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FFA Quiz 1

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

in 1953, FFA membership reached 363,369 members

a)

True

b)

False

2.

In 1966, due to Civil Rights Act of 1964, which mandates the end of segregation, NFA merges with FFA, resulting in the end of NFA after 30 years of providing agricultural leadership development for rural Black male youth.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

The first FFA TV public service announcements aired in 1984.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Flood control planning allows us to divert excess water from swelling rivers and reservoirs to land that is able to absorb it during times of flooding.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Water reuse includes watering our crops, lawns, athletic fields and golf courses, or for industrial processes.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Under the U.S.-Chile FTA, U.S. agricultural exports to Chile grew from $145 million in 2003 to more than $900 million in 2013.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

By 2013, U.S. agricultural exports to Mexico had quintupled since the NAFTA entered into force even as Mexican agriculture also enjoyed steady growth.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

California, Iowa, and Texas make up more than one-third of total U.S. agricultural-output value.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Sanitary and phytosanitary standards (SPS) have to do with animal and plant products and are addressed in U.S. trade agreements’ SPS chapters.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

On May 18, 2021, the U.S. House of Representatives passed the Farm Workforce Modernization Act (H.R. 1603).

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Undocumented farm workers live every day under the threat of arrest and family separationall while working in extremely difficult conditions.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

In 2019, 56% of California farmers reported being unable to find all the workers they needed over the last ten years.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The Congressional Budget Office (CBO) is nonpartisan.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The H-2A visa can be re-approved annually for up to three years.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Victoria G. Myers was the Progressive Famer Senior Editor of Eminent Domain Victory for Landowners Supreme Court Victory for Texas Landowners Changes How Condemned Property Will Be Valued.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

HSC said the highest and best use of the condemned easement was as agricultural/recreational or rural/recreational land.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

HB 2730, HB 4107, SB 721, SB 725, and SB 726 are the five bills passed that will affect eminent domain issues in Texas.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

SB 726 requires a condemning entity to complete at least two actions (it had been three) to show "actual progress" on a condemned property.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

The potato was first introduced in Europe by Spain in 1436, and the Spanish claim that that Gonzalo Jimenez de Quesada was the first to introduce the potato to Europe.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Special guest Muhammad Ali was recognized at Reflections to honor the growing diversity of the organization during the 50th National FFA Convention.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

In 1952, the Granex onion, later to be claimed as Vidalia onion, was introduced in Texas.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Thomas Jefferson grew watermelon at Monticello, and by the early part of our nation's history, it was being grown by Native Americans from the Rio Grande Valley south to Florida.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

FFA celebrated 50 years of alumni membership in 2021.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

The Suffolk originated in England and was imported into the United States in 1788.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

In 2012, the official website, FFA.org, was updated to include a new look, a personalized dashboard, the resource My Journey, the FFA Resume Generator© and the FFA Brand Center.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Angora goats were first imported in the U.S. in the mid19th century and the earliest importation of officially recognized dairy goat breeds occurred in the late 19th century and early 20th century.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

In 2019-20 Texas had 1,070 FFA chartered chapters

a)

True

b)

False

28.

The last line of the FFA motto is “Learning to Do”

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Horses reached what today is southern Idaho by 1690 and the Northern Shoshone people in the Snake River valley had horses in 1700.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The fourth paragraph of The FFA Creed ends with, “… whose happiness depends upon me.”

a)

True

b)

False

31.

The FFA Emblem is the most recognizable symbol of the organization.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

. In 1839, the numbers of mustangs in Texas had been augmented by animals abandoned by Mexican settlers who had been ordered to leave the Nueces Strip.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

As an FFA member, I pledge to conduct and document a supervised agricultural experience program.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Chapter supplies, plaques, trophies and award pins can be ordered through the National FFA Gold catalog.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

To be eligible to receive the Greenhand FFA Degree from the chapter, a member must describe and explain the meaning of the FFA emblem and colors.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

In the U.S., the hide, skin, and leather industry, was able to make use of more than 30 million cattle hides in 2016.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

The percentage of the total state membership that may receive the State FFA Degree and other requirements may be established by the state FFA association.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

During the closing ceremonies the Advisor states, “Here by the owl!”

