
a)
Lower cost
b)
Tighter connection for less signal loss
c)
Compatibility with all Ethernet patch panels
d)
Larger size for easier installation
31.
Which of the following connector is the most popular connector for WAN connectivity using SMF?
a)
Square Connector
b)
Lucent Connector
c)
Straight Tip
d)
MPO connectors
32.
Which of the following connector is a push on/pull off mechanism, has a floating ferrule that houses the fiber optic cable?
a)
Square Connector
b)
Lucent Connector
c)
Straight Tip
d)
MPO connectors
33.
Which term refers to the time it takes for a packet to be delivered in a network?
a)
Throughput
b)
Latency
c)
Attenuation
d)
Bit rate
34.
What is the main function of a NIC?
a)
Handle OSI Layer 3 protocols
b)
Physically connect a host to the transmission medium
c)
Manage network security
d)
Handle file storage
35.
What is the main difference between QSFP and QSFP+?
a)
QSFP supports 10 Gbps while QSFP+ supports 40 Gbps
b)
QSFP supports fiber optic only, QSFP+ supports copper
c)
QSFP supports Ethernet, QSFP+ supports Fibre Channel
d)
QSFP+ uses MPO termination, QSFP doesn’t
36.
What is the function of the cyclic redundancy check (CRC) in an Ethernet frame?
a)
To determine frame length
b)
To perform error checking
c)
To specify MAC address
d)
To initiate transmission
37.
What is a burned-in physical address?
a)
A MAC address assigned by the user
b)
A temporary network address
c)
A unique MAC address hard-coded by the manufacturer
d)
A broadcast address
38.
Crossover cables: connects different types of devices for device communication?
a)
True
b)
False
39.
What is link aggregation?
a)
Combining multiple switches into one unit.
b)
Using multiple network adapters for redundancy.
c)
Combining two or more cabled links into a single logical channel.
d)
Creating a mesh network with switches.
40.
What is the maximum size of a standard Ethernet frame's data payload?
a)
512 bytes
b)
1000 bytes.
c)
1500 bytes.
d)
2000 bytes.
41.
What is a jumbo frame?
a)
A frame with a data payload of 1,500 bytes
b)
A frame with a data payload of up to 9,216 bytes.
c)
A frame used in Wi-Fi networks.
d)
A frame with a higher EtherType value.
42.
Which protocol helps prevent broadcast storms in the data link layer?
a)
Spanning Tree Protocol
b)
Time To Live
c)
Hop Count
d)
Hop Limit
43.
In a SD-WAN architecture software defined networking simplifies network management with the use of layers. Which SDN layer makes decisions on how traffic should be forwarded and communicates with physical devices?
a)
Application Layer
b)
Control Layer
c)
Infrastructure/Data Layer
d)
Transport Layer
44.
What is the primary role of an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) in a network?
a)
Boost network speed
b)
Protect against data theft
c)
Keep devices running temporarily during power loss
d)
Improve Wi-Fi signal strength
45.
Which LED state indicates that a fault has been detected on a switch port?
a)
Solid green
b)
Flickering green
c)
Blinking amber
d)
Solid amber
46.
What is a typical cause of Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) errors?
a)
High-speed network
b)
Poor quality cable or interference
c)
Correctly functioning hardware
d)
Properly configured software
47.
What occurs when a MAC address cannot be found in the MAC address table?
a)
The switch disconnects the device
b)
The switch floods the frame out of all ports except the source
c)
The switch ignores the frame
d)
The switch reboots
48.
Which OSI layer is responsible for logical addressing and forwarding in an IP network?
a)
Layer 1
b)
Layer 2
c)
Layer 3
d)
Layer 4
49.
Which protocol is used for connectivity testing and status messaging in IPv4?
a)
ICMP
b)
GRE
c)
EIGRP
d)
ESP
50.
What is the purpose of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) in the TCP/IP suite?
a)
To resolve IP addresses to hostnames
b)
To resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
c)
To resolve IPv4 addresses to hardware MAC addresses
d)
To resolve domain names to IP addresses
51.
What type of IP address is used when a host wants to communicate with multiple hosts in the same broadcast domain?
a)
Unicast
b)
Multicast
c)
Broadcast
d)
Anycast
52.
What is the layer 2 MAC address used for broadcast traffic?
a)
00:00:00:00:00:00
b)
ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
c)
01:00:53:xx:xx:xx
d)
00:11:22:33:44:55
53.
What does a router use to determine how to forward packets between different subnets?
a)
MAC addresses
b)
ARP requests
c)
Routing tables
d)
IP headers
54.
What is a hybrid topology?
a)
A combination of different physical and logical topologies
b)
A single type of network layout
c)
A redundant network design
d)
A legacy network configuration
55.
What layer in a three-tiered network hierarchy connects end user devices?
a)
Core layer
b)
Distribution layer
c)
Access layer
d)
Aggregation layer
56.
Which layer in the hierarchical model is designed to provide redundant traffic paths and is also known as the backbone layer?
a)
Access layer
b)
Core layer
c)
Distribution layer
d)
Edge layer
57.
