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Learning Objectives Related to Cardiac Patients

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is one of the learning objectives related to cardiac patients?

a)

Demonstrate knowledge of dietary plans

b)

Understand the purpose of cardiac medications

c)

Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of applications of new technologies used on cardiac patients

d)

Learn about the history of cardiology

2.

Which learning objective involves distinguishing between different types of tests?

a)

Distinguish between invasive and non-invasive tests and modalities used to examine heart function

b)

Distinguish between different types of cardiac medications

c)

Distinguish between various heart diseases

d)

Distinguish between different types of dietary plans

3.

What is the purpose of understanding the signs and symptoms of disease according to the learning objectives?

a)

To create new treatment plans

b)

To correlate them with means of assessment, intervention, or treatment

c)

To develop new medications

d)

To improve dietary habits

4.

What is an invasive medical procedure?

a)

A procedure that does not involve breaking the skin barrier

b)

A procedure that involves cutting or puncturing the skin

c)

A procedure that is always non-invasive

d)

A procedure that is less expensive

5.

When should invasive procedures be performed?

a)

When non-invasive procedures yield the same information

b)

Without proper equipment

c)

Only in an appropriate setting with trained personnel

d)

Whenever they are less expensive

6.

What defines a non-invasive procedure?

a)

Involves entering the body

b)

Does not involve breaking the skin barrier

c)

Always requires cutting the skin

d)

Is more expensive than invasive procedures

7.

What views are used in plain radiography for an X-ray?

a)

PA and lateral views

b)

AP and oblique views

c)

Lateral and oblique views

d)

AP and PA views

8.

In a PA projection, which direction does the patient face?

a)

Away from the x-ray cassette

b)

Towards the x-ray cassette

c)

Towards the x-ray tube

d)

Away from the x-ray tube

9.

What structures are included in the right border of a chest X-ray?

a)

SVC, Asc. Ao, RA, IVC

b)

Ao arch, PA, LV

c)

Trachea, bronchi, hilum

d)

Diaphragm, liver, spleen

10.

What is the maximum percentage of the chest width that the heart should occupy in a chest X-ray?

a)

30%

b)

40%

c)

50%

d)

60%

11.

What does an electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG) detect?

a)

Electrical activity of the heart

b)

Blood pressure levels

c)

Blood sugar levels

d)

Body temperature

12.

In which setting is an ECG commonly used as a diagnostic screening tool?

a)

Emergency Room (ER)

b)

Dental Clinic

c)

Optometrist's Office

d)

Physical Therapy Center

13.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ECG?

a)

Easy to perform

b)

Invasive procedure

c)

Repeatable

d)

Used for follow-up

14.

An ECG can be used in conjunction with which type of test?

a)

Exercise stress test

b)

Vision test

c)

Hearing test

d)

Allergy test

15.

What type of information does echocardiography assess?

a)

Anatomic and physiologic

b)

Chemical and biological

c)

Genetic and molecular

d)

Psychological and emotional

16.

What is the prime modality of echocardiography?

a)

Invasive and stationary

b)

Portable, A/P, noninvasive

c)

Chemical and reactive

d)

Genetic and hereditary

17.

Which two main windows are used in 2D imaging for echocardiography?

a)

Transverse and longitudinal

b)

Parietal and occipital

c)

Parasternal and apical

d)

Frontal and sagittal

18.

What is the patient positioning for echocardiography?

a)

Supine

b)

Prone

c)

LLD (Left Lateral Decubitus)

d)

Standing

19.

Which of the following is a mode used in echocardiography?

a)

X-ray

b)

M-MODE

c)

MRI

d)

CT Scan

20.

What does PW in PW DOPPLER stand for in echocardiography?

a)

Pulse Width

b)

Pulse Wave

c)

Power Wave

d)

Pressure Wave

21.

Which Doppler technique is used to measure blood flow velocities in echocardiography?

a)

CW DOPPLER

b)

X-ray DOPPLER

c)

MRI DOPPLER

d)

CT DOPPLER

22.