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Rules of speaking may deal with the presenter of a motion offering remarks before presenting a motion.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

The motion to rescind may be not amended if the motion contains multiple parts.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Macadamia nuts originated in New Zealand and production is primarily found in Hawaii, California, and Iowa.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Previous Notice is a verbal or written notice by a member of a society that they intend to try to pass business that was previously tabled by that society.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

The motion to close nominations requires a second, is undebatable, and unamendable.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Nominations may be made by a committee.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Rules of speaking may deal with the presenter of a motion offering remarks before presenting a motion.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

The value of fresh vegetables exported from Texas is $59 billion, ranking Texas sixteenth in the nation.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The motion to refer a motion to a committee may be reconsidered before the committee takes up the question.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

If an undebatable appeal is pending, the main question cannot be postponed until the appeal is disposed of.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The member offering the motion to refer to a committee may specify whether it is to go to a standing or special committee.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Written rules of parliamentary procedure may be proposed and adopted by an assembly or group relate to the orderly transaction of business in regular meetings or the duties of officers with those duties require a majority vote for approval.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

If a motion to adjourn dictates a time for adjournment the motion is qualified.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

An announcement of a vote can be appealed if a member does not agree with the decision.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

The top export market for U.S. Fresh Fruits is Mexico, then followed by Canada, South Korea, India, and Japan in rank order.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

If an amendment to the Rules of Order fails the vote can be reconsidered.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

A motion to suspend standing rules cannot be reconsidered.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

When considering the characteristics of the motion to discharge a committee only the negative vote can be reconsidered.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Ten states account for more than two-thirds of all the nursery crop output in the U.S. with California producing the most 20%.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

. A question may be postponed so it can be considered at a time that is more convenient or because debate has revealed one or more reasons to delay a decision.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Following the first phase, the top two candidates from each area will remain to participate in phase two which includes: one-on-one facilitation practicum, round robin round and personal round-conclusion.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Each of the components of the National Quality FFA Chapter Standards should be represented by an active standing committee charged with clear and measurable objectives.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

The first item in the Texas FFA Effective Chapters Doctrine is: “Strives for all agricultural education students to be FFA members because of the integral nature of FFA and Agriculture, Food and Natural Resources curricula.”

a)

True

b)

False

62.

The framework of the Texas FFA Effectives Chapters Doctrine is used to develop premier leadership among Texas FFA members is focused upon six areas.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Local chapters have the opportunity to bestow honorary membership on those community members who have rendered outstanding service to the local program and to the cause of the agricultural education and FFA.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Seven major forest types are found in the East Texas Piney Woods.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Junior membership, initiated in 1987, is a feature unique to Texas. Active chapters in good standing may establish junior FFA programs for students enrolled in the local chapter’s school district who are in the third grade and eight years old.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

. Dues are paid annually, and the membership year begins August 1 and expires on July 31.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

After completing two consecutive semesters, they may maintain continuous membership for a maximum of one year while not enrolled in a course provided they maintain an approved supervised experience program which is documented in the official grade book.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

In the last ten years, net membership growth is +69,706.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Don Beene of Fairfield served as the Executive Secretary for 12 years and retired in January 2018.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Stephen Scitern of Anson serves as the Chairman of the State Scholarship Committee.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Currently scholarships are award through the following recognition programs: agriscience fair, CDEs, LDEs, proficiency awards, star and SAE awards, speaking development events and the Texas FFA Rodeo.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Participants in the Senior Prepared Public Speaking events advance from district to area to state in their respective division. Six division champions are chosen in the semifinal round at the state FFA convention in July and an overall champion is selected in the final round.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

During the Marketing Plan event a three or four-member team applies practical skills in the marketing process by developing and presenting a marketing plan.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

The agriscience fair recognizes six disciplines of research: animal systems, environmental services/natural resource systems, food products and processing systems, plant and soil systems, power, structural, and technical systems, and social systems.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Henry Ford was able to mass produce automobiles inexpensively and Haber developed the process to mass produce NPK fertilizer inexpensively.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

John Deere was born February 7, 1837, and died May 17, 1886.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Electronic text files for preparation of materials for the visually impaired can be obtained by:

a)

buying it online.

b)

renting it from the library.

c)

contacting the National FFA Organization’s educational resource team.

d)

contacting your school board to get accommodations

e)

purchasing it on the National FFA website.