Which of the following term is used to describe a large group of network servers typically used by an organization for remote storage, processing, or the distribution of large amounts of data?
a)
Datacenter
b)
Main Distribution Frame
c)
Intermediary Distribution Frame
d)
Ethernet Frame
58.
Which layer 3 device uses an ASIC for faster performance compared to a router?
a)
Layer 2 switch
b)
Layer 3 switch
c)
Access point
d)
Hub
59.
What does the term "enterprise WAN" refer to?
a)
A WAN that uses fiber optic cables
b)
A WAN that is owned and controlled by a single organization
c)
A public network used by enterprises
d)
A WAN that uses wireless technology
60.
What type of traffic is referred to as north-south in a data center?
a)
Traffic going to and from clients outside the data center
b)
Traffic between servers within the data center
c)
Traffic between switches
d)
Traffic within a SAN
61.
Which of the following is a networking protocol that allows data packets to be transmitted over a network using labels instead of addresses as a way of establishing private links with guaranteed service levels without having to look up the destination address in a routing table?
a)
MPLS
b)
mGRE
c)
VPN
d)
QoS
62.
The transport layer has two data transmission protocols. Which of the following protocols will require a 3-way handshake to establish guaranteed reliable data transmission?
a)
Flags
b)
TCP
c)
UDP
d)
TTL
63.
What is the correct order of the OSI model from Layer 1 to Layer 7?
a)
Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
b)
Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
c)
Application, Session, Presentation, Network, Transport, Data Link, Physical
d)
Application, Presentation, Session, Data Link, Network, Transport, Physical
64.
A media converter is a device that converts the physical layer of one type of communication medium to another. What signal types are being converted in the image provided?
a)
Single Mode Fiber to Ethernet
b)
Multimode Fiber to Ethernet
c)
Fiber to Coaxial
d)
Single Mode to Multimode Fiber
65.
Which of the following connectors is high density and provides 2, 8, 12, 24 fiber optic connections in a single connector?
a)
Multi Fiber Push On Connector
b)
Square Connector
c)
Lucent/Local Connector
d)
Straight Connector
66.
What is an alternative term for a modem that converts digital data frame from (LAN) communication technology into a frame appropriate for a (WAN)?
a)
CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit)
b)
CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collison Detection)
c)
CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collison Avoidance)
d)
Collision Domain
67.
This protocol eliminates the use of a crossover cable. When enabled in a switch a straight through cable can be converted to a crossover cable.
a)
Auto MDIX
b)
Auto negotiation
c)
Link Aggregation
d)
Rollover
68.
A star and a hub and spoke topology have the same topology layout. What is the difference between each topology?
a)
A star topology is used in a local area network and the hub and spoke is used in a wide area network
b)
A star topology is used in a wide area network and the hub and spoke is used in a local area network
c)
There is no difference between a star and a hub and spoke topology
d)
The two topologies are used for a bus topology
69.
The spine and leaf architecture can be found in a data center environment. What are characteristics of a spine and leaf architecture? (Multiple Answers)
a)
The architecture consists of two layers
b)
The top layer is also referred to as the backbone of the network
c)
The switches located in the top and bottom layers should have redundant links between layers creating a mesh topology
d)
The spine and leaf architecture consists of three layers
70.
The three-tiered model consists of three layers. In which layer will security policies and routing between VLANs be found?
a)
Core Layer
b)
Distribution Layer
c)
Access Layer
d)
Presentation Layer
71.
What pinning color scheme does the image below represent?
a)
T-568A
b)
T-568B
c)
T1
d)
802.x
72.
Which of the following copper cables will prevent EMI and radio frequency interference?
a)
Coaxial Cable
b)
Unshielded Twisted Pair
c)
Shielded Twisted Pair
d)
Fiber Optic
73.
This device can transmit and receive signals, it is used to connect two communication systems or networks that use different protocols or technologies.
a)
Media Converter
b)
Lucent Connector
c)
Transceiver
d)
BNC Connector
74.
Return loss is how much light is reflected back to the source and resulting in creating an inefficiency in the amount of light that is sent to the destination.
a)
True
b)
False
75.
What two type of connectors can be used to terminate a coaxial cable? (Multiple Answers)
a)
BNC
b)
F-Type
c)
MT-RJ
d)
Lucent Connector
76.
What network intermediary device is able to process functions in both layer 2 and layer 3?
a)
Switch
b)
Multilayer Switch
c)
Router
d)
Access Point
77.
Which of the following are the PDU of both Layer 4 and Layer 2? (Multiple Answers)
a)
Bit
b)
Frame
c)
Packet
d)
Segment
78.
Which of the following is the PDU for Layer 3?
a)
Bit
b)
Frame
c)
Packet
d)
Segment
79.
Ethernet cable T-568a consists of 8 pins, what pin numbers will be used to receive data?
a)
Pins 1 & 2
b)
Pins 3 & 4
c)
Pins 3 & 6
d)
Pins 1 - 8
80.
Ethernet cable T-568a consists of 8 pins, what pin numbers will used to transmit data?
a)
Pins 1 & 2
b)
Pins 3 & 4
c)
Pins 3 & 6
d)
Pins 1 - 8
100 %