Which of the following is NOT a type of Doppler used in echocardiography?

a)

PW DOPPLER

b)

CW DOPPLER

c)

CF DOPPLER

d)

UV DOPPLER

23.

What is the normal flow velocity in a normal diastolic function as shown in the color M-mode?

a)

Less than 30 cm/sec

b)

40 cm/sec

c)

Greater than 50 cm/sec

d)

60 cm/sec

24.

What pattern is observed in a normal M-mode color pattern?

a)

Horizontal M-mode color pattern

b)

Nearly vertical M-mode color pattern

c)

Circular M-mode color pattern

d)

Diagonal M-mode color pattern

25.

What happens to the flow propagation velocity with restrictive ventricular filling?

a)

It increases

b)

It remains the same

c)

It decreases

d)

It fluctuates

26.

In which condition is the flow propagation velocity increased?

a)

Restrictive ventricular filling

b)

Constrictive pericarditis

c)

Normal diastolic function

d)

Heart failure

27.

What is the name of the probe shown in the image?

a)

Doppler Probe

b)

Pedoff Probe

c)

Ultrasound Probe

d)

Stethoscope

28.

What is a Pedoff probe primarily used for?

a)

Obtaining high velocities

b)

Creating 3D images

c)

Measuring temperature

d)

Detecting electrical signals

29.

What type of Doppler does a Pedoff probe use?

a)

Pulsed wave Doppler

b)

Continuous wave Doppler

c)

Color Doppler

d)

Power Doppler

30.

What is a limitation of the Pedoff probe?

a)

It cannot measure blood pressure

b)

It has a large footprint

c)

It provides no simultaneous 2D image

d)

It is too expensive

31.

What is the Pedoff probe used to measure in severe cases?

a)

Blood sugar levels

b)

Velocity for severe AS and MS

c)

Heart rate

d)

Oxygen saturation

32.

What is the initial step in obtaining an apical 5 chamber view using a Pedoff probe?

a)

Use the regular transducer

b)

Angle the patient's head back

c)

Angle medially from the 3rd intercostal space

d)

Switch to a suprasternal view

33.

In the suprasternal window, where should the transducer be angled towards?

a)

The patient's right clavicle

b)

The aortic root

c)

The 4th intercostal space

d)

The left ventricle

34.

For the right parasternal window, from which intercostal space should the angle be made?

a)

1st

b)

3rd

c)

5th

d)

6th

35.

What type of probe must be used when AS velocity is close to or more than 3 m/s?

a)

Imaging probe

b)

Pedoff probe

c)

Linear probe

d)

Curved probe

36.

How many standard views should the CW Doppler transducer be utilized at a minimum?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

37.

What should be done if unable to obtain velocity?

a)

Skip the measurement

b)

Type "FAILED" on the image

c)

Type "ATTEMPTED" with the location on the image

d)

Restart the procedure

38.

What are the two best transducer positions for Doppler investigation of systolic blood flow across the aortic valve?

a)

Apical and Subcostal

b)

Parasternal and Apical

c)

Suprasternal and Subcostal

d)

Right Parasternal and Subcostal

39.

What is the purpose of using a Pedoff probe in Doppler ultrasound?

a)

To measure blood pressure

b)

To assess heart valve function

c)

To monitor fetal development

d)

To detect bone fractures

40.

Which window is NOT shown in the Doppler of AV using Pedoff probe image?

a)

Apical Window

b)

Right Parasternal Window

c)

Suprasternal Notch

d)

Left Parasternal Window

41.

What is the main difference in the curve pattern between MR and AS Doppler signals?

a)

MR has a sharper peak velocity

b)

AS has a rounder curve pattern

c)

MR has a rounder curve pattern

d)

Both have the same curve pattern

42.

During which phases does MR occur in the cardiac cycle?

a)

Only during IVCT

b)

Only during IVRT

c)

During both IVCT and IVRT

d)

After IVCT and before IVRT

43.

When does AS occur in relation to IVCT and IVRT?

a)

During both IVCT and IVRT

b)

After IVCT and ends before IVRT

c)

Only during IVCT

d)

Only during IVRT

44.