78.

Which of the following is not included in the platforms for delivery of mission?

a)

Agricultural knowledge

b)

Agricultural literacy

c)

Community engagement

d)

Career exploration

e)

Leadership concepts

79.

Which of the following is not open for all middle school FFA members and chapters?

a)

Partners in Active Learning Support (PALS)

b)

Agriscience Fair

c)

Service Learning

d)

Discovery FFA Degree

e)

SAE Grants

80.

When was the technical amendment to the FFA Federal Charter made to insure that the constitution was not in conflict?

a)

1988

b)

1979

c)

1969

d)

1998

e)

1975

81.

Which of the following individuals was an educator at Virginia State College?

a)

Dr. H.O. Sargent

b)

G.W. Owens

c)

J.R. Grey

d)

Bobby Tucker

e)

David Simmons

82.

The NFA Creed had _____ paragraphs and each paragraph began with “I Believe.”

a)

four

b)

five

c)

six

d)

seven

e)

eight

83.

Which National FFA President resigned his office to join the military?

a)

Harold Gum

b)

Marvin Jagels

c)

David Simmons

d)

Wade Turner

e)

Leslie Applegate

84.

Who was the first NFA President?

a)

Harold Gum

b)

Marvin Jagels

c)

David Simmons

d)

Wade Turner

e)

Leslie Applegate

85.

Which historical event occurred in 1926?

a)

H.O. Sargent and G.W. Owens wrote the first constitution and bylaws for the New Farmers of Virginia.

b)

First National Congress of Vocational Agriculture Students assembled for a National Livestock Judging Contest at the American Royal Livestock and Horse Show in Kansas City, Mo.

c)

A group of FFA officers and members made a pilgrimage to Washington, D.C., where they are greeted on the White House lawn by President Franklin D. Roosevelt.

d)

First National FFA Convention was held in Kansas City: 33 delegates from 18 states in attendance.

e)

28.5 acres of land was purchased for the first FFA-owned national headquarters; the land is part of George Washington’s estate.

86.

How many states were represented at the Second National FFA Convention?

a)

9

b)

33

c)

18

d)

64

e)

21

87.

Which historical item of note occurred in 1947?

a)

First National FFA Agriculture Proficiency Award was presented for Agricultural Mechanics.

b)

Delegates restricted membership to boys only.

c)

Blue corduroy jacket was adopted as Official Dress.

d)

National FFA Supply Service began operation.

e)

The first National FFA Band performed at the National FFA Convention.

88.

The first National FFA Agriculture Proficiency Award was presented for Agricultural Mechanics in _____.

a)

1928

b)

1934

c)

1944

d)

1947

e)

1951

89.

Which historical event occurred in 1975?

a)

Alaska became the last of the 50 states to obtain a national charter.

b)

First FFA Student Handbook was published.

c)

Former President Harry S. Truman spoke during the national convention.

d)

The U.S. Post Office Department issued a special stamp to celebrate the 25th anniversary of FFA.

e)

President Jimmy Carter addressed the National FFA Convention.

90.

In ____ Agriscience Student Recognition Program was introduced.

a)

1985

b)

1086

c)

1987

d)

1988

e)

1989

91.

When was Seeds of Hope launched?

a)

2002

b)

2003

c)

2004

d)

2005

e)

2006

92.

Which of the following are the characteristics of the motion to Discharge a Committee?

a)

Only the negative vote can be reconsidered; a majority vote is required when previous notice is given, otherwise two-thirds; it can interrupt a speaker; it is amendable to time only; it is debatable; a second is required

b)

Only the negative vote can be reconsidered; a majority vote is required when previous notice is given, otherwise two-thirds; it cannot interrupt a speaker; it is amendable to time only; it is undebatable; a second is required

c)

Only the negative vote can be reconsidered; a majority vote is required when previous notice is given, otherwise two-thirds; it cannot interrupt a speaker; it is amendable to time only; it is debatable; a second is required

d)

Only the negative vote can be reconsidered; a majority vote is required when previous notice is given, otherwise two-thirds; it cannot interrupt a speaker; it is amendable to time only; it is debatable; a second is not required

e)

Only the negative vote can be reconsidered; a majority vote is required when previous notice is given, otherwise two-thirds; it can interrupt a speaker; it is amendable to time only; it is debatable; a second is required

93.

Following such a code of ethics permits a group to conduct business in the most effective and _____ manner.

a)

efficient

b)

ethical

c)

organized

d)

democratic

e)

systematic

94.

Which of the following is the complete list of characteristics that a president officer should possess?

a)

Neat appearance; Fair and impartial judgement; Skill in organizing; Well-developed voice, Ability to learn parliamentary procedure; Willingness to work; Composure and self-confidence; Cooperative personality

b)

Skill in organizing; Neat appearance, Calmness and self-awareness; Well-developed voice, Ability to learn parliamentary procedure, Willingness to work; Fair and impartial judgement

c)

Fair and impartial judgement; Calmness and self-awareness; Willingness to work; Ability to learn parliamentary procedure; Team spirit, Cooperative personality; Skill in leading people

d)

Ability to learn parliamentary procedure; Team spirit; Well-developed voice; Willingness to work; Neat appearance, Calmness and self-confidence, Fair and impartial judgment, Skill in leading people

e)

Willingness to work; Ability to learn parliamentary procedure; Composure and selfawareness; Confidence in oneself; Neat appearance; Team Spirit

95.

9. When warranted, the presiding officer should either not recognize a member whose intent is _____ or after presentation of such a proposal, rule it out of order altogether.

a)

dilatory

b)

out of order

c)

negative

d)

obstructive

e)

argumentative

96.

After voting is completed, the president announces the _____ of the vote. “The ayes have it and the motion is carried. We will (state effect of the motion passed).”

a)

count

b)

count and impact

c)

findings

d)

result and effect

e)

results

97.

To which of the following motions do the following characteristics refer? 4th Gray’s Guide Page 24 • It cannot be reconsidered • It does not require a second • It may interrupt a speaker • It is undebatable • Recognition is not necessary • It is unamendable

a)

Appeal from the Decision of the Chair

b)

Suspend the Rules

c)

Point of Order

d)

Reconsider

e)

Rescind

98.

When considering the motion to postpone to a certain time (definitely) the motion’s application to a main motion affects any motions that may be pending such as a motion to amend, refer, or _____.

a)

suspend

b)

withdraw

c)

reconsider

d)

appeal

e)

suspend

99.

What happens during a meeting if the quorum, as stated in the organizations bylaws, is not present?

a)

the chapter membership may suspend standing rules in order to conduct business as usual.

b)

the chapter may do everything on the agenda but to transact business the orders of the day must be properly disposed of to transact business that requires a vote.

c)

the chapter can do everything on the agenda except transact business that would require the allocating of funds.

d)

the chapter can do everything on the agenda except transact business that would require a vote.

e)

the chapter membership can do everything on the agenda if previous notice was given, this allows the transaction of business.

100.

Debate must be limited to the immediately pending question (this is known as germane), which is the _____.

a)

motion on the floor.

b)

the first motion properly offered by a member.

c)

the last motion properly offered by a member.

d)

ast question stated by the president.

e)

first question stated by the president.

101.

Motions are voted upon _____.

a)

in reverse order of their proposal.

b)

as determined by the member presenting such motions.

c)

as determined by the proper orders of precedence.

d)

as decided upon by the president.

e)

in order of their proposal.

102.

Motions to bring an item of business back before the assembly are secondary motions (not main motions) that assist the group in _____ items of business that need revision or further consideration.

a)

addressing

b)

approving

c)

organizing

d)

passing

e)

handling

103.