What is the best window to obtain the highest AV velocity due to the angle of the ultrasound beam in relation to the aortic valve?

a)

Left parasternal window

b)

Right parasternal window

c)

Apical window

d)

Subcostal window

45.

Where should the probe be placed to obtain the RPS velocity?

a)

2nd left intercostal space

b)

3rd right intercostal space

c)

4th left intercostal space

d)

5th right intercostal space

46.

How should the patient be positioned to obtain the RPS velocity?

a)

Lying on their left side

b)

Lying on their back

c)

Lying on their right side

d)

Sitting upright

47.

What does myocardial motion measure?

a)

Distance and velocity

b)

Temperature and pressure

c)

Volume and density

d)

Mass and energy

48.

Which moves faster, blood or muscle?

a)

Muscle

b)

Blood

c)

Both move at the same speed

d)

Neither moves

49.

What are the characteristics of Doppler shifts from blood movement?

a)

Low velocity and high amplitude

b)

High velocity and low amplitude

c)

High velocity and high amplitude

d)

Low velocity and low amplitude

50.

What is the purpose of system presets when performing Tissue Doppler?

a)

To enhance high velocity signals

b)

To filter out high velocity low amplitude signals

c)

To increase amplitude of all signals

d)

To decrease velocity of all signals

51.

What is the primary focus of the image shown?

a)

Continuous Wave Doppler

b)

Pulsed Tissue Doppler

c)

Color Doppler

d)

Spectral Doppler

52.

What is the early-diastolic filling velocity represented by in the pulsed tissue Doppler?

a)

A'

b)

E'

c)

E/A'

d)

E/E'

53.

Where are signals recorded from for the evaluation of diastolic function in pulsed tissue Doppler?

a)

Only the septal wall

b)

Only the lateral wall

c)

Both septal and lateral walls

d)

Neither septal nor lateral walls

54.

At what point are recordings made in pulsed tissue Doppler?

a)

During deep inhalation

b)

During normal quiet respiration

c)

During rapid exhalation

d)

During physical exertion

55.

What is the purpose of adding color Doppler in pulsed tissue Doppler?

a)

To measure blood pressure

b)

To visualize wall motion

c)

To calculate heart rate

d)

To assess lung function

56.

What is the E' velocity threshold for Pseudonormal Filling Moderate Grade II diastolic dysfunction?

a)

Less than 8 cm/s

b)

Greater than 8 cm/s

c)

Equal to 8 cm/s

d)

Less than 10 cm/s

57.

In Pseudonormal Filling Moderate Grade II, what is the range for the ratio of E to E'?

a)

Between 9 and 14

b)

Greater than 15

c)

Less than 9

d)

Between 5 and 10

58.

For Restrictive Filling Severe Grade III, what is the minimum ratio of E to E'?

a)

Greater than or equal to 15

b)

Less than 15

c)

Equal to 10

d)

Between 9 and 14

59.

What is the Tissue Doppler E'/A' ratio for Pseudonormal Filling Moderate Grade II?

a)

Less than 1

b)

Greater than 1

c)

Equal to 1

d)

Less than 0.5

60.

What does Pulsed Tissue Doppler analyze?

a)

Myocardial velocities within a sample gate

b)

Myocardial velocities within a color sector

c)

Myocardial velocities within the entire heart

d)

Myocardial velocities within the apex only

61.

What is the function of Color Tissue Doppler?

a)

Analyzes myocardial velocities within a sample gate

b)

Analyzes myocardial velocities within a color sector

c)

Analyzes myocardial velocities within the entire heart

d)

Analyzes myocardial velocities within the apex only

62.

Why doesn't the apex of the heart move much during the cardiac cycle?

a)

It is fixed to the diaphragm by pericardium and connective tissue

b)

It is not involved in the cardiac cycle

c)

It is too heavy to move

d)

It is controlled by external forces

63.

What does the contraction of the myocardium from the apex to the point of measurement affect?

a)

Velocities in one region depend on function in that region

b)

Velocities in one region do not depend on function in that region

c)

Velocities in one region are independent of myocardial contraction

d)

Velocities in one region are solely dependent on external factors