When should a motion that is temporarily delayed be brought back before the assembly?

a)

once information has been gathered and the committee or individuals responsible are ready to report

b)

whenever possible and convenient

c)

as soon as a member makes the motion to bring the motion back before the assembly

d)

it is not necessary to be brought back before the assembly

e)

as soon as possible

104.

Which of the following are the pertinent facts of the motion to lay on the table?

a)

A second is required; It is undebatable and unamendable; A two-thirds vote is necessary; It cannot be reconsidered

b)

A second is required; It is debatable and amendable; A majority or two-thirds vote is necessary; It cannot be reconsidered

c)

A second is required; It is undebatable and unamendable; A majority vote is necessary; It can be reconsidered

d)

. A second is required; It is undebatable and unamendable; A majority vote is necessary; It cannot be reconsidered

e)

A second is required; It is undebatable and amendable; A majority vote is necessary; It cannot be reconsidered

105.

How many of the following statements are correct methods for the president to state to begin discussion if the question is debatable? 4 th Edition Gray’s Page 10 • “Is there any debate?” • “Are there any remarks?” • “The question is now open for debate.” • “Debate is now open” • “The question is not open for discussion.” • “Does anyone have any discussion?”

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

e)

five

106.

If a member yields the floor before speaking the member’s ten minutes, that member _____.

a)

may offer a main motion to reserve the remaining time for further debate.

b)

is presumed to have reserved the remaining time for further debate

c)

is presumed to have waived the right to the remaining time.

d)

may offer an incidental motion to reserve the remaining time.

e)

is presumed to have allocated the remaining time to the next speaker.

107.

At the base of the Foundation High School Program is a _____-credit core that provides the minimum requirements to earn a Texas high school diploma.

a)

20

b)

22

c)

24

d)

26

e)

28

108.

Which of the following is not a component of the Foundational SAE?

a)

Workplace Safety

b)

Agricultural Literacy

c)

Personal Finance Training

d)

Career Exploration and Planning

e)

Employability Skills for College and Career Readiness

109.

. Which of the following is not one of the Texas FFA Strategic Priorities?

a)

Academic Excellence

b)

Diversity

c)

Sound Financial Planning

d)

Leadership and Personal Skill DevelopmentSound Financial Planning

e)

Effective Communications

110.

Which program was approved to being on February 1st?

a)

Tuleta

b)

Holcombe

c)

Yancey

d)

Penelope

e)

Corsicana State Orphans Hone

111.

Who is credited as being the father of the Texas Future Farmer movement?

a)

Arthur Ellis

b)

E.J. Hughes

c)

Howard Strother

d)

Claude B. Hudspeth

e)

E.R. Alexander

112.

When did Fred McClure become the Texas FFA president?

a)

1971

b)

1972

c)

1973

d)

1974

e)

1975

113.

Which of the following individuals was a Texas FFA Executive Secretary?

a)

Vanessa Brossman

b)

A.D. Pinson

c)

Michelle Vasbinder

d)

E.C. Weekly

e)

Les Hudson

114.

During which Texas FFA Convention was the state collegiate FFA constitution adopted?

a)

73rd

b)

74th

c)

75th

d)

76th

e)

77th

115.

The Texas FFA Foundation came about, in part, due to the gifts of C. J. “Red” Davidson, a Fort-Worth, oilman who, on his morning walk in downtown Fort Worth, happened onto a group of well-dressed and groomed blue-corduroy-clad boys streaming into the _____ Convention Center.

a)

Dallas County

b)

Bexar County

c)

Harris County

d)

Tarrant County

e)

Nueces County

116.

The needs and priorities were captured in a partnership menu for a capital campaign to raise _____ dollars to provide an endowment to earn enough investment interest to support the goals named by the leadership council.

a)

$15 million

b)

$3.5 million

c)

$1.5 million

d)

$4.2 million

e)

$1.3 million

117.

Which FFA Area did Ryan Mott represent as a State Vice President?

a)

Area VI

b)

Area VII

c)

Area IV

d)

Area VIII

e)

Area V

118.

Which of the following is not a requirement to be eligible to apply for a Texas FFA College Scholarship?

a)

submit the most current Texas FFA scholarship application

b)

be a U.S. citizen

c)

be in the upper one-half of his/her class, based on scholastic rank, for the first three and one-half years of high school for all scholarships

d)

declare intent to attend a Texas college or university in the following fall semester

e)

upon graduation, have completed at least three academic calendar years and at least five different semesters of instruction in agriculture, food and natural resources during grades 9 through 12

119.

The agriscience fair recognizes six disciplines of research: animal systems, environmental services/natural resource systems, food products and processing systems, plant systems, power, structural, and _____ systems, and social systems.

a)

technical

b)

mechanical

c)

agricultural

d)

power

e)

political

120.

The nation’s top three-star chapters are considered for Premier Chapter or Models of Excellence recognition in the three POA divisions: Growing Leaders, Building Communities, _____.

a)

Developing Members

b)

Strengthening Agriculture

c)

Encouraging Chapters

d)

. Forming Coalitions

e)

Obtaining Support

121.

In 1928, four students received the state farmer degree as members of the Future Farmers of Texas: Lacy Baker and H.R. Wright of _____, and Robert Gardner and Leon King of Denison.

a)

Denison

b)

Weatherford

c)

Dilley

d)

Waco

e)

Kyle

122.

In _____ Haber won the Nobel Prize for this discovery

a)

1908

b)

1928

c)

1912

d)

1921

e)

1918

123.

Management and Business, Science and Engineering majors make up ___% and 31% of the anticipated openings.

a)

32

b)

42

c)

40

d)

35

e)

56

124.

Who was the author of Agriculture Industry Grows Texas Farms, Ranches Cultivate the State’s Economy which was published October 2022.

a)

Astrid Alvarad

b)

Sid Miller

c)

. Debbie Stabenow

d)

Ella Smith

e)

Tom Vilsack

125.

Which crop was grown by Caddo Tribes in the eastern part of Texas?

a)

Sorghum

b)

Squash

c)

Rice

d)

Barley

e)

Hay

126.

What are the top three agricultural commodities in Texas?

a)

Swine, Alfalfa, Milk

b)

Cattle, Milk, and Broilers

c)

Sorghum, Swine, Cotton

d)

Cattle, Oats, Milk

e)

Broilers, Rice, Oats

127.

In 2018, the top agricultural export from Texas to Mexico was _____.

a)

corn

b)

broilers

c)

cotton

d)

wheat

e)

fertilizer

128.

How many Texas counties were struggling with the worst drought since 2011?

a)

253

b)

147

c)

245

d)

203

e)

182

129.

In 1839, Congress appropriated _____ for “carrying out agriculture investigations.”

a)

1 million

b)

$1,000

c)

$10,00

d)

$1,100

e)

$100,000

130.

. What was the response rate for the 2017 Census of Agriculture?

a)

33.1

b)

92.3

c)

71.8

d)

54.9

e)

43.6

131.

. In the year 2007, about 44% of land use was dedicated to _____.

a)

grassland

b)

cropland

c)

livestock facilities

d)

pastureland

e)

woodland

132.

Which state saw the largest decline in crop acreage between 2012 and 2017?

a)

South Dakota

b)

Kansas

c)

Montana

d)

Texas

e)

Kentucky

133.

ERS recently updated the typology to reflect three important trends: commodity price increases, a shift in production to _____, and the rapid growth of the use of production contracts among livestock producers. F

a)

small scale farms

b)

commercial operations

c)

large farms

d)

family owned operations

e)

local farms

134.

8. _____ agencies are active participants in setting national and international standards

a)

Natural Resources Conservation Service [NRCS)

b)

Marketing and Regulatory Programs (MRP)

c)

Food and Nutrition Services (FNS)

d)

Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS)

e)

United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

135.

The Rural Housing Service offers programs to build or improve community facilities such as ______.

a)

highways

b)

zoos

c)

hospitals

d)

dog parks

e)

swimming pools

136.

. One acre of land can grow _____ pounds of strawberries.

a)

1,600

b)

50,000

c)

125,000

d)

3,400

e)

9,000

137.

Which bill requires entities with eminent domain power to disclose to the property owner any and all current and existing appraisal reports produced or acquired by the entity that relate specifically to the owner's property and were used in determining the entity's opinion of the value?

a)

SB 721

b)

SB 725

c)

HB 4107

d)

HB 27

e)

HB 9089

138.

The Hlavinka case was first appealed on several issues. Included was whether HSC Pipeline was a "common carrier," as defined by Texas law, and whether the product their pipeline would carry, _____, was an oil product.

a)

propylene

b)

propane

c)

gasoline

d)

natural gas

e)

clenbuterol

139.

Which of the following is false about Attorney Brian McLaughlin?

a)

he is based at Midland Texas

b)

private counselor

c)

chairman of the Texas & Southwestern Cattle Raisers Association's Property Rights and Tax Committee

d)

chairman of the Texas & Southwestern Cattle Raisers Association's Legal Advisory Committee

e)

chairman of the Texas & Southwestern Cattle Raisers Association's Eminent Domain Advisory Group

140.

Which bill would modernize the H-2A program?

a)

HR 2A

b)

HR 2710

c)

HR 4107

d)

HR 5038

e)

HR 725

141.

The overall contribution of the agriculture sector to GDP is larger than this because sectors related to agriculture, forestry, fishing, and related activities; food, beverages, and tobacco products; textiles, apparel, forestry, fishing, and related activities; food, beverages, and tobacco products; _____, apparel and leather products; food and beverage stores; and food service, eating and drinking places rely on agricultural inputs in order to contribute added value to the economy.

a)

textiles

b)

wool

c)

mohair

d)

clothing

e)

feathers

142.

Which of the following would NOT be a benefit of legalizing undocumented immigrant farmworkers?

a)

Fair wage.

b)

Protection from exploitation and abuse

c)

Farmworkers would be liable for all injuries.

d)

Ability to come out of the shadows.

e)

Full participation in the community.

143.

Which would factually be the outcome of forcing undocumented individuals to leave the U.S.?

a)

Employment opportunities for U.S.-born workers would decrease.

b)

Tax revenues would greatly increase

c)

The food supply would be devastate

d)

. The individuals would never try to return.

e)

A war would break out.

144.

In recent years, workers in states like California and Oregon have also faced wildfires and record heat waves, in addition to the threat of _____.

a)

flooding

b)

COVID-19

c)

volcanoes

d)

violence

e)

hurricanes

145.

When did the U.S. House of Representatives passed the Farm Workforce Modernization Act?

a)

May 27, 2022

b)

December 12, 2019

c)

March 18, 2021

d)

January 3, 2023

e)

July 12, 2020

146.

According to the USDA, agricultural exports are expected to reach nearly _____ in fiscal year 2023.

a)

$100 billion

b)

. $150 billion

c)

$200 billion

d)

$250 billion

e)

$300 billion

147.

Which two cities need to urgently upgrade and replace their water infrastructures?

a)

. New York and Philadelphia

b)

Boston and Charleston

c)

Cleveland and Detroit

d)

. New York and Detroit

e)

New Jersey and Pittsburg

148.

Which of the following offers tax credits to grocery stores that open in food deserts.

a)

House Bill 2710

b)

. House Bill 1118

c)

House Bill 4107

d)

House Bill 725

e)

House Bill 615

149.

Which is not a recommendation from the TDA report to help producers prepare for extreme weather?

a)

Create more food forests.

b)

Restore soil health and improve water quality.

c)

Have farmers work alongside researchers and policymakers.

d)

Strengthen bonds between local farmers and businesses.

e)

Have farmers install federally prepared.

150.

Who is Victor Murphy? I

a)

a climate scientist that wrote “Climate Forecasting & Social Change”

b)

a climate service program manager with the National Weather Service

c)

the chairman of the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program

d)

the President of MIT

e)

a member of the U.S. House of Representatives

151.

Until the year 2050, how much will SSP5 reduce poverty by each year?

a)

30 million

b)

23 million

c)

26 million

d)

18 million

e)

35 